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1
Q
  1. Included in whipple’s triad, except:
    a. Signs and symptoms of Hypoglycemia
    b. Plasma glucose of <70 mg/dL
    c. Relief of symptoms after glucose load
    d. None of these
A

b. Plasma glucose of <70 mg/dL

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2
Q
  1. True of the smallest enzyme:
    a. Amylase
    b. Ptyalin
    c. Catalyze breakdown of polysaccharide
    d. Both a and c
    e. All of these
A

e. All of these

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3
Q
  1. Which of the following results in Two-Step Method of OGTT is not
    a criterion for diabetes
    a. FBS >95 mg/dL
    b. 1hr ≥ 150 mg/dL
    c. 2 hr ≥ 153 mg/dL
    d. 3 hr ≥ 140 mg/dL
A

c. 2 hr ≥ 153 mg/dL

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4
Q
  1. Which of the following is not an Alkaline Copper Reduction
    Method
    a. Folin Wu
    b. Neocuproine
    c. Nelson Somogyi
    d. Benedict’s
    e. None of the choices
A

e. None of the choices

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5
Q
  1. Enzyme added in Glucose Oxidase Method to measure all forms
    of glucose
    a. Mutarotase
    b. Catalase
    c. Coagulase
    d. G6PD
A

a. Mutarotase

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6
Q
  1. Most important requirement for patients requested wit OGTT
    a. Fasting 8-10 hours, not exceeding 16 hours
    b. Unrestricted diet for 3 days prior to testing
    c. Patient must not be bedridden
    d. Patient is restricted to exercise right before the blood collection
    commence
A

c. Patient must not be bedridden

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7
Q
  1. Reduced chromogens added in glucose oxidase method,
    except:
    a. O-dianisidine
    b. N,N-dimethylaniline
    c. 3-methyl-2-benzothiazolinone hydrazine
    d. O-toluidine
A

d. O-toluidine

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8
Q
  1. A condition wherein cellular insulin receptors are altered or not
    present
    a. Type 1 DM
    b. Juvenile Onset DM
    c. Brittle Diabetes
    d. All of these
    e. None of these
A

e. None of these

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9
Q
  1. Recommended treatment is administration of insulin
    a. Insulin Dependent Diabetes Mellitus
    b. Brittle Diabetes
    c. Ketosis-prone Diabetes
    d. All of these
    e. None of these
A

d. All of these

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10
Q
  1. Sodium fluoride inhibits glycolysis by
    a. Forming complex with Mg2+
    b. Inhibiting fructokinase
    c. Both
    d. Neither
A

a. Forming complex with Mg2+

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11
Q
  1. Whole blood glucose values are approximately what percent
    different from plasma glucose values?
    a. 20% higher
    b. 15% lower
    c. 50% higher
    d. No difference
A

b. 15% lower

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12
Q
  1. Recommended method of OGTT among non-pregnant patient
    is measurement of glucose on blood sample collected after
    a. Fasting time, 120 minutes post glucose load
    b. Fasting time, 60, 120, 180 minutes post glucose load
    c. Fasting time, 60, 120 minutes post glucose load
    d. None of the above
A

a. Fasting time, 120 minutes post glucose load

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13
Q
  1. Which of these does not promote gluconeogenesis?
    a. Glucocorticoids
    b. T3 and T4
    c. Adrenocorticotropic Hormone
    d. None of these
A

d. None of these

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14
Q
  1. HbA1c level is dependent on
    a. RBC life span
    b. Plasma glucose concentration
    c. Both
    d. Neither
A

c. Both

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15
Q
  1. Conversion of glucose into stored form
    a. Gluconeogenesis
    b. Glycogenesis
    c. Glycolysis
    d. Glycogenolysis
A

b. Glycogenesis

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16
Q
  1. Drugs that can induce dysfunctional beta-cells
    a. Dilantin
    b. Thiazides
    c. Glucocorticoids
    d. Both b and c
A

a. Dilantin

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17
Q
  1. Genetic disorder associated with death of brain cells
    a. Leprechaunism
    b. Huntington’s chorea
    c. Rabson-mendengall
    d. None of these
A

b. Huntington’s chorea

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18
Q
  1. The formation of schiff’s base is true about what glucose
    method
    a. Glucose oxidase method
    b. Hexokinase method
    c. Titrimetric method
    d. Condensation method
A

