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CDI QUIZES Flashcards

ACTIVE RECALL

1
Q

It deals with the identity, location and arrest of a person who commits a crime and simultaneously identify, collect, preserve and evaluate evidence for the purpose of bringing criminal offender to justice.

A

Criminal investigation

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2
Q

After the conduct of final survey by the team leader to whom will the crime scene be turned over?

A

. Investigator-on-case

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3
Q

General rule in handling pieces of evidence

A

MAC rule

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4
Q

When murders based on relationship are to be committed in a home, who among the following MOST LIKELY could be murdered in the bedroom?

A

A. Female

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5
Q

One of the elements of sketch wherein the graphical representation must indicate the ____ direction for proper orientation of the scene.

A

A. North

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6
Q

It is claimed that 99% of information is obtained from conspicuous sources and 1% of information is obtained from clandestine sources. Clandestine means.

A

d. Covert

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7
Q

The classification “Top secret”, have the security color folder of?

A

d. Green

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8
Q

In intelligence functions, a black list means:

A

d. Unfriendly

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9
Q

It is the careful inspection of a place to determine its suitability for a particular operational purpose.

A

A. Casing

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10
Q

Assume that you are an investigator who investigates a murder case perpetrated by an unknown suspect. A person in the name of Ruel, a call center agent, saw the crime and he is willing to identify the suspect. Which of the following methods will you not utilize to establish the identity of the suspect?

A

D. Systematic interview that may lead to the identity of a known criminals

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11
Q

Refers to a place where agents or informants leave their messages to the other Agents.

A

A. Live Drop

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12
Q

Circumstantial Evidence is an evidence that indirectly proves a fact in issue through an inference which fact-finder draws from the evidence presented. It is sufficient to produce the conviction of the accused if_____________
1. There are more than one circumstances present
2. The facts from which the inferences derived are proven
3. The combination of all the circumstances is such as to produce a conviction beyond reasonable doubt

A

A. 1, 2 and 3

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13
Q

Person who by social or professional position possesses or has access to information of continuing interest, and who willingly provides information to the police either in response to a specific request or his own initiative.

A

B. Casual informant

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14
Q

Covert observation of a person, place, or things by human or technical means to acquire information.

A

A. Surveillance

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15
Q

In this method of shadowing, operatives are station at a fixed point assuming that subject followed the same general route each day.

A

B. Leapfrog Method

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16
Q

Sometimes called “roping”. An investigation technique whereby the operative conceals his true identity and adopts an assumed role to obtain information or accomplish a specific mission.

A

A. Undercover assignment

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17
Q

You were an investigator who tried to reconstruct the crime scene. What are the components of the crime scene situation which you would analyze?
1. Suspect’s arrival at the crime scene
2. Place of entry
3. Movement of suspect from point of entry and his contact with the victim
4. Place of exit

A

A. 1, 2, 3 and 4

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18
Q

In this process, written confession of the accused is used as a script in describing events of the crime. This strengthens the prosecutor’s case and serves to convince the judge that the accused was not maltreated nor affected by sinister psychological influence.

A

B. Crime reenactment

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19
Q

A person who informs solely for the pecuniary or other material gain he is to receive

A

B. Remuneration

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20
Q

Why does the dead body of the victim of violence need to be photographed after its removal from the crime scene?

A. To have a set of view showing the relationship of the body with the surrounding
B. To identify the victim and have close-up pictures of the wounds
C. To provide reserve picture in case of loss or damage
D. None of them

A

B. To identify the victim and have close-up picture of the wounds

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21
Q

A person who breaks intercepted codes.

A. Crypto Analyst
B. Cryptographer
C. Cryptograph
D. Code breaker

A

A. Crypto Analyst

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22
Q

The term is used in the police organization which is surveillance of a building place or area to determine its suitability for Intel use or its vulnerability in operations.

A

Casing

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23
Q

A functional classification of police intelligence which refers to the knowledge essential to the maintenance of peace and order.

A

Internal Security Intelligence

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24
Q

Which one is NOT a means of recording crime a scene?

a. By photographs
b. By notes
c. By sketches
d. Surveying

A

d. Surveying

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25
Q

Application of all procedures for the search of missing persons.

A. Rogues gallery
B. Tracing
C. Manhunt
D. Order of battle

A

B. Tracing

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26
Q

The discreet observation of places, persons and vehicles for the purpose of obtaining information concerning the identities or activities of suspects.

A. Close observation
B. Espionage
C. Tailing
D. Surveillance

A

D. Surveillance

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27
Q

Under Republic Act 7438, when does the police’ custody of suspect to a crime commence, hence the latter is entitled to be informed of his rights under the Miranda doctrine which cannot be waived?

a. At the time of custodial investigation
b. During the actual questioning
c. During the announcement that he is under arrest
d. At the moment that he is invited for questioning

A

d. At the moment that he is invited for questioning

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28
Q

What is the principal psychological factor that contributes to a successful interrogation?

a. Privacy
b. Rapport between the interrogator and the subject
c. Legality
d. It should be done in the interrogation room with one way mirror

A

a. Privacy

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29
Q

Principles in homicide investigation that should be borne in mind are, mistakes of the homicide investigator cannot be corrected, and the homicide investigator should NOT cross the three bridges which he burns behind him. Which of the following is not one of this so-called “Burned bridge”?

a. When the dead person has been moved
b. When the dead body has been embalmed
c. When the dead body has been contaminated and the chain of custody was not properly accounted
d. When the body is burned or cremated

A

c. When the dead body has been contaminated and the chain of custody was not properly accounted

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30
Q

After identifying, collecting and preserving information gathered about the crime, the investigator shall _______________ such information to determine whether it can stand prosecution and trial.

a. Recognize
b. Collect
c. Preserve
d. Evaluate

A

d. Evaluate

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31
Q

break time !!!!!!!!!

