FORENSIC 4 TO 6 Flashcards

1
Q

QUESTIONED DOCUMENT EXAMINATION

A
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2
Q
  1. Defined as a visible effect of bodily
    movement which is an almost unconscious
    expression of fixed muscular muscles.
A

b. handwriting

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3
Q
  1. Mere blank forms of official documents, the spaces of which are not filled up, are considered as documents.
A

b. false

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4
Q
  1. The requirements to become a questioned
    document examiner are the following,
    except:
    a. a period of training
    b. a period of experience
    c. must be a police officer
    d. all of the above
A

c. must be a police officer

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5
Q
  1. The removal of writings, typewriting or printing, maybe chemical eradication and or by an abrasive erasure is called:
A

b. erasure

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6
Q
  1. The addition of writing and other material between lines or paragraphs or the addition of whole page to a
    document.
A

a. insertion

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7
Q
  1. The following are the general classifications of
    Question Document, except:
    a. documents with questioned signatures
    b. questioned documents alleged to have been
    containing fraudulent alterations
    c. documents having been proven their origin
    d. questioned documents on issues of their age or
    date
A

c. documents having been proven their origin

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8
Q
  1. What is used in the detection of counterfeited bills but can actually be used to detect security features of qualified documents?
A

a. ultra violet light

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9
Q
  1. The following are the methods of examining
    indented writing. which is not included?
    a. physical methods maybe used by passing a strong
    beam of nearly parallel light almost horizontally over
    the surface of the paper
    b. fuming the document maybe of values in some cases
    c. powders of various kinds maybe used without
    changing the document
    d. placing the paper over the fire of a candle to
    detect writings using urine
A

d. placing the paper over the fire of a candle to
detect writings using urine

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10
Q
  1. The following are the processes in caring,
    handling and preservation of documents,
    except:
    a. take disputed papers to document examiner`s
    laboratory at the first opportunity.
    b. if storage is necessary, keep in dry place away from
    excessive heat strong light.
    c. maintain in consequential document, unfolded
    and in transparent plastic envelope or evidence
    preserver.
    d. none of the above
A

d. none of the above

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11
Q
  1. In caring and handling disputed documents and documentary evidence, it is advisable to be kept unfolded and in a separate, proper size envelope or folder.
A

a. true

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12
Q
  1. It refers to the numeral found at the four corners of the front and back of the note.
A

a. value panel

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13
Q
  1. Also called standards, are legally admissible
    authentic samples of handwriting used for
    comparison with questioned writing. they are used by the document examiner to enable her to form an opinion concerning the authenticity of handwriting in dispute.
A

c. exemplars

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14
Q
  1. It is the deterioration in writing caused by excessive consumption of alcohol.
A

a. intoxicated writing

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15
Q
  1. In taking request handwriting standards in all types of questioned-document problems, permit the subject to see any writing on the questioned document. This statement is:
A

b. false

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16
Q
  1. This is known as the distance between the letters.
A

d. letter space

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17
Q
  1. A character printing above or below its proper
    position has the quality of :
A

b. vertical malalignment

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18
Q
  1. The German word that means “complete” or
    “whole”. it needs nothing added or taken away to make
    it “look right”.
A

c. gestalt

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19
Q
  1. It is the movement of the baseline, it may slant- up, down or straight across the page.
A

a. line direction

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20
Q
  1. Authenticity of private documents is no longer necessary to be proven when:
A

b. the document is more than 30 years old

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21
Q
  1. It is an important element in handwriting which embraces all the factors which are related to the motion of the writing instrument skill, speed freedom,
A

c. movement

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22
Q
  1. It is the place where the writer grasps the barrel of the pen and the angle at which he holds it.
A

d. pen hold

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23
Q
  1. Is an irregularity in strokes characterized by
    shaky or wavering stroke which is perfectly
    apparent even without magnification?
A

c. tremor

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24
Q
  1. This is also known as writer’s proficiency or the degree, ability to write with proficiency.
A

