H3M4/ Flashcards
(80 cards)
1
Q
- Part of the vascular intima that is involve in clotting process by
producing and storing clotting components
a. CT Matrix
b. Endothelium
c. Subendothelial Collagen
d. Subendothelial CT
A
b. Endothelium
2
Q
- Procoagulant property of a damaged vascular intima which
binds vWF that binds and activates platelets
a. An exposed smooth muscle cells & fibroblast
b. An exposed subendothelial collagen
c. Damaged or activated endothelial cells that secretes vWF
d. Smooth muscles found in arterioles & arteries
A
b. An exposed subendothelial collagen
3
Q
- Properties of platelet wherein platelet binds to a non-platelet
surface:
a. Adhesion
b. Aggregation
c. Secretion
A
a. Adhesion
4
Q
- The narrowing of the lumen of the blood vessels during primary
hemostasis will:
a. Decrease the blood flow on the uninjured area of blood vessels
b. Increase the blood flow on the injured area of blood vessels
c. Release of circulating inhibitors in the plasma
d. Release of clotting properties of the endothelium
e. None
A
e. None
5
Q
- The conversion of membrane phospholipids to arachidonic acid
during platelet secretion is the function of
a. Cyclooxygenase
b. Phospholipid A2
c. Thromboxane A2
d. Thromboxane Synthetase
e. NONE (Phospholipase A2 dapat)
A
e. NONE (Phospholipase A2 dapat)
6
Q
- The conversion of arachidonic acid to prostaglandin
endoperoxidase during platelet secretion is the function of:
(Choices from Q5)
a. Cyclooxygenase
b. Phospholipid A2
c. Thromboxane A2
d. Thromboxane Synthetase
A
a. Cyclooxygenase
7
Q
- A form of hereditary vascular disorder that has a vascular defect
wherein the blood vessels are thin-walled with a discontinuous
endothelium, inadequate smooth muscle, and inadequate or
missing elastin in the surrounding stroma:
a. Ehlers-Danlos Syndrome
b. Louis-Bar Syndrome
c. Kasabach-Merritt Syndrome
d. Rendu-Osler-Weber Syndrome
A
d. Rendu-Osler-Weber Syndrome
8
Q
- A form of hereditary vascular disorder that has a vascular defect
in collagen production, structure, or crosslinking, with resulting
inadequacy of the connective issues: (Choices from Q7)
a. Ehlers-Danlos Syndrome
b. Louis-Bar Syndrome
c. Kasabach-Merritt Syndrome
d. Rendu-Osler-Weber Syndrome
A
a. Ehlers-Danlos Syndrome
9
Q
- A form of hereditary vascular disorder which involves association of a giant cavernous hemangioma (vascular tumor),
thrombocytopenia, and a bleeding diathesis: (Choices from Q#7)
a. Ehlers-Danlos Syndrome
b. Louis-Bar Syndrome
c. Kasabach-Merritt Syndrome
d. Rendu-Osler-Weber Syndrome
A
c. Kasabach-Merritt Syndrome
10
Q
- The following are acquired defects of platelet adhesion,
except:
a. Anli-platelet antibodies
b. Chronic Liver Disease
c. Scott Syndrome
d. All of These
A
c. Scott Syndrome
11
Q
- An autosomal recessive thrombocytopenias which involves
mutations in the NBLEA2 Gene:
a. Congenital Amegakaryocytic Thrombocytopenia
b. Immune Thrombocytopenia
c. Gray Platelet Syndrome
d. Wiskott-Aldrich Syndrome
e. NONE (NBEAL2 Gene dapat) if typo → GPS
A
c. Gray Platelet Syndrome
12
Q
- An even in the physiologic hemostasis wherein there is a
gradual digestion and removal of the fibrin clot as healing of the
injury occurs:
a. Coagulation
b. Fibrinolysis
c. Platelet Secretion
d. Vasoconstriction
A
b. Fibrinolysis
13
Q
- It is exposed from a disrupted subendothelial cells which
activates the coagulation system through contact with plasma
Factor VIl
a. Collagen
b. Tissue Factor
c. ТРА
d. Thrombomodulin
A
b. Tissue Factor
14
Q
- It binds to GP IIb/IIIa receptors on adjacent platelets and joins
them together in the presence of an ionized calcium.