A

20 minutes

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32
Q

The Female Blowfly which typically lay its eggs at the (December 2018 Board Exam Question)

a. drainage
b. canals
c. water
d. rotten flesh

A

d. rotten flesh

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33
Q

Principles in homicide investigation that should be borne in mind are, mistakes of the homicide investigator cannot be corrected and the homicide investigator should NOT cross the three bridges which he burns behind him. Which of the following is not one of this so called “Burned bridge”?

a. When the dead person has been moved
b. When the dead body has been embalmed
c. When the dead body has been contaminated and the chain of custody was not properly accounted
d. When the body is burned or cremated

A

c. When the dead body has been contaminated and the chain of custody was not properly accounted

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34
Q

In a case of dead person, when autopsy should be performed?

a. Death has been caused by violence
b. At once when there is the slightest reason to suspect the probability of homicide.
c. Upon the request of the dead person’s family
d. In all cases involving death

A

b. At once when there is the slightest reason to suspect the probability of homicide.

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35
Q

Which of the following is NOT one of the examples of covert information: (June 2018 Board Exam Question)

a. Grapevine
b. Information
c. Informers
d. Public Records

A

d. Public Records

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36
Q

Post-mortem change that is characterized by the discoloration of the body after death.

a. livor mortis
b. rigor mortis
c. algor mortis
d. all of the above

A

a. livor mortis

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37
Q

In tropical countries like the Philippines, the color of post mortem lividity after death is? (June 2019 Board Exam Question)

a. Blue
b. Red
c. Purple
c. Dark red

A

c. Purple

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38
Q

In this case, a price, reward or promise has been considered to kill the victim:

a. Homicide
b. Parricide
c. Infanticide
d. Murder

A

d. Murder

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39
Q

Marking produced by screw driver used to forcibly open the cabinet is called. (December 2018 Board Exam question)

a. Scratch marks
b. Scuff marks
c. Tool marks
d. Skid marks

A

c. Tool marks

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40
Q

The disinterment of the body to determine the cause of death is called.

a. Autopsy
b. Medico Legal
c. Exhumation
d. All of these

A

c. Exhumation

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41
Q

One of the motives of an informant in providing the investigator necessary information by reason that he had feeling of regret for his past actions.

a. Remuneration
b. Civic mindedness
c. Vanity
d. Repentance

A

d. Repentance

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42
Q

Which of the following notions regarding criminal investigation is true?

I. Criminal Investigation is governed by rigid rules
II. Crime Probe is governed by intuition, felicity of inspiration and chance or luck.
III. Criminal Investigation involves application of various sciences therefore it is a science.
IV. Criminal investigation is an art for it is not governed by rigid rules

a. I, II and III
b. II, III and IV
c. I and II
d. III and IV

A

b. II, III and IV

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43
Q

An investigator tries to reconstruct the crime scene. What are the components of the crime scene situation which should be analyzed?

  1. Suspect arrival at the scene
  2. place of entry
  3. movement of suspect from the point of entry and his contact with the victim
  4. place of exit.

a. 1, 2, 3 and 4
b. 1, 2, 3
c. 1, 2, 4
d. 1, 3, 4

A

a. 1, 2, 3 and 4

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44
Q

Which of the following is NOT a common element of robbery and theft?

a. The personal property is taken with intent to gain.
b. The offense can be committed by a band.
c. The personal property belongs to another.
d. The unlawful taking of that property.

A

b. The offense can be committed by a band.

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45
Q

Kokiks who killed his live-in partner or the woman to whom he had dating relationship with has committed what crime?

a. Homicide
b. Parricide
C. Murder
D. Infanticide

A

a. Homicide

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46
Q

Nollie while under the influence of drugs threw away the exactly three hours old son of his sister causing death to the infant can be liable for what crime?

a. Homicide
b. Parricide
C. Murder
D. Infanticide

A

D. Infanticide

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47
Q

The cracks produced in glass originated on the opposite surface of the glass and subjected to stretching are known as:

A. Concentric
B. A and C
C. Radial
D. None

A

C. Radial

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48
Q

In what circumstances change murder to homicide?

a. Treachery
b. Absence of qualifying circumstances
c. Lack of intent
d. Taking advantage of superior strength

A

b. Absence of qualifying circumstances

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49
Q

What is the liability of the offender who, on the occasion of the crime of robbery, killed his cohort while trying to flee from the scene?

a. robbery with homicide
b. robbery and homicide
c. robbery with murder
d. robbery and murder

A

a. robbery with homicide

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50
Q

Legally, when does death considered to have occurred?

  1. Respiratory system is no longer performing within the body
  2. Cardiac activity is no longer performing within the body
  3. Central Nervous System ceases to function

A. 1
B. 1 and 2
C. 2 and 3
D. 1, 2 and 3

A

D. 1, 2 and 3

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51
Q

Is produced by compression of the neck by means of a ligature which is tightened by a force other than the weight of the body.

*
1 point
A. Strangulation by ligature
B. Throttling
C. Hanging
D. Gagging

A

A. Strangulation by ligature

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52
Q

It is the basic understanding of the crime scene technicians about what they are trying to accomplish and why.

*
1 point
A. Method
B. Knowledge
C. Wisdom
D. Discretion

A

B. Knowledge

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53
Q

In investigating sex crimes, consider everyone as ______.