b. skill

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25
Q
  1. This is the result of the pen touching down on the paper and moving across the page, until it is raised from the paper.
A

d. writing impulse

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26
Q
  1. Circumstances under which the writing was
    prepared and the factors in influencing the writer’s ability to write at the time of execution. it includes the writer’s position (sitting, standing, abed, etc.), the paper support and backing, and the writing instrument.
A

a. writing condition

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27
Q
  1. The thumb, the first and second and slightly the third fingers are in actual motion. This is the technique most usually employed by children
A

d. finger movement

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28
Q
  1. This is a signature for the mail carrier,
    delivery boy or the autograph collector.
A

c. careless scribble

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29
Q
  1. One in which the facts appearing therein
    are not true, and are contested either in
    whole or in part with respect to its
    authenticity, identity, or origin. It may be a
    deed, contract, will, election ballots,
    marriage contract, checks, visas, application
    form, certificates, etc.
A

d. questioned document

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30
Q
  1. A will entirely written in the handwriting
    of the testator.
A

b. holographic will

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31
Q
  1. Those standards which are obtained
    from files of document executed in the
    persons day to day business, official, social
    or personal activities.
    a. procured
    b. requested
    c. collected
    d. a and c
A

d. a and c

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32
Q
  1. Any writing executed normally without
    any attempt to control or alter its identifying
    habits and its usual quality of execution.
A

c. natural handwriting

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33
Q
  1. A curve formed inside the top curve of loop, as in
    small letters “h”, ‘m”, “n”, “p”.
A

b. arch

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34
Q
  1. This is concerned with the examination of
    forged, altered or suspected papers to see if they
    are genuine or if they have been changed.
A

d. QDE

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35
Q
  1. Maybe actually on a ruled paper, it might be
    imaginary alignment of writing. Is the ruled or
    imaginary line upon which the writing rest.
A

b. baseline

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36
Q
  1. The term applied to the irregular thickening of ink
    which is found when writing slows down or stop while
    the pen take a stock of the position.
A

a. hesitation

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37
Q
  1. It is a minute curve or an ankle which often occurs at the end of the terminal strokes. It is also sometimes occur at the beginning of an initial stroke. The terminal
    curves of the letters “a”, “d”, “n”, “m’, “p”, “u”
A

d. hook

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38
Q
  1. The extra deposit of ink in the initial and terminal stroke due to the slow withdrawal of the pen from the paper. (usually applicable to fountain pen)
A

a. knob

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39
Q
  1. This is the analysis of handwriting by comparisons and measurement.
A

d. graphometry

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40
Q
  1. In legal language, the Document Examiner’s
    conclusion is called:
A

c. opinion

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41
Q
  1. Whether the movement has been rapid or slow and whether the space has been steady or variable is a part of:
A

c. speed

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42
Q
  1. Characterized by a succession of awkward,
    independent, poorly directed and disconnected
    motions.
A

a. lack of rhythm

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43
Q
  1. Any fraudulent signature which was executed by actually following the outline of a genuine signature with a writing instrument.
A

a. traced forgery

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44
Q
  1. A name or a mark that a person puts at the end of a document to attest that he is its author or that he ratifies its contents.
A

d. signature

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45
Q
  1. An alignment defect in which the character prints to the right or left of its proper position.
A

a. horizontal malalignment

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46
Q
  1. A technique of forging a signature in which forger work first with special pencil and afterwards covers
    the pencil strokes with ink.
A

b. indirect technique

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47
Q
  1. A kind of erasure by using ink eradicator or blending agent.
A

a. chemical erasure

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48
Q
  1. Questioned documents are also called known
    handwriting samples.
A

b. false

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49
Q
  1. The forger does not try to copy a model but writes with something resembling we ordinarily call a signature. For this he uses a false name and makes a rapid stroke, disturbing his usual writing by adopting a camouflage called disguise.
A