d. Condensation method

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19
Q
  1. True of glucagon, except
    a. Increased during stress
    b. Normally increased after meal
    c. Primary hyperglycemic hormone
    d. None of these
A

b. Normally increased after meal

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20
Q
  1. Reactive hypoglycemia which occurs 4 hours post-prandially
    typically shows neurogenic symptoms. Fasting hypoglycemia
    typically shows neuroglycopenic symptoms which occurs after 10
    hours without food intake
    a. Only first statement is false
    b. Only second statement is false
    c. Both statements are true
    d. Both statements are false
A

c. Both statements are true

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21
Q
  1. Renal threshold for glucose
    a. 180 mg/dL of plasma glucose
    b. refers to the concentration of glucose in the plasma that ceases
    renal reabsorption of glucose
    c. Both a and b
    d. Neither
A

c. Both a and b

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22
Q
  1. Preferred method of measurement of glycated hemoglobin
    a. Affinity chromatography
    b. Cation-exchange Chromatography
    c. Electrophoresis
    d. High Performance Liquid Chromatography
A

a. Affinity chromatography

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23
Q
  1. Presence of sugar in urine
    a. Glucosuria
    b. Melituria
    c. Both a and b
    d. Neither
A

b. Melituria

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24
Q
  1. The end color of Folin Wu method is blue colored solution. The
    same end color is exhibited by Benedict’s test
    a. Only first statement is false
    b. Only second statement is false
    c. Both statements are true
    d. Both statements are false
A