*
1 point
A. Victim
B. Suspect
C. Witness
D. All of the above

A

B. Suspect

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54
Q

It is a peculiar way of sex offender who puts his dreams to reality to see if he will feel even better and its importance to him

*
1 point
A. Ritualism
B. Voyeurism
C. Masochism
D. Sex fantasy

A

D. Sex fantasy

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55
Q

This is the Anti-sexual Harassment Act of 1995:

*
1 point
A. RA 8049
B. RA 7877
C. RA 8505
D. RA 6235

A

B. RA 7877

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56
Q

The use of a loose firearm, when inherent in the commission of a crime punishable under the Revised Penal Code or other special laws, shall be considered as a/an________.

*
1 point
A. Aggravating circumstance
B. Qualifying circumstance
C. Separate crime
D. Mitigating circumstance

A

A. Aggravating circumstance

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57
Q

A stabbing incident transpired at the office of the college dean, what method of search should be employed to maximize for the search of truth?

*
1 point
A. Zone method
b. Spiral method
c. Wheel method
d. Strip method

A

b. Spiral method

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58
Q

This is produced by forcible contact on the body by sharp edged instrument like bolos, knives, and broken glasses:

*
1 point
A. Incised wound
B. Stab wound
C. Punctured wound
D. Lacerated wound

A

A. Incised wound

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59
Q

Characteristics of gunshot wound of entrance

*
1 point
A. Inverted edge
B. Bigger size
C. Protrusion of tissue
D. No definite shape

A

A. Inverted edge

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60
Q

One is a condition that can approximate the time of death.

*
1 point
A. Cadaver
B. Magnus test
C. Rigor mortis
D. None of these

A

C. Rigor mortis

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61
Q

What refers to the cutting of a body part of another person to weaken his defense?

*
1 point
A. Castration
B. Mayhem
C. Mutilation
D. Amputation

A

B. Mayhem

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62
Q

BREAK TIME

A

5 MINUTES

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63
Q

Criminal Investigation is the collection of facts to accomplish three-fold aim, EXCEPT
*
1 point
a. to identify the suspect
b. to apprehend the suspect
c. to locate the suspect
d. to provide evidence of his guilt

A

b. to apprehend the suspect

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64
Q

Is a special study of modern techniques in the investigation of serious and specific crimes including murder, homicide, rape, abortion, robbery, arson kidnapping, blackmail, carnapping and criminal negligence.
*
1 point
A. Criminal Investigation
B. Investigation
C. Special Crime Investigation
D. Investigare

A

C. Special Crime Investigation

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65
Q
  1. It is the carrying away of someone else’s property that is an element of larceny. The taking away is accomplished without violence or intimidation against a person or force upon things.
    *
    1 point
    A. Asportation
    B. Lost Property
    C. Damage to Property
    D. Hunting or Gathering
A

A. Asportation

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66
Q
  1. Brigands, also known as Highway Robbers, are a group of ______________ armed persons forming a band of robbers for the purpose of committing robbery in the highway, or kidnapping persons for the purpose of extortion or to obtain ransom or for any other purpose to be attained by means of force and violence.
    *
    1 point
    A. more than two
    B. more than three
    C. at least two
    D. at least three
A

B. more than three

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67
Q
  1. Is the fraudulent disposal or concealment and or disposal of properties of a debtor to defraud his creditors.
    *
    1 point
    A. Culpable Insolvency
    B. Insolvency
    C. Fraudulent Insolvency
    D. None of the above
A

A. Culpable Insolvency

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68
Q
  1. Crimes that are directed to a person’s belongings, intellectual properties and money. It includes many common crimes relating to theft or destruction of someone else’s property.
    *
    1 point
    A. robbery
    B. Theft
    C. Crimes against property
    D. Crimes against Person
A

C. Crimes against property

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69
Q
  1. The following are elements of robbery, except one
    *
    1 point
    A. The taking is with animus lucrandi
    B. The personal property belong to another
    C. The is taking of personal property;
    D. The taking is without force upon things
A

D. The taking is without force upon things

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70
Q
  1. Is the occupation of real property or any real rights in property belonging to another by means of violence against or intimidation of person
A

A. Usurpation

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71
Q
  1. It is a conditional sale of personal property security for the payment of a debt, or the performance of some other obligation specified therein, the condition being that the sale shall be void upon the seller paying to the purchaser a sum of money or doing some other act named.
A

D. Chattel mortgage

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72
Q
  1. Allan, an employee of fireworks factory in Calamba, Laguna has been intensely reprimanded by his supervisor for being a habitual late-comer. With grudge to the company and his employer, he set fire in such factory and the same has been burned. In this case, there is
A

c. Destructive Arson

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73
Q
  1. William already placed gasoline-soaked rags beside the wall of Happy Ending Spa but was caught by Kurt before he could strike the match to burn the building. William committed arson at what stage?
A

d. Attempted

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74
Q
  1. X snatched the bag of Y and run away. He did the act of taking the bag while pushing Y to prevent Y from pursuing him. X committe
A

b. robbery

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75
Q
  1. At the end of the semester, a teacher secretly talked to his student and demanded that unless the student gives P1,000, he would fail the student. The student gave the amount immediately. What crime was committed by the teacher?
A

b. Robbery

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76
Q
  1. The action of taking property unlawfully from a person or place by force or threat of force.
A

b. Robbery

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77
Q
  1. A, by force, took the tires of a parked automobile. This is ____________?
A

b. theft

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78
Q
  1. X broke the window of a house and inserted his hands and took the cell phones from the coffee table. ‘This is _________________.
A

b. theft

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79
Q
  1. X entered a house through an open door. The owner, not knowing that X was inside, closed and locked the door from the outside. X, after taking some personal properties, went out of the house through the window. Here X is.
A

b. liable for theft

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80
Q
  1. It deals with the identity, location and arrest of a person who commits a crime and simultaneously identify, collect, preserve and evaluate evidence for the purpose of bringing criminal offender to justice.
A