d. simple forgery

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50
Q
  1. A sheet of interlaced fibers usually cellulose fibers from plants, but sometimes from cloth rags or other fibrous materials. That is formed by pulping the fibers and causing to felt, or mat, to form a solid surface.
A

c. paper

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51
Q
  1. In connection with typewriting identification, it includes letters, symbols, numerals, or point of
    punctuation.
A

c. character

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52
Q
  1. It is a hollow, horny part of large feather usually from goose and was used for writing on parchment.
A

d. quill pens

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53
Q
  1. A machine that can reproduce printed character son papers or that can produce printed letters and figures on paper.
A

c. typewriter

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54
Q
  1. The illumination of this is so controlled that it gazes or strikes the surface of the document from one side at a very low angle. This is used for decipherment of faded handwriting, determination of outline in traced forgery, embossed impression, etc.
A

b. oblique light examination

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55
Q
  1. It is a minute curve on an ankle which often
    occurs at the end of the terminal strokes.
A

b. hook

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56
Q
  1. In relation to criminal jurisprudence under the best evidence rule: any physical embodiment of information of ideas; e.g. a letter, a contract, a receipt, a book of
    account, a blue print, or an x- ray plate.
A

c. document

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57
Q
  1. Each letter and character is designed to print a certain fixed angle to the baseline. However, due to wear and damage to the type bars and the type block, some lean to the right or left of their correct slant.
A

c. twisted letters

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58
Q
  1. In a requested standard, dictate the material to be written at a speed which will produce the subject’s natural handwriting.
A

a. True

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59
Q
  1. The following are indications of common disguises,
    except:
    a. abnormally large
    b. abnormally small writing
    c. alteration of slant
    d. rhythm
A

d. rhythm

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60
Q
  1. It involves the writing of a name as a signature by someone other than the person himself, without his permission, often with some degree of imitation.
A

c. fraudulent signature

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61
Q
  1. The exposure of a document to
    ____________is useful when it consists of several
    pages and substitution is being suspected. The
    color and intensity of fluorescence reaction is very apparent in case of substituted page. Mechanical and chemical erasures will certainly change the reflectivity and fluorescence of the area affected.
A

a. ultra violet light

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62
Q
  1. A document completely written and signed by one person is known as:
A

a. holographic document

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63
Q
  1. In writing, it functions as an extension of the hand.
A

c. pen

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64
Q
  1. Any typewriting which is placed on the paper
    by action of the typefaces striking through carbon paper is classed as:
A

b. carbon impression

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65
Q
  1. A term described as: the typefaces become filled with lint, dirt, and ink particularly in enclosed letters such as the o, e, p, g, and others.
A

a. clogged typeface

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66
Q
  1. This term describes any abnormality or
    maladjustment in a typewriter which is reflected in its work and which leads to its individualization or identification.
A

d. defects

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67
Q
  1. What was done when one retouches or goes
    back over a defective portion of a writing stroke?
A

b. patching

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68
Q
  1. The condition of a typeface printing heavier on one side or corner than over the remainder of its outline.
A

a. off-its feet

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69
Q
  1. What type of forgery is made when the writer exerts no effort to effect resemblance or facsimile between the forged and the genuine signatures?
A

a. simple

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70
Q
  1. It is any written statement by which a right is
    established or an obligation extinguished; it is a deed, instrument or other duly authorized paper by which something is proved or set forth?
A

a. document

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71
Q
  1. It refers to the silhouette of the portrait appearing on the face of the note.
A

a. watermark

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72
Q
  1. This refers to the slope of the handwriting in
    relation to the base line.
A

b. slant

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73
Q
  1. A writing material made from skin of animals
    primarily of sheep, calves or goats – was probably developed in the Middle East.
A

a. parchment

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73
Q
  1. The imitation of a genuine or legal coin is called:
A

c. counterfeiting

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74
Q
  1. Any major long downward stroke of a letter that is the long downward stroke of the letter “b”, “g”.
A