a. Fibrillin
b. Fibrin
c. Fibrinogen
d. Fibronectin
A
c. Fibrinogen
15
Q
- The following coagulation factors are consumed during the
process of coagulation except:
a. Antihemophilic Factor A
b. Fibrin Stabilizing Factor
c. Proaccelerin
d. Proconvertin
A
d. Proconvertin
16
Q
- The following are calcium and vitamin k independent
coagulation factors, except:
a. Fitzgerald Factor
b. Fletcher Factor
c. PTA
d. PTC
A
d. PTC
17
Q
- The primary in vivo initiation mechanism for extrinsic
coagulation cascade depends on the formation of a.
a. IXa: VIlla
b. TF.Via
c. TF:VIla
d. Xa:Va
A
c. TF:VIla
18
Q
- It is considered the marker of thrombosis and fibrinolysis:
a. Fragment D-E-D
b. Fragment E
c. Fragment X
d. Fragment Y
e. None (D-Dimer)
A
e. None (D-Dimer)
19
Q
- An intrinsic plasminogen activator secreted by the urinary tract
epithelial cells, monocles and macrophages that convert
plasminogen into its activated for:
a. PAl-1
b. TAFI
c. ТРА
d. UPA
A
d. UPA
20
Q
- It is considered the primary inhibitor of free plasmin:
a. A2-antiplasminogen
b. PAI-1
c. TAFI
d. TFPI
E. none A2 antiplasmin
A
E. none A2 antiplasmin
21
Q
- The internal elastic lamina which primarily supports the
endothelial cells are composed of
a. Collagen & Elastin
b. Collagen & Fibroblasts
c. Elastin & Proteases
d. Elastin & Zymogens
A
a. Collagen & Elastin
22
Q
- Bernard-Soulier Syndrome involves an abnormal platelet
function due to this missing platelet membrane receptor:
a. GPIb/Ila Receptor
b. GPIb/Ila Receptor
c. GPIII Receptor
d. GPIla/lIb Receptor
e. none
A
e. none
23
Q
- Glanzmann Thrombasthenia involves an abnormal platelet
function due to this missing platelet membrane receptor: (Choices
from Q#22)
a. GPIb/Ila Receptor
b. GPIb/Ila Receptor
c. GPIII Receptor
d. GPIla/lIb Receptor
e. none
A
e. none
24
Q
- The following are components of the platelet alpha-granules,
except:
a. ATP
b. PDGF
c. Protein S
d. B-Thromboglobulin
A
a. ATP
25
25. FVI was removed & never reassigned as part of the blood
clotting factors because:
a. It was determined to an activated form of contact factor
b. It was determined to be an activated form of proconvertin
c. It was determined to be an activated form of proaccelerin
d. It was determined to be an activated form of stable factor
c. It was determined to be an activated form of proaccelerin
26
26. Coagulation factors that are affected by coumadin (PIVKAS):
a. Prothrombin, Proaccelerin, PTA, Stuart Factor
b. Prothrombin, Proaccelerin, PTC, Stuart Factor
c. Prothrombin, Proconvertin, PTA, Stuart Factor
d. Prothrombin, Proconvertin, PTC, Stuart Factor
d. Prothrombin, Proconvertin, PTC, Stuart Factor
27
27. Initiation phase of the coagulation cascade will produce
________ of the total thrombin generated:
a. 2-3%
b. 3-5%
c. >95%
d. >99%
b. 3-5%
28
28. It is a cofactor to FVIla:
a. Contact Factor
b. Fletcher Factor
c. Labile Factor
d. Stable Factor
e. none
e. none
29
29. TF:FVIla complex will activate low levels of:
a. Christmas & Stuart Factor
b. Labile & Stable Factor
c. Proconverlin & Proaccelerin
d. PTA & PTC
a. Christmas & Stuart Factor
30
30. These are activated by thrombin in the initiation phase bind to
platelet membranes and become receptors for FX and FIXa:
a. Flla & FVa
b. FVa & FVIla
c. FVa & FVIlla
d. FXa & FVa
c. FVa & FVIlla
31
31. A rare autosomal recessive disorder characterized by a specific
absence of morphologically recognizable alpha-granules in
platelets.