B. Criminal investigation

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81
Q
  1. What specific offence has been committed? Who committed it? When it was committed? Where it was committed? Why it was committed? And how it was committed? This are called_______________________ of criminal investigation.
A

A. Cardinal Points

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82
Q
  1. Casual conversation with a victim or witness who may have relevant knowledge to a crime under investigation.
A

a. Interview

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83
Q
  1. The forceful and intelligent questioning of one who is reluctant to divulge information.
A

b. Interrogation

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84
Q
  1. The similarities of interview and interrogation is apparently shown in ______________.
A

c. the purpose of questioning

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85
Q
  1. It refers to the express or implied statement tending to support the suspect’s involvement in the crime, but insufficient by itself to prove guilt
A

A. admission

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86
Q
  1. Refers to the questions that allow the suspect to reply with longer, more detailed responses and lack direction from the interviewer.
A

B Open-ended Questions

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87
Q
  1. Refers to the questions that require more definite and distinct answers. Examples include, “What time was that?, ”Who else was present?, ”What is his address?”
A

A. Closed Questions

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88
Q
  1. Refers to the questions that greatly restrict the possible answers to those that you have determined. The question may be “Was it a rifle or a handgun?” when the weapon may have been a shotgun.
A

C. Force-Choice Question

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89
Q
  1. This involves the identification of symptoms of speech quality and content which give the interviewer the most productive body of data necessary to determine truth and deception.
A

A. Verbal cues

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90
Q
  1. Assessment of truth and deception through the use of verbal cues coupled with methods of human recall and symptoms made self-evident in the statement taking process.
A

C. Practical Kinesic Statement Analysis

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91
Q
  1. It refers to the various techniques available to the interviewer to take control and command of the interview environment. From proxemics to mirroring or the use of enhanced information gathering skills.
A

D. Kinesic Subject Control

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92
Q
  1. It refers to the observable body language cues of deception that are unbalanced or inconsistent in relation to the speech cues or emotional symptoms generated by the subject at the same time.
A

B. Body Language Cues

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93
Q

CDI 4

A

YOU CAN DO IT MTOER FATHER

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94
Q
  1. When the applicant for student driver’s permit is between 16-18 years old, the most important document he should submit is________________.
A

a. Parent’s consent

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95
Q
  1. A number representing the resistance to sliding of two surfaces in contract is known as:
A

a. coefficient of friction

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96
Q

*3. Safe use of the streets by drivers and pedestrians is a matter of

A

c. correct attitude and habit

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97
Q
  1. These signs are intended to inform road users of special obligations, instructions or prohibitions which motorists must comply:
A

a. Regulatory

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98
Q
  1. An elevated structure built for the safety of the pedestrians in crossing busy highways:
A

d. Overpass

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99
Q

?

A

d. Green

100
Q
  1. While approaching an intersection, the green traffic light is on, however, a police officer suddenly proceed to the center and signals a motorist to stop. What should the motorist do?
    a. Ignore both the police officer and traffic light and cross the intersection
    b. Ignore the police officer and proceed with caution
    c. Ignore the traffic light and come to a full stop

d. Ignore the police officer and stop only when second signal is made

A

c. Ignore the traffic light and come to a full stop

101
Q
  1. It deals with the study of the changing urban environment due to the scale and density of new urban concentration.
A

d. Traffic Environment

102
Q
  1. If the plate number is DXP 8213, when should it be registered?
    *
A

b. 1st week of March

103
Q
  1. When two vehicles approach or enter an intersection at approximately the same time, which vehicle shall give the right of way?
A

B. vehicle on the left

104
Q
  1. Anna Marie is traversing on a solid yellow or white line with a dotted yellow or white line, Anna Marie can overtake only when:
A

D. the dotted line is in her lane

105
Q
  1. Under the Land Transportation Code, is it NOT parking prohibition if you park _____________.
A

C. on a sidewalk

106
Q
  1. A driver who was in traffic accident is justified to leave from the accident area, if any of the circumstances below are present, except:
A

B. He hides from the police for justifiable cause

107
Q
  1. From the bottom, what is the arrangement of color of the traffic light?
A

C. green, amber, red

108
Q
  1. Headlights of motor vehicles shall be lighted not later than -

A. 15 minutes after sunset and until at least 15 minutes before sunrise
B. 30 minutes hour before sunset and until at least 30 minutes after sunrise
C. one-half hour after sunset and until at least one-half hour before sunrise
D. 15 minutes before sunset and until at least 15 minutes after sunrise

A

C. one-half hour after sunset and until at least one-half hour before sunrise

109
Q
  1. These are signs which impose legal restrictions applicable at particular location usually enforceable in the absence of such signs. They are usually round in shape with the exception of “ stop sign” and “yield sign”
A

A. regulatory signs

110
Q
  1. This kind of license is issued to owners of privately owned motor vehicles or those not for hire or paid for driving.
A

B. Non-pro DL

111
Q
  1. It is first domesticated in the Middle East.
    *
A

B. donkey

112
Q
  1. It declared as part of the laws of the Philippines the Vienna Convention on Road Traffic, Signs and Signals.
A