a. staff

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75
Q
  1. Any identifying characteristics of a typewriter
    which cannot be corrected by simply cleaning the typeface or replacing the ribbon.
A

d. permanent defects

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76
Q
  1. The cylinder which serves as the backing of the paper and which absorbs the blow from the typeface
    is known as:
A

d. platen

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77
Q
  1. Kind of writing characterized by disconnected style.
A

c. script

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78
Q
  1. What is that interruption in a stroke, caused
    by sudden removal of the writing instrument from the paper surface?
A

c. pen lifting

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79
Q
  1. A kind of document which is executed by a private person without the intervention of a notary public, or of competent public official, by which some disposition or agreement is proved, evidence or set forth.
A

a. private document

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80
Q
  1. The path which is traced by the pen on the paper.
A

c. strokes

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81
Q
  1. Which of the following is the advantage of collected standards?
A

b. attempt to disguise is excluded

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82
Q
  1. What is that introductory up and down stroke found in almost all capital letters?
A

b. beard

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83
Q
  1. A kind of document which is executed by person in authority by private parties but not notarized by notaries public or by competent officials.
A

b. official document

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84
Q
  1. This is a stroke that is on another stroke.
A

b. covering stroke

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85
Q
  1. A defect in which a character prints a double
    impression with the lighter one slightly offset to the right or left.
A

a. rebound

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86
Q
  1. It refers to the prefix letter and numbers in a paper money.
A

b. serial number

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87
Q
  1. A writer may deliberately try to alter his
    usual writing habits in hope of hiding his
    identity, writing skill is poorer, change in
    slant, size, altered or capital letters.
A

d. disguised handwriting

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87
Q
  1. Philippine paper bills are printed in what process?
A

a. intaglio process

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88
Q
  1. It is an instrument that can be legally used
    in comparisons with a questioned document; its
    origin is known and can be proven.
A

b. standard document

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89
Q
  1. Those are symbols added to complete certain letters such as “i” and “t”.
A

c. diacritical marks

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90
Q
  1. Handwriting samples of the same writer may vary somewhat according to the conditions under which the wring was done. Which of the following classes of writers are such variations in genuine writing likely
    to occur?
A

c. practiced writer

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91
Q
  1. This group of document includes those papers which the entire writing is in question as spurious, forged or counterfeit in its entirely fall into.
A

b. questioned documents

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92
Q
  1. A loop made as a flourished which is added to the letters, as in small letter “k’ and “a” or in capital letters “A”, “K”, “P”. The horizontal end loop stroke that are often used to complete a letter.
A

a. buckle knot

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93
Q
  1. A modern pen nib which contains a reservoir of ink in a specially designed back or chamber is
    described as:
A

b. fountain pen

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94
Q
  1. It is the failure to complete the junction between two letters without lifting the pen.
A

b. hiatus

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95
Q
  1. It is the act of diminishing by ingenious means the metal in the coin; to take advantage if the metal abstracted; he appropriates a part of the metal of the coin, hence the coin diminishes in intrinsic value.
A

a. mutilation of coins

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96
Q
  1. This something wrong in time and in place. This means that the forger has trouble matching the paper ink, or writing materials to the exact date it was supposed to have been written.
A

c. anachronism

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97
Q
  1. The following are the scientific methods in QDE, except:
    a. analysis
    b. comparison
    c. evaluation
    d. conclusion
A

d. conclusion

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98
Q
  1. Refers to properties or marks, elements or
    qualities which serve to distinguish known as the
    basis of identification.
A

b. individual characteristics

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99
Q
  1. This is the opposite of ascender, the lower portion of a letter.
A

c. descender

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100
Q

LIE DETECTION TECHNIQUES

A
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101
Q
  1. Are short vertical lines placed normally about one- eight of an inch below a descending stroke of the cardio tracing at exactly the beginning and the end of a stimulus (asking a question) insertion.
A