a. Chediak-Higashi Syndrome
b. TAR Syndrome
c. Hermansky Pudlak Syndrome
d. Wiskott-Aldrich Syndrome
e. none
e. none
32
32. An autosomal recessive disorder with a defective lysosomal
function in variety of cells types with a tyrosine positive
oculocutaneous albinism and a profound platelet dense granule
deficiency. (Choices from Q#32)
a. Chediak-Higashi Syndrome
b. TAR Syndrome
c. Hermansky Pudlak Syndrome
d. Wiskott-Aldrich Syndrome
c. Hermansky Pudlak Syndrome
33
33. A rare autosomal recessive disorder that is accompanied by
severe immunologic defects and progressive neurologic
dysfunction in patients who survived to adulthood. A gene
mutation in the long arm of Chromosome 1 is associated. (Choices
from Q#32)
a. Chediak-Higashi Syndrome
b. TAR Syndrome
c. Hermansky Pudlak Syndrome
d. Wiskott-Aldrich Syndrome
a. Chediak-Higashi Syndrome
34
34. This are released from a disrupted or damaged vessels which
binds and activates platelets
a. Collagen
b. Prostacyclin
c. P-Selectin
d. vWF
d. vWF
35
35. A disorder with a characteristic mutation in the NBLEA2 gene is
an example of what type of thrombocytopenia (NBEAL2???)
a. Autosomal Dominant Thrombocytopenia
b. Autosomal Recessive Thrombocytopenia
c. Congenital Thrombocytopenia
d. Sex-Linked Thrombocytopenia
b. Autosomal Recessive Thrombocytopenia
36
36. Which of the following blood coagulation factor is a cofactor?
a. Christmas Factor
b. Fletcher Factor
c. Labile Factor
d. Stable Factor
c. Labile Factor
37
37. Which of the following will serve as the source of tissue factor
a. Fibroblasts
b. Subendothelial cells
c. Both
d. Neither
c. Both
38
38. When a person has Vitamin K deficiency, the following
coagulation factor will most likely be affected, except:
a. Christmas Factor
b. Hageman Factor
c. Stable Factor
d. Stuart Facto
b. Hageman Factor
38
39. Classic form of Wiskott-Aldrich Syndrome is alternatively called
as:
a. Eczema Thrombocytopenia Immunodeficiency Syndrome
b. Eczema Thrombocytosis Immunodeficiency Syndrome
c. Emphysema Thrombocytopenia Immunodeficiency
d . Emphysema Thrombocytosis Immunodeficiency Syndrome
a. Eczema Thrombocytopenia Immunodeficiency Syndrome
39
40. Activation of the following coagulation factors in the intrinsic
coagulation pathway
a. Hageman Factor, Plasma Thromboplastin Antecedent, Anti-Hemophilic Factor B, Anti-Hemophilic Factor A, Stuart Factor, Labile Factor, Prothrombin, Fibrinogen
b. Hageman Factor, Thromboplastin Antecedent, Anti-Hemophilic Factor C, Anti-Hemophilic Factor B, Stuart Factor, Labile Factor, Prothrombin, Fibrinogen
c. Hageman Factor, Plasma Thromboplastin Component, Anti-Hemophilic Factor B, Anti-Hemophilic Factor A, Stuart Factor, Labile Factor, Prothrombin, Fibrinogen
d. Hageman Factor, Plasma Thromboplastin Component, Anti-Hemophilic Factor C, Anti-Hemophilic Factor B, Stuart Factor
e. Labile Factor, Prothrombin, Fibrinogen
a. Hageman Factor, Plasma Thromboplastin Antecedent, Anti-Hemophilic Factor B, Anti-Hemophilic Factor A, Stuart Factor, Labile Factor, Prothrombin, Fibrinogen
40
41. Evaluated under low power field and is the largest cell in the
bone marrow
a. Megakaryocytes
b. Macrophages
c. Histiocytes
d. Langerhan cells
a. Megakaryocytes
41
42. The vertical and horizontal interactions of membrane proteins
maintain the biconcave, discoid geometry of the RBC. describe
the result of these forces
a. Prevents loss of membrane
b. Prevents membrane from fragmenting in response to too much stress
c. Both A & B
c. Both A & B
42
43. This pre-analytical process is considered as the most important
step in an analytical procedure
a. Test Ordering
b. Sample Preparation
c. Patient Identification
d. Computation of Results
c. Patient Identification
43
44. Which of the following marrow types is hematopoietically
active?