C. PD 207

113
Q
  1. Single white dotted line indicates the all of the following EXCEPT
    *
    1/1
    A. on two-lane road, it separates traffic moving in the opposite directions
    B. on a one-way street, separates traffic moving in one direction
    C. absolutely no overtaking

D. overtaking is possible when other lane is clear of oncoming vehicle

A

C. absolutely no overtaking

114
Q
  1. A double yellow or white line with a dotted line in between means all EXCEPT
    A. overtaking is extremely dangerous
    B. stay in your lane until you pass the end of the solid lines
    C. absolutely no overtaking
    D. overtaking is possible when other lane is clear of oncoming vehicle
A

D. overtaking is possible when other lane is clear of oncoming vehicle

115
Q
  1. When a driver’s license is confiscated for violations of RA 4136 the traffic enforcer must issue a receipt of Temporary Operators Permit which is good for_____ within which the driver may continue to operate his vehicle.
A

D. 72 hours

116
Q
  1. A vehicle is said to be abandoned when it is left-
    *
    0/1
    A. unattended in an area provided for parking for one day
    B. attended in an area not provided for parking or attended for two or more days in area provided for parking

C. unattended in an area not provided for parking or unattended for 1 or 2 days in an area provided for parking
D. unattended in an area not provided for parking while the engine is running

A

C. unattended in an area not provided for parking or unattended for 1 or 2 days in an area provided for parking

117
Q
  1. The color of the traffic light which is on after the green light is-
    *
A

A. amber

118
Q
  1. What is the most common cause of road accident in the Philippines?
A

C. reckless driving

119
Q
  1. In an intersection not controlled by lights or peace officers, pedestrian have the right of way the moment he starts to cross:
    A. Absolutely false

B. Absolutely true
C. Partly true
D. Partly false

A

B. Absolutely true

120
Q
  1. The conveying of persons, goods and things from one place to another is referred to as-
A

B. transportation

121
Q
  1. Bonafide tourist and transients who are duly licensed to operate motor vehicles in their respective countries may be allowed to operate motor vehicles during their stay but not beyond?
A

C. 90 days

122
Q
  1. If a traffic law enforcer would decide to arrest a traffic law violator, what would not be his basis for such action?
    *
    0/1
    A. There is reasonable doubt that the person will not appear in the court

B. Detention is necessary to avoid continued violation
C. The offender would attend the hearing
D. The offense is serious

A

C. The offender would attend the hearing

123
Q
  1. Marks left on the roadway by tires when the brakes were applied strongly, hence the wheels locked, and not free to rotate.
A

D. Skid marks

124
Q

CDI 5

A

G NA G

125
Q
  1. What is the irresistible impulse on compulsion to start a fire that gives the experience of gratification and satisfaction to the fire setter?
A

d. Pyromania

126
Q
  1. Fire can leapfrog across wide malls and shopping centers through electromagnetic waves. This heat transfer is
A

B. radiation

127
Q
  1. What is a material that easily yields oxygen in quantities sufficient to stimulate or support combustion?
A

B. oxidizing material

128
Q
  1. Burning is the result of rapid combination of oxygen with combustible substance. The French chemist who proved this in 1777 was –
A

A. Antoine Lavoisier

129
Q
  1. What is the process of raising the temperature to separate the non-volatile from the less volatile parts and then cooling and condensing the resulting vapor so as to produce a nearly purified substance?
A

B. distillation

130
Q
  1. Which of the following is “prima facie” existence of arson?
A

B. simultaneous fire in more than one part of the building

131
Q
  1. Before attacking a fire in a closed building, it is necessary to determine whether ventilating is necessary and, if so, the method to ventilate. Which is of LEAST value in making such decision?

A. observing density of smoke through windows

B. observing the points at which smoke may be oozing out from the building
C. feeling walls and roofs for hot spots
D. observing the color of the flame

A

D. observing the color of the flame

132
Q
  1. . The first to be observed in ascertaining the cause of fire.
A

A. The point of origin

133
Q
  1. There is an increased quantity of carbon monoxide produced when fuel is burned in limited supply of oxygen because___________
A

D. greater oxidation takes place

134
Q
  1. Classification of fires based on cause or origin are providential fires, accidental fires and –
A

B. intentional fires

135
Q
  1. The following are advisable techniques of extinguishing Class B fire, except –
A

B. pouring water over the burning liquid

136
Q
  1. It is an integrated system of underground or overhead piping connected to a source of extinguishing agent or medium, designed in accordance with fire protection engineering standards to include, but not limited to Automatic Fire Sprinkler System which when actuated by its automatic detecting device suppresses fire within the area protected even without human intervention.
A

b. Automatic Fire Suppression System (AFSS)

137
Q
  1. What are the cross numbers between the beam and used in climbing the ladder called?
A

b. rungs

138
Q
  1. The three sides of the fire triangle are:
A

c. fuel, heat and oxygen

139
Q
  1. Which of the following best illustrate arson
A

c. smoking and matches

140
Q
  1. This activity involves developing and defining systematic course of actions that maybe performed in order to realize the objectives of fire protection: involves the process of establishing the SOP in case fire breaks out.
A

a. Pre fire planning

141
Q
  1. In fire query, the burning of a low-grade heavy oils or resinous on tarry materials with reasonable air forms as soot is called:
A

b. Lampblack

142
Q
  1. The Bureau of Fire Protection (BFP) is responsible for the prevention and suppression of all destructive fires in buildings, houses and other structures, forests, land transportation vehicles and equipment, ships or vessels docked at piers or wharves or anchored in major seaports, petroleum industry installations, plane crashes and other similar incidents. The BFP enforces the Fire Code and other related laws and investigates all causes of fires and, if necessary, files the proper complaints with the city or provincial prosecutor who has jurisdiction over the case
A