b. Only second statement is false

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25
25. Glucose oxidase alone can measure all forms of glucose in the blood. Hexokinase method is not affected by bilirubin unlike glucose oxidase a. Only first statement is false b. Only second statement is false c. Both statements are true d. Both statements are false
d. Both statements are false
26
26. Which of the following pairs of GSD and enzyme deficiency is correct a. Pompe- Muscle phosphorylase b. Von Grerke- Glucose-6-translocase c. Hers- Glycogen phosphorylase d. Tauri- Glycogen synthase
c. Hers- Glycogen phosphorylase
27
27. Most common enzyme deficient in galactosemia a. Galactokinase b. Galactose 1-phosphate uridyl transferase c. Uridine diphosphate galactose-4-epimerase d. None of these
b. Galactose 1-phosphate uridyl transferase
28
28. All are true about stable diabetes, except a. Insulinopenia b. Undetectable C-peptide c. Presence of autoantibodies d. All of these e. None of these
d. All of these
29
29. Recommended sort-term glycemic monitoring test for patients with hemoglobinopathy a. Glycosylated hemoglobin b. Plasma protein ketoamine c. Both a and b d. Neither
b. Plasma protein ketoamine
30
30. Which Type 1 DM associated autoantibody is common among adults a. Islet cell autoantibodies b. Tyrosine phosphatase IA-2 c. Glutamic acid decarboxylase d. Insulin autoantibodies
c. Glutamic acid decarboxylase
31
31. The visible spectrum lies between what wavelengths? a. 200-600 nm b. 400-700 nm c. 300-500 nm d. 700-800 nm
b. 400-700 nm
32
32. Which component of spectrophotometer function to isolate specific spectrum of wavelength from a polychromatic light? a. Light source b. Monochromator c. Photodetector d. Read-out device
b. Monochromator
33
33. Photometric technique useful in measurement of easily excitable ions a. Atomic absorption spectrophotometry b. Flame photometry c. Fluorometry d. Chemiluminescence
b. Flame photometry
34
34. Which of the following methods measured the amount of light scattered a. Flame photometry b. Turbidimetry c. Nephelometry d. Chemiluminescence
c. Nephelometry
35
35. The most common and reliable way of quantitating electrophoretic pattern a. Fluorometry b. Densitometry c. Chemiluminescence d. Use of UV light
b. Densitometry
36
36. Light source used by atomic absorption spectrophotometry a. LASER b. Flame c. Hollow-cathode lamp d. Deuterium lamp
c. Hollow-cathode lamp
37
37. Turbidimetry measures the amount of light scattered by a particle. Instrument used in turbidimetry is spectrophotometer. a. Only first statement is false b. Only second statement is false c. Both statements are true d. Both statements are false
a. Only first statement is false
38
38. Photometric technique useful in measurement of unexcitable ions a. Atomic absorption spectrophotometry b. Flame photometry c. Fluorometry d. Chemiluminescence
a. Atomic absorption spectrophotometry
39
39. Converts transmitted radiant energy into its equivalent electrical energy a. Light source b. Monochromator c. Photodetector d. Read-out device
c. Photodetector
40
40. A type of spectrophotometer that permits automatic correction of sample absorbance by simultaneously measuring the absorbance of the blank and the sample a. Single-beam spectrophotometer b. Double-beam spectrophotometer c. Fluorometer d. All of these
b. Double-beam spectrophotometer
41
41. Which of the following electrolyte is not measured in the laboratory a. Ionized calcium b. Potassium c. Organic phosphate d. Magnesium
c. Organic phosphate
42
42. True of Cystic Fibrosis, except a. Electrolytes are increased in the sweat b. Exocrine glands are affected c. Congenital disorder d. Inherited from gene in chromosome 7 e. None of the choices
e. None of the choices
43
43. Electrolytes that are used to calculate Anion Gap, except a. Chloride b. Potassium c. Sodium d. Carbonic Acid
d. Carbonic Acid
44
44. Ion selective electrodes are called selective rather than specific because they actually measure the a. Activity of one ion only b. Concentration of the ion c. Activity of one ion much more than other ions present d. Concentration and activity of one ion only
c. Activity of one ion much more than other ions present
45
45. In an internal standard flame photometry, the internal standard is used to a. Correct for errors in making dilutions b. Correct for variations in flame and atomizer charac. c. Help in separating Na+ and K+ signals d. Give a direct reading in concentration
b. Correct for variations in flame and atomizer charac.
46
46. In flame emission photometry, an excited orbital electron returns to ground and emits a. A photon of light with a wavelength for the element being measured b. A measurable current proportional to the conc. of the element being measured c. A total charge proportional to the energy sed in the reduction of the element being measured d. A constant potential equal to the concentration of the element being measured
a. A photon of light with a wavelength for the element being measured
47
47. The antibiotic used in potassium determination for ion selective electrode is a. Vancomycin b. Erythromycin c. Amikacin d. Valinomycin
d. Valinomycin
48
48. In flame photometry, potassium emits this characteristic color a. red b. violet c. orange d. yellow
b. violet