a. Red
b. Yellow
c. Both
d. Neither
a. Red
44
45. Where is the site of hematopoiesis during the myeloid phase
a. Yolk Sac
b. Liver
c. Bone Marrow
d. A and C
c. Bone Marrow
45
46. A leukocyte with round nucleus, light blue cytoplasm with few
or no granule, average % in blood is 34
a. Monocyte
b. Eosinophil
c. Lymphocyte
d. Neutrophil
c. Lymphocyte
46
47. Where is most hematopoietic tissue found in adults?
a. Lungs
b. Flat Bones
c. Spleen
d. Long Bones
d. Long Bones
47
48. Hematopoietic development phase which occurs during the
5th month of fetal development?
a. Mesoblastic Phase
b. Hepatic Phase
c. Medullary Phase
d. Yolk Sac Phase
c. Medullary Phase
48
49. The control center of the cell is the?
a. Nucleus
b. Cytoplasm
c. Membrane
d. Microtubular System
a. Nucleus
49
50. After age 70 years, fatty metamorphosis increases
approximately ____% per decade
a. 50
b. 10
c. 40
d. 30
b. 10
50
51. When a stained blood smear is examined to determine the
percentage of each type of leukocyte present and assess the
erythrocyte and platelet morphology, this is a
a. Differential count
b. PBS count
c. Both
d. None
c. Both
51
52. The bone resorbing cell is known as
a. Kupffer cells
b. Langerhans cells
c. Dendritic cells
d. Osteoclasts
d. Osteoclasts
52
53. Which of the following is not considered a true cell because it is
only a cytoplasmic remnant of a mother cell?
a. Thrombocytes
b. Leukocytes
c. Erythrocytes
d. AOTA
a. Thrombocytes
53
54. The most common erythroid maturation stages in the bone
marrow
a. Basophilic normoblast
b. Orthochromic normoblast
c. Polychromatic normoblast
d. A and B
c. Polychromatic normoblast
54
55. Liquid portion of a non-anticoagulated blood
a. Plasma
b. Serum
c. Both
d. Neither
b. Serum
55
56. What is the life span of basophils in the blood?
a. 7 hours
b. 18 hours
c. 60 hours
d. 48 hours
e. None of these
c. 60 hours
56
57. Which of the following organs is responsible for the maturation
of T lymphocytes and regulation of their expression of CD4 and
CD8
a. Bone marrow
b. Thymus
c. Lymph nodes
d. Liver
b. Thymus
57
58. Hematopoietic stem cells produce all lineages of blood cells in
sufficient quantities over the lifetime of an individual because they:
a. Are unipotent
b. Have the ability of self-renewal by asymmetric division
c. Are present in large numbers in the bone marrow niches
d. Have a low mitotic potential in response to growth factors
e. None of these
b. Have the ability of self-renewal by asymmetric division
58
59. These organs function at some point in hematopoiesis except:
a. Liver
b. Spleen
c. Thymus
d. Bone marrow
e. None of these
e. None of these
59
60. These factors play a major role in the maintenance,
proliferation, and differentiation of hematopoietic stem cells and
progenitor cells:
a. Cytokines
b. Growth factors
c. Both
d. Neither
c. Both
60
61. These are organs which are located along the lymphatic
capillaries that are parallel to, but not part of the circulatory
system
a. Lymph nodes
b. Spleen
c. MALT
d. Thymus
a. Lymph nodes
61
62. During the ____ phase of prenatal hematopoiesis,
hematopoietic stem cells and mesenchymal cells migrate in to the
core of the bone
a. Mesoblastic
b. Hepatic
c. Myeloid
d. None of these
e. All of these
c. Myeloid
62
63. Which of the following cells are important in immune regulation, allergic inflammation, and destruction of tissue invading helminths?