c. Mandate

143
Q
  1. Which of the following should be performed first in conducting fire investigation?
A

a. Secure the fire scene

144
Q
  1. Why water is prohibited to quench class D fires?
A

D. explosion may occur

145
Q
  1. PUROY is known “Pyromaniac”. He set some combustible liquids such as petroleum on the warehouse of TEAM PAHIRAP. He succeeded his criminal acts and results into total damages not exceeding to twenty million pesos.
    From the foregoing statement, who shall have the power and authority to investigate such fire incidents?
A

d. municipal fire marshall

146
Q
  1. From the foregoing statement, assuming that the total damages amounting to above thirty million pesos but not exceeding to forty million pesos. Who shall have the power and authority to investigate such fire incidents?
A

d. Provincial Fire Marshal

147
Q
  1. From the foregoing statement in case chief bureau of fire protection shall take over the investigation what should be the range of damages as stated by law.
A

d. total damages amounting to above sixty million pesos.

148
Q
  1. These are fires which are caused by flammable liquids like kerosene, gasoline, alcohol, etc.
A

a. Class B

149
Q
  1. From the foregoing statement what if PUROY is the one who call the firefighter what type of pyromaniac ?
A

c. Hero type

150
Q
  1. A popular chemical element used by the arsonist to hide the odor of flammable liquids.
A

a. Ammonia

151
Q
  1. The most common motive for arson is
    *
A

b. profit

152
Q
  1. Spalling is the breaking off of surface pieces of concrete or brick due to intense heat. Brown stains around the spall is a positive indicator of what?
A

A. That any accelerant might have been used to propagate fire

153
Q
  1. The following are prohibited acts under the Revised Fire Code of the Philippines of 2008, except:
A

c. Abandoning or leaving a building or structure by the occupant or owner with appropriate safety measures

154
Q
  1. What moves rapidly by convection and can spread laterally along the ceiling?
A

c. heat

155
Q

cdi 6

A

palag palag

156
Q
  1. The modern-day form of slavery is _____.
A

b. Human trafficking

157
Q
  1. These countries are major cultivators of opium and referred to as the golden crescent:
A

b. Iran, Afghanistan, India and Pakistan

158
Q
  1. A person who is known as a drug addict and by his own volition ceased from taking illegal drugs is referred to as ____.
A

d. In abstinence

159
Q
  1. Which of the following is the commonly known as the “poorman’s cocaine”.
A

D. Shabu

160
Q
  1. The amount of drugs that produces untoward effect or symptoms of poisoning.
A

C. Toxic dose

161
Q
  1. It shall be the institution responsible in the recruitment and training of all PDEA agents and personnel.
A

A. PDEA Academy

162
Q

*
1/1

A

a. Withdrawal symptoms are manifestation of cessation from drug use

163
Q
  1. What drug acts on the central nervous system, producing excitement, alertness and wakefulness?
A

D. stimulant

164
Q
  1. What drugs produce sensations such as distortions of time, space, sound, color and other bizarre effects
A

D. hallucinogens

165
Q
  1. What group of drugs is used medically as pain killers?
A

A. opiates

166
Q
  1. Any person who knowingly and willfully consents to the unlawful act involved in the illegal trafficking of dangerous drugs and uses his/her influence, power or position in shielding. Harboring, or screening or facilitating the escape of any person he/she knows.
A

B. Coddler

167
Q
  1. The BEST example of a drug-related offense wherein the commission of the offense is motivated by the need to support drug use is ____.
A

A. Stealing to have money

168
Q
  1. Can a high school student be compelled to undergo drug test?
    * yes or no
A

d. no

169
Q
  1. What is the appropriate term in determining the drugs and crime relationship especially when drug use and crimes are common aspects of deviant behavior and lifestyle or increases exposure to situations that encourage crime?
A

c. Drug-using offenses

170
Q
  1. The law the penalized the use and possession or the unauthorized sale of Solvent Volatile substances is:
A

B. P.D. 1619

171
Q
  1. MDMA is commonly known as:
    *
A

D. Ecstasy

172
Q
  1. The Dangerous Drug Board is headed by.
A

B. Chairman

173
Q
  1. Which of the following is not a core element of trafficking?
    A. Entry of the victims in country of destination
    B. Exploitation of the victim
    C. Recruitment, transportation, transfer, harboring or receipt of trafficked person
    D. Threat of or the use of force, deception, coercion, abuse of power
A

A. Entry of the victims in country of destination

174
Q
  1. It is the removal of toxic substances from the body as a result of abusing drugs:
A

D. Detoxification

175
Q
  1. Drugs that is commonly used by athletes having the properties of increasing stamina and/or energy.
A

D. Anabolic Steroid

176
Q
  1. National campaign strategy against illegal drugs, focus of which is through law enforcement, prosecution and judicial actions.
A

b. Supply reduction

177
Q
  1. An analytical test using some tools or device design to validate or affirm the result of preliminary or screening test
A

c. Confirmatory Test

178
Q
  1. Operation of drug syndicates are usually made secretly that makes it detection quite difficult. Various techniques were made by its operator in concealing their activities:
A

d. Clandestine Operation

179
Q
  1. It is an act of introducing any dangerous drugs into the body of any person w/ or w/out his/her knowledge either by injection, inhalation, ingestion or other means:
A

b. Administer

180
Q
  1. What is the world’s oldest cultivated plant as source of a prohibited drug?
A

A. Marijuana

181
Q
  1. What drugs are capable of provoking changes of sensation, thinking, self- awareness and emotion?
A

D. hallucinogens

182
Q
  1. What is the state arising from the repeated administration of a drug on a periodic or on a continuing basis?
A

c. Drug dependence

183
Q
  1. If amphetamines are known as “uppers”, what drugs are known as “downers”?
A

C. barbiturates

184
Q
  1. It is known as the policy- making and strategy- formulating body in the planning and formulation of policies and programs on drug prevention and control.
A