49
49. Quantitation of Na+ and K+ by ion-selective electrode is the standard method because a. dilution is required for flame photometry b. there is no lipoprotein interference c. of advance in electrochemistry d. of the presence of an internal standard
c. of advance in electrochemistry
50
50. The buffering capacity of blood is maintained by a reversible exchange process between bicarbonate and a. sodium b. potassium c. calcium d. chloride
d. chloride
51
51. Which of the following electrolytes is the chief plasma cation whose main function is maintaining osmotic pressure a. chloride b. calcium c. potassium d. sodium
d. sodium
52
52. A potassium level of 6.8 mEq/L (6.8 mmol/L) is obtained. Before reporting the results the first step the technologist should take is to a. check the serum for hemolysis b. rerun the test c. check the age of the patient d. do nothing, simply report out the result
a. check the serum for hemolysis
53
53. In the kidneys, reciprocal relationship exists between a. sodium and potassium b. sodium and chloride c. potassium and CO2 d. sodium and bicarbonate
a. sodium and potassium
54
54. What is the colorimetric method used in determining sodium conc.? a. Schales and schales b. Lockhead and Purcell c. Ferric thiocyanate d. Albanese Lein
d. Albanese Lein
55
55. What is the preferred anticoagulant of choice for Na+ and K+ determination? a. Sodium citrate b. EDTA c. Sodium Heparin d. Lithium Heparin
d. Lithium Heparin
56
56. The electrolyte responsible for the regulation of RMP and excitation of skeletal muscle a. sodium b. chloride c. potassium d. lithium
c. potassium
57
57. Chronic Thiazide intake could _____ renal reabsorption of calcium thus promote _____ plasma level of calcium a. INC, DEC b. DEC, DEC c. INC, INC d. DEC, INC
c. INC, INC
58
58. Among patients with Vitamin D deficiency, the calcium absorption in the small intestine is _____ while the plasma level is ______ a. LOW/LOW b. LOW/HIGH c. HIGH/LOW d. HIGH/HIGH
a. LOW/LOW
59
59. Clark-Collip method is used to determine the level of which electrolyte? a. Magnesium b. Phosphate c. Bicarbonate d. Calcium
d. Calcium
60
60. In hyperthyroidism, there is _____ Magnesium renal reabsorption and _____ plasma magnesium level a. LOW/HIGH b. HIGH/LOW c. HIGH/HIGH d. LOW/LOW
d. LOW/LOW
61
61. Pancreatitis promotes ______ absorption of Magnesium in the S.I. and ____ Magnesium plasma level a. LOW/HIGH b. HIGH/LOW c. HIGH/HIGH d. LOW/LOW
d. LOW/LOW
62
62. In renal tubular acidosis, the plasma potassium level is _____ while the potassium renal excretion is ______ a. LOW/HIGH b. HIGH/LOW c. LOW/LOW d. HIGH/HIGH
a. LOW/HIGH
63
63. The following can increase potassium level in the plasma, except a. Prolong tourniquet application b. Thrombocytopenia c. Hemolysis d. Rapid fist quenching
b. Thrombocytopenia
64
64. When there is muscle paralysis, the potassium level is _____ while the cell excitability is ____ a. HIGH/HIGH b. LOW/HIGH c. LOW/LOW d. HIGH/LOW
c. LOW/LOW
65
65. When ADH level is excessive, the plasma conc. of sodium is ______ while water retention is ______ a. LOW/HIGH b. HIGH/HIGH c. HIGH/LOW d. LOW/LOW
a. LOW/HIGH
66
66. In Multiple Myeloma, the unmeasured anion is _______ with _______ anion gap a. HIGH/HIGH b. LOW/LOW c. HIGH/LOW d. LOW/HIGH
b. LOW/LOW
67
67. In metabolic alkalosis, there is _____ anion gap because of ______ unmeasured anion a. HIGH/LOW b. LOW/HIGH c. LOW/LOW d. HIGH/HIGH
d. HIGH/HIGH
68
68. Ferro and Ham method is utilized for the determination of which electrolyte a. Magnesium b. Phosphate c. Calcium d. Lactate
c. Calcium
69
69. Titan yellow method is used for the determination of which electrolyte a. Magnesium b. Phosphate c. Calcium d. Lactate
a. Magnesium
70
70. Fiske-Subbarow method is employed for the determination of which electrolyte a. Magnesium b. Phosphate c. Calcium d. Lactate
b. Phosphate
71
71. The condition where there is lowest percent saturation of iron is a. Megaloblastic anemia b. Pernicious anemia c. IDA d. Hemolytic anemia e. NOTC
c. IDA
72
72. The trace element that is a vital component of Vitamin B12 is a. Copper b. Manganese c. Cobalt d. Iron e. NOTC
c. Cobalt
73
73. The vitamin that plays a vital role in blood coagulation mechanism is a. A b. B6 c. C d. K e. NOTC
d. K
74
74. It is the principal iron transport protein in the body a. Ferritin b. Apotransferrin c. Apoferritin d. Transferrin e. NOTC
d. Transferrin
75
75. Trace element that is essential in the normal metabolism of cholesterol in the body a. Molybdenum b. Arsenic c. Chromium d. Lead e. NOTC
c. Chromium
76
76. Trace element that is important in its inclusion on xanthine oxidase a. Copper b. Molybdenum c. Arsenic d. Zinc e. NOTC
b. Molybdenum
77
77. This trace element is carried by a protein known as Ceruloplasmin a. Copper b. Molybdenum c. Arsenic d. Zinc e. NOTC
a. Copper
78
78. The storage form of iron in the spleen, bone marrow, and liver is a. Transferrin b. Ferritin c. Apotransferrin d. Ferroportin
b. Ferritin
79
79. The vitamin acts in iron absorption in the GIT a. B12 b. C c. E d. K e. NOTC
b. C
80
80. The trace element that is important in the immune system as it helps in strengthening the leukocytes a. Manganese b. Cobalt c. Copper d. Zinc e. NOTC
d. Zinc

Final Na 2 (4 decks)

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