a. Neutrophils and Monocytes
b. T & B Lymphocytes
c. Eosinophils and Basophils
d. Macrophages and Dendritic Cells
c. Eosinophils and Basophils
63
64. When a coagulation of fresh whole blood is prevented through
the use of an anticoagulant, the straw-colored fluid that can be
separated from the cellular elements is:
a. Serum (pero non-anticoagulant dapat)
b. Plasma (not straw colored?)
c. Whole Blood
d. Platelets
e. none
e. none
64
65. What is the first type of cell produced by the developing
embryo?
a. Thrombocyte
b. Lymphocyte
c. Erythrocyte
d. Granulocyte
c. Erythrocyte
65
66. This is a formation of clot inside the blood vessels
a. Hemostasis
b. Fibrinolysin
c. Coagulation
d. Thrombosis
d. Thrombosis
66
67. Scientist that describes platelet as petite plaques
a. Anton van Leeuwenhoek
b. Athanasius Kircher
c. James Homer
d. Giullio Bizzozero
d. Giullio Bizzozero
67
68. In hematopoietic stem cell, multipotent is derived from _____,
they are limited to specific types of cells to form tissue
a. Pluripotent
b. Totipotent
c. Both
d. Neither
a. Pluripotent
68
69. During the mesoblastic stage, the types of hemoglobin formed
are the following, EXCEPT:
a. Gower 1
b. Gower 2
c. Portland
d. Hemoglobin F
d. Hemoglobin F
69
70. The extramedullary hematopoiesis is the work of _ that mediate
the progenitor binding to stroma.
A. Proteoglycan
B. Glycosaminoglycans
C. Both
D. none
C. Both
70
71. At which normoblastic stage does globin production begin?
A. Orthochromic normoblast
B. Pronormoblast
C. Polychromatic normoblast
D. Basophilic normoblast
B. Pronormoblast
71
72.In the bone marrow , erythroid precursors are located
A. Surrounding macrophages in erythroid islands
B. Adjacent to megakaryocytes along the ad____? Cell lining
C. Surrounding complement components
D. Storing iron from senescent red cell
A. Surrounding macrophages in erythroid islands
72
73. Macrophages aid in adaptive immunity by
A. Degrading antigen and presenting to lymphocytes
B. Ingesting and digesting organisms that neutrophils cannot
C. Synthesizing complement components
D. Storing iron from senescent red cell
A. Degrading antigen and presenting to lymphocytes
73
74.The stage in neutrophilic development in which the nucleus is
indirected in a kidney bean shape and the cytoplasm has
secondary granules that are lavender in color is the
A. Band
B. Myelocyte
C. Promyelocyte
D. Metamyelocyte
D. Metamyelocyte
74
75. The following is unique to both B and T lymphocytes and occurs during their early development
A. Expression of surface antigens CD4 and CD8
B. Maturation in the thymus
C. Synthesis of immunoglobulin
D. Rearrangement of antigen receptor genes
D. Rearrangement of antigen receptor genes
75
76. The megakaryocyte progenitor that undergoes endomitosis
A. MIC-I
B. FU - Meg
C. CFU -meg
D. LD-CFU-Meg
D. LD-CFU-Meg
76
77.What plasma protein is essential for platelet adhesion
A. VWF
B. Factor VIII
C. Fibrinogen
D. P-selectin
A. VWF
77
78.Microparticles
A. Are stored in platelets dense granules
B. Inhibit blood clotting
C. Bud off of platelets after their exposure to strong agonists
D. exhibit no biologic activity
C. Bud off of platelets after their exposure to strong agonists
78
79.What platelet organelle sequesters ionic calcium binds a series
of enzymes of the
A. Glycocalyx
B. Dense granules
C. dene/tubular system
C. dene/tubular system
79
80.White clots
A. Occur primarily in the deep veins of the leg
B. Are characteristics of the secondary hemostatic process
C. Are largely composed of platelets and VWF
D. From normally in response to vascular injury and
are completely
C. Are largely composed of platelets and VWF