d. stimulus mark

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102
Q
  1. This is a question deals with the matter under
    investigation. It is designed to generate reactions
    from deceptive subject.
A

d. relevant question

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103
Q
  1. It is a water-based ink intended for polygraph
    instruments.
A

b. capillary ink

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104
Q
  1. In polygraph examination, the examiner must
    wait for before asking the first question in order to
    record the normal pattern of the subject.
A

d. 15 to 20 seconds

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105
Q
  1. What shall be done every after the taking of each
    chart? The examiner shows the recorded result to the
    subject with a brief explanation as to the significance
    of the recorded reactions.
A

d. chart probing

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106
Q
  1. Generally used at the beginning of polygraph
    technique to establish a ‘norm’ for examinee, or
    throughout the examination as needed to reestablish norm pattern.
A

b. irrelevant question

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107
Q
  1. To the polygraph examiner, ___________generally means the type of cardio, pneumo and galvo tracings produced by the subject’s body on a moving chart prior to the insertions of relevant question or
    stimulus.
A

b. norm

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108
Q
  1. The following are the cardiograph tracings Which may be considered indicative of deception, except:
    a. increase or decrease in blood pressure
    b. double saddle response
    c. increase or decrease in pulse rate
    d. increase or decrease in amplitude
A

b. double saddle response

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109
Q
  1. An unusually fast heart rate, accompanied by a large amplitude which uniformly rises and falls, normally is in conjunction with a labored respiratory tracing, known as:
A

a. vagus roll

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109
Q
  1. Post-test interview involves taking of the subject’s consent to undergo polygraph examination.
A

d. false

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110
Q
  1. The following are the effects of Stimulant Drugs on
    the Cardiograph Tracings:
    a. increase in blood pressure
    b. increase in pulse rate
    c. increase in heartbeat rate
    d. none of the above
A

d. none of the above

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111
Q
  1. This is the pneumatic connection for upper
    (thoracic) pneumograph.
A

a. pneumo 1

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112
Q
  1. It is the popular but misleading name of the
    polygraph.
A

c. lie detector

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113
Q
  1. Under the general rules in formulating test
    questions in polygraph examination, the questions formed must be simple and direct. They must involve legal terminologies.
A

d. false

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114
Q
  1. This is the hormonal stimulator of the
    sympathetic nervous system. It acts to constrict
    peripheral blood flow, raise blood pressure, increase cardiac activity, promote metabolic activity through the release of glucose, and inhibit digestive processes. It is called Adrenaline in British.
A

c. Homeostasis

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115
Q
  1. It is an emotional response to scientific danger that appears to beyond a person defensive power.
A

c. fear

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116
Q
  1. A ____________indicating that the subject
    answers the stimulus with “no”.
A

d. negative sign

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117
Q
  1. It is an act of discovery existence, pressure or fact of something hidden or obscure/unknown.
A

a. detection

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118
Q
  1. This is a process that encompasses all activities that take place between a polygraph examiner and an examinee during a specific series of interactions.
A

a. polygraph examination

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119
Q
  1. No polygraph test can be effectively employed on a unwilling subject. The charts derived there from would be indicative more of bodily movements, silence and anger rather than an objective basis for an opinion of lying; hence, voluntary consent is essential.
    a. true
    b. false
    c. yes
    d. no
A

a. true

120
Q
  1. It consists of finger electrode plate with retainer bonds and connecting flog.
A

b. galvanograph

121
Q
  1. Reactive methods used to detect those efforts an examinee has engaged in while trying to defeat the PDD examination.
A

c. counter-counter measures

122
Q
  1. A test question in which the examinee is asked about a particular piece of physical evidence that would incriminate the guilty person. It could be items left at the crime scene by the perpetrator or stolen
    property.
A

b. evidence-connecting question

123
Q
  1. This is a lie made by persons who cannot
    distinguish right from wrong. It must be said those persons are mentally sick, or of low mental caliber.
A