A. Dangerous Drug Board

185
Q
  1. How many years were given to personnel absorbed and on detail service to finally decide to join the PDEA?
A

B. five years

186
Q

CDI 7 AND 8 G NA G

A
187
Q
  1. A quality of good report where it should be a true representation of facts (correctness) to the best of the investigator’s ability.
A

a. Accuracy

188
Q
  1. It is the part of the investigation report that gives a brief summary of the major investigation steps accomplished
A

b. Synopsis

189
Q
  1. These are the prototypes of any documents or forms used in legal transaction or judicial proceedings, these contain important matters conveyed in technical terminologies and presented in a suitable and systematic order in accordance with the circumstances of any case
A

c. Legal forms

190
Q
  1. It is a written statement of facts voluntarily made by an affiant under an oath or affirmation administered by a person authorized to do so by law.
A

d. Affidavit

191
Q
  1. It is the recognition of particular facts by either direct observation or experience.
A

a. Personal Knowledge

192
Q
  1. Any person having the intellectual capacity to take an oath or make an affirmation and who has knowledge of the facts that are in dispute may make an affidavit.
A

d. affiant

193
Q
  1. A public officer authorized by law to administer oaths and affirmations
A

a. taker of the affidavit

194
Q
  1. The essential elements must be satisfied to constitute a complete affidavit. They are the following, except;
A

d. Date and time where the affidavit was taken

195
Q
  1. It is a part of an affidavit in which the officer certifies that the instrument was sworn to before him
A

b. Jurat

196
Q
  1. It is the willful and corrupt assertion of a falsehood under oath or affirmation administered by authority of law on a material matter.
A

c. Perjury

197
Q
  1. It is a generally filled out by the arresting officer and states the facts and circumstances surrounding an arrest. The affidavit may state such facts as the information which led to the arrest and the observations made before and after the arrest occurred.
A

a. Affidavit of Arresting Officer

198
Q
  1. A sworn written statement charging a person with an offense, subscribed by the offended party, any peace officer, or other public law officer charged with the enforcement of the law violated.
A

b. Complaint

199
Q
  1. It is an affidavit filed by the respondent in reply to a petition.
A

b. Counter affidavit

200
Q
  1. The purpose of this affidavit in reply is simply to rebut or answer matters raised for the first time in the affidavits to which the replies are made.
A

a. Reply affidavit

201
Q
  1. Statement No.1 - The plaintiff can “save” matters from its initial affidavits and then put those matters in affidavits in reply. Statement No. 2 - The affidavits in reply should only rebut or answer new matters raised by the defendants which the plaintiffs have not already addressed.
A

d. Statement no. 1 is wrong. Statement no. 2 is correct

202
Q
  1. It is a written statement under oath by the complainant stating that he‘s no longer interested in pursuing the complaint or criminal case against another person.
A

b. Affidavit of Desistance

203
Q
  1. It is usually required when requesting for a replacement of a lost document or item. This document should be completed by a person, known as the Affiant, who can attest under oath of their personal knowledge of the circumstances of the loss of the object.
A

a. Affidavit of Loss

204
Q
  1. The term used by NBI Clearance Centers if the applicant has the same or similar name with another person who has a pending criminal case
A

b. Hit

205
Q
  1. Undertakings are a legally binding promise which carries severe consequences if breached.
A

a. True

206
Q
  1. It is an order in writing issued in the name of the People of the Philippines, signed by a judge and directed to a peace officer, commanding him to search for personal property described therein and to bring it before the court
A

b. Search Warrant

207
Q
  1. It refers to concepts or feelings that cannot be experienced concretely or touched physically.
A

b. Abstract nouns

208
Q
  1. In the sentence, “The policeman (subject -→ who or what is doing the subject) arrested the kidnapper.”, what is the direct object?
A

c. kidnapper

209
Q
  1. What is the correct subject-verb agreement in the sentence, “One of the keys ______ not fit the lock.”
A

a. does

210
Q
  1. According to the Philippine National Police investigative manual, these are the types of report writers, except:
A

b. The writers who don’t write at all

211
Q
  1. It is a document containing facts related to a legal proceeding. The person who makes the declaration affixes his or her signature in a separate endorsement paragraph at the end of the document with a statement that the declaration is made under oath.
A

c. Sworn statement

212
Q
  1. A clause in an affidavit certifying the oath and the date made by the affiant.
A

c. Attestation

213
Q
  1. These are separate claims that are numbered as mandated by law;
A

b. Individual averments

214
Q
  1. The part of memorandum which contains the date, subject, thru channels and addressee
A

c. Heading

215
Q
  1. This is written two spaces below the sender and two spaces to the right colon. It contains no more than ten words.
A

a. Subject

216
Q
  1. It is mainly concerned simply with WHAT HAPPENED, WHERE, TO WHOM, WHY and the results of investigation.
A

c. Police Regional office Periodic Report

217
Q

CDI 9

A
218
Q
  1. It refers to any representation of facts, information or concept in a form suitable for processing in a computer system including a program suitable to cause a computer system to perform a function and includes electronic documents and or electronic data messages whether stored in local computer system and or electronic data messages whether stored in local computer system or online
A