c. pathological lie

124
Q
  1. The drug used as truth serum in lie detection is:
A

c. hyoscine hydrobromide

125
Q
  1. A deviation in polygraph tracing attributable to a physiological phenomenon occurring as a
    compensatory action after a response or an artifact.
A

a. recovery

126
Q
  1. A test of personality and mental function in which the subject is required to respond to each of a series of words with the first word that comes to mind or with a word of a specified class of words
A

b. word association test

127
Q
  1. The pre-test interview involves informing the
    subject of his Constitutional Rights ONLY IF the
    examiner is a law enforcement officer.
A

c. true

128
Q
  1. These are markings which are placed only if the examinee does something which will cause the physiological tracings to distort. These markings are usually placed below the affected tracing.
A

c. secondary markings

129
Q
  1. It is the incorrect decision by the polygraph
    examiner that deception was practiced by the
    examinee.
A

d. false positive

130
Q
  1. What is a test that measures electrical activity in the brain using small, metal discs attached to the scalp and is being proposed to be used for lie detection?
A

a. electroencephalogram

131
Q
  1. A polygraph instrument that directly records the responses of the subject on a piece of chart.
A

c. analog polygraph

132
Q
  1. This is designed to absorb the response generated by the introduction of relevant question in the series.
A

c. sacrifice relevant question

133
Q
  1. This phase is the actual conduct of the test
    administered by a polygraph examiner.
A

b. in-test

134
Q
  1. As a whole, this refers to all questions that appear on the polygram between test commencement and test termination.
A

b. question string

135
Q
  1. It refers to the response given by the subject
    which considered a deviation from the normal
    tracing or norms of the subject.
A

b. specific response

136
Q
  1. The polygraph examination room should at least be _________soundproof.
A

d. 90%

137
Q
  1. Which of the following is used to indicate the
    amount of air pressure inflated to the system.
    Usually about 60 mm of mercury for male subject?
A

b. sphygmamonometer

138
Q
  1. The test used by the insurance company for them to know if there’s fraud or manipulation.
A

d. claim verification test

139
Q
  1. A lie that is told when it is clear to those concerned that it is untruthful.
A

c. bold-face lie

140
Q
  1. A test where the subject is instructed not to give any verbal answer, the subject will only answer in his mind.
A

c. silent answer test

141
Q
  1. A ___________which indicates that the subject
    answers the question with “yes”.
A

c. positive sign

142
Q
  1. A phase in the polygraph exam which determines the subject’s physical, mental and psychological suitability to undergo the test.
A

a. pre-test interview

143
Q
  1. Lies aimed at amusing the listener and any intent to deceive is transient or teasing.
A

d. humorous lie

144
Q
  1. These are markings which indicate the beginning and end of examination as well as the questions and answers of the subject. These are usually placed at the bottom or top of the polygraph chart.
A

b. primary markings

145
Q
  1. An effort to mask emotional response by adapting a “poker face”. Psychoanalysts and other professionals may display relatively little response in their efforts to appear nonjudgmental of the patient’s or client’s
    statements.
A

c. neutralization

146
Q
  1. It is a question that has no connection with the matter under investigation and deals with known facts that the subject cannot be denied.
A

b. irrelevant question

147
Q
  1. During the pre-test interview, the following are true, except:
    a. the subject, if female, may be pregnant and
    may undergo the test
    b. the subject should not be physically or emotionally abused
    c. the subject should not be suffering high blood or hypertension
    d. none of the above
A

a. the subject, if female, may be pregnant and
may undergo the test

148
Q
  1. They are those who continually lies as their habit. They feel discomfort of being truthful because lying makes them feel right.
A

c. compulsive liars

149
Q
  1. This symbol indicates the start of the test. The examiner informs the subject that the test is about to begin.
A

a. X

150
Q
  1. Those who love to lie and are excited by the
    challenge of not being detected. For them an interview is a contest that they want to win; they realize that they will probably be convicted but will not give anyone the satisfaction of hearing them confess.
A