d. Computer data

219
Q
  1. refers to listening to, recording, monitoring or surveillance of the content of communications, including procuring of the content of data, either directly, through access and use of a computer system or indirectly, through the use of electronic eavesdropping or tapping devices, at the same time that the communication is occurring.
A

a. interception

220
Q
  1. it refers to any device or group of interconnected or related devices, one or more of which, pursuant to a program, performs automated processing of data. It covers any type of device with data processing capabilities including, but not limited to, computers and mobile phones. The device consisting of hardware and software may include input, output and storage components which may stand alone or be connected in a network or other similar devices. It also includes computer data storage devices or media.
A

b. computer system

221
Q
  1. refers to the collection of tools, policies, risk management approaches, actions, training, best practices, assurance and technologies that can be used to protect the cyber environment and organization and user’s assets.
A

c. cyber security

222
Q
  1. refers to a computer or a computer network the electronic medium in which online communication takes place.
A

d. cyber

223
Q
  1. refers to the transmission of information through ICT media, including voice, video and other forms of data
A

b. communication

224
Q

8, in determining whether the act is punishable under cyber crime prevention act, you know as criminologist that such act should be under any of the three major categories of cybercrime offense. Which of the following is not included in the said major categories?

A

d. Illegal interception

224
Q

7.refers to the computer systems, and/or networks, whether physical or virtual, and/or the computer programs, computer data and/or traffic data so vital to this country that the incapacity or destruction of or interference with such system and assets would have a debilitating impact on security, national or economic security, national public health and safety, or any combination of those matters.

A

b. critical infrastructure

225
Q
  1. it is known as the “Cybercrime Prevention Act of 2012”.

*

A

b. RA 10175

226
Q
  1. it refers to any information contained in the form of computer data or any other form that is held by a service provider, relating to subscribers of its services other than traffic or content data and by which identity can be established.
A

a. subscriber information

227
Q
  1. Types of hacker which strive to operate in the public’s best interest, rather than to create turmoil. Many white hat hackers work doing penetration, hired to attempt to break into the company’s networks to find and report on security vulnerabilities. The security firms then help their customers mitigate security issues before criminal hackers can exploit them.
A

a. white hacker

228
Q
  1. JOJO is hired by spa col . corporation as one of their IT expert. JOJO is tasked to fix the system of the corporation for better security
A

b. white hacker

229
Q
  1. a crime in which an imposter obtains key pieces of personally identifiable information, such as Social Security or driver’s license numbers, in order to impersonate someone else.
A

b. identity theft

230
Q
  1. it Involves gaining access illegally to a computer system or network and in some cases making unauthorized use of this access. Hacking is also the act by which other forms of cyber-crime (e.g.,fraud, terrorism) are committed.
A

d. unauthorized access

231
Q
  1. series of numbers assigned by an internet service provider to an internet user when it connects to the internet.
A

b. IP address

232
Q
  1. a type of IP address that is constant regardless of the time or number of attempts the internet user accesses the internet.
A

b. static IP

233
Q
  1. it is premeditated use of disruptive activities or threat thereof, in cyber space with the intention to further social ideological religious political or similar objectives or to intimidate any person in furtherance of such objectives.
A

c. cyber terrorism

234
Q
  1. According to CIDG this is the hot spot of cyber sex in the Philippines(2014) except
A

e. cavite

235
Q
  1. a portpolio of a person organization, entity, company which is posted on the internet for accessibility worldwide
A

b. website

236
Q
  1. Anti camcording act of 2010

*

A

b. RA 10088

237
Q
  1. The criminal follows the victim by sending emails, and frequently entering the chat rooms that causes an intentional, substantial and unreasonable intrusion into the private life of the person.
A

c. cyber stalking

238
Q
  1. A type of viruses that spread itself to other computers without needing to be transferred as part of a host
A

c. worm

239
Q
  1. Any physical harm done to the computer set

*

A

b. computer vandalism

240
Q
  1. What is the result of cyber stalking

*

A

c. metal distress

241
Q
  1. Karlo and karla were long time chat mate. One night , they agree to video-call each other using ligo-live . while their conversation progress karlo mentioned his past sexual experiences which made karla aroused. Karla ask Karlo if they could do some act like showing their private parts to each other. While showing his private parts to Karlo he caught by his father while doing lascivious acts. Is there a crime of cyber sex?
    A. no, RPC only punishes prostitution committed by a woman
    b. no, RA 10175 does not include private obscene shows between two private person
    c. yes, RA 10175 expressly punishes those acts

d. yes, because it is immoral or wrong by nature

A

c. yes, RA 10175 expressly punishes those actsb. no, RA 10175 does not include private obscene shows between two private person

242
Q
  1. JOWEL posted a libelous message against PUROY mayor of ISLA puting bato may be hel liable for cyber crime . however, a netizen name MOSANG reacted to the libelous post on facebook by clicking heart reaction may be held liable for the said act?
A

c. no, because RA 10175 does not punishing aiding or abetting

243
Q
  1. This the reason of the vulnerability of computers except

*
0/1
a. capacity to store data in a relatively small space

b. easy to access
c. easy to gain
d. loss of evidence

A

c. easy to gain

244
Q
  1. All but one are not part of content related offense under RA 10175
A

c. cyber child pornography

245
Q
  1. The unlawful or prohibited acts of libel as defined in article 355 of the revised penal code, as amended, committed through a computer system or any other similar means which may be devised in the future. The statement is not false
A

a. correct

246
Q
  1. it is most commonly known as the transmission of unsolicited commercial communication which seeks to advertise, sell, or other for sale some products or services.
A

b. spam

cle question (11 decks)

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