d. tournament liars

151
Q
  1. A type of Peak of Tension Test which is used to determine details of a crime that are not known to officials, such as the location of an unrecovered body, but would be known to a participant in the crime.
A

a. searching peak of question test

152
Q
  1. These are expressions made by the body to try to hide the truth. This is a non-verbal clue of
    deception.
A

b. emblems

153
Q
  1. This is a freewheeling string of stainless beads with a hook which fastens the pneumographic tube unto subject’s chest or stomach.
A

c. beaded chain

154
Q
  1. This refers to any person who undergoes polygraph examination.
A

a. subject

155
Q
  1. It is a comparison question in which the examinee is instructed by the examiner to answer the questions untruthfully.
A

c. directed lie comparison question

156
Q
  1. Finger electrodes are the special types of sensitive metal plate to be attached to the subject’s end joints of________________ for the recording of the electrical charges (ohms) from the brain through the skin.
    a. little fingers of both hands
    b. index fingers of both hands
    c. ring finger of left hand
    d. both index and ring fingers
A

d. both index and ring fingers

157
Q
  1. A type of reliability in polygraph examination which denotes agreement among different examiners.
A

d. interrater reliability

158
Q
  1. Change in the polygraph tracings caused by artifact stimulus.
A

c. distortion

159
Q
  1. Interrogation is conducted when the reactions show sign of deception and being uncooperative to open an information.
    a. yes
    b. no
    c. true
    d. false
A

c. true

160
Q
  1. For a valid polygraph examination to exist,
    respiration, EDA, and Cardiovascular activity must be
    monitored and recorded.
    a. yes
    b. no
    c. true
    d. false
A

c. true

161
Q
  1. He is someone who has successfully completed formal education and training in conducting polygraph examination and is certified by his agency to conduct such examination.
A

c. polygraph examiner

162
Q
  1. It is the act of deceiving or misleading usually
    accompanied by lying.
A

a. deception

163
Q
  1. It refers to the downward blood pressure
    representing the low pressure to the closing of the valves and heart relaxed.
A

d. diastolic blood pressure

164
Q
  1. It refers to human body phenomenon in which the skin changes resistance electrically upon the application of certain external stimuli. Also referred to a Psycho galvanic skin reflex or galvanic skin response.
A

c. electrodermal response

165
Q
  1. This is the act of uttering or conveying
    falsehood or creating a false or misleading
    impression with the intention of affecting
    wrongfully.
A

b. lying

166
Q
  1. Pre-test Interview usually last for about:
A

a. 20 – 30 minutes

167
Q
  1. This refers to any activity or inhibition of
    a previous activity of an organism or part of
    the organism resulting from stimulation.
A

c. normal response

168
Q
  1. It refers to any force or motion coming from
    the environment and which reach an organism
    has the tendency to arouse.
A

c. stimulus

168
Q
  1. This is the upward blood pressure as the apex of the curve caused by the contraction of the heart, valves are open and blood is rushing into the arteries.
A

a. systolic blood pressure

169
Q
  1. This is a judicial practiced by which the guilt or innocence of the accused is determined by subjectingthem to an unpleasant, usually dangerous experience
    or in the present term would mean an employment
    of “ 3
    rd degree”.
A

c. trial by ordeal

170
Q
  1. In 1892, an instrument to be used for medical examinations with the capability to simultaneously record undulated line tracings of the vascular pulses (radial, venous and arterial), by way of a stylus onto a revolving drum of smoked paper.
A

a. clinical polygraph

171
Q
  1. A lie which accompanies pretensions
    and hypocrisies, intriguing to cause
    dishonor or discredit one’s good image.
A

b. black lie

171
Q
  1. One of the tripod foundations which states that polygraph is capable of making graphic record containing reliable information regarding
    physiological responses of the subject.
A

c. mechanical leg premise

172
Q
  1. Under the psychophysiology of lying, this body system is composed of the brain and the spinal cord.
A

d. central nervous system

173
Q
  1. It is the complex interactive regulatory system by which the body strives to maintain a state of internal equilibrium.
A

c. Homeostasis

174
Q
  1. The following are the three stereotypic behavioral
    responses to threat, sometimes simply called F3,
    except:
    a. Fight
    b. flight
    c. freeze
    d. freight
A

d. freight

175
Q
  1. This is designed to detect and record changes in respiration of the subject.
A

b. pneumograph

176
Q
  1. The polygraph chart is approximately___________ rolled graph paper with approximately 1⁄4 inch horizontal division and 1⁄2 inch vertical division equivalent to 5 seconds run.
A

a. 100 ft.

177
Q
  1. Statement 1: The questions in polygraph
    examination must refer to one offense only.
    Statement 2: They must contain inference to one’s religion, race or belief.
    a. Statement 1 is false, Statement 2 is true
    b. Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is false
    c. both statements are true
A

b. Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is false

178
Q
  1. The subject must refrain from the use of alcohol, sedatives, prohibited drugs and other cold syrups or capsules for at least _________prior to the test.
A

d. 12 hours

179
Q
  1. The following are the purposes of irrelevant
    question, except:
    a. establish the professional authority in the room that means, the examiner asks questions and the suspect answers.
    b. it allows the examiner to assess the subject’s normal behavior for this heightened emotional situation.
    c. allows the examiner to identify something he has in common with the subject, to establish rapport.
    d. None of the above
A

d. None of the above

180
Q
  1. “Do you believe me when I promised not to ask a question in this test I have not gone over word for word?” is what type of question?
A

a. symptomatic question

181
Q
  1. This question is designed to probe whether the subject possesses information regarding the identity of the offender or the facts of the case under question.
A

a. guilty knowledge question

182
Q
  1. This test consists of only one relevant and a series of irrelevant questions.
A

a. peak of question test

183
Q
  1. It is the scientific method of detecting deception done with the aid of a polygraph instrument.
A

b. polygraphy

184
Q
  1. This is used primarily for overly responsive subjects. Consists of a totally fictitious incident but a similar nature to the matter being investigated and make him
    believe it is real.
A

b. guilt complex test

185
Q
  1. These are unconscious expressions that surface as the limbic part of our brain sort, gather and assess information.
A
  1. These are unconscious expressions that surface as
    the limbic part of our brain sort, gather and assess
    information.
186
Q
  1. What is the primary objective of the post test
    interview?
A

b. to obtain confession

187
Q
  1. A type of polygraph test which involves specific case investigation.
A

d. diagnostic exam

188
Q
  1. This is an interview conducted by the polygraph examiner designed to prepare or condition the subject for the actual test.
A

a. pre-test interview

189
Q
  1. The following are true about the required
    conditions of the polygraph examination room, except:
    a. well lighted
    b. well ventilated
    c. sound Proof
    d. well decorated
A

d. well decorated

190
Q
  1. In the polygraph examination post-test phase, what is conducted when the reactions indicate an innocent response and cooperative to the examiner?
A

b. interview

191
Q
  1. They are those who lie in order to avoid the
    consequences of confession. They are afraid of
    embarrassment and they believe that confession will just make the matter worse.
A

b. panic liars

192
Q
  1. These are annotations of the physiologic tracings to denote stimulus (question) onset and offset, examinee’s answer, question number, question label, artifacts, and other details important to the interpretation of the physiological data.
A

a. chart markings

192
Q
  1. A test which consists primarily of series of
    irrelevant questions and relevant question pertainingto the crime under investigation. This was developed by Keeler.
A

a. relevant/irrelevant test

193
Q
  1. The __________________is asserted to be a
    voice-mediated lie detector.
A

c. psychological stress evaluator

194
Q
  1. This is a stimulus mark. The first vertical line
    marks when the examiner starts asking question. Second vertical line marks when the examiner finishes asking question.
A

b. I

195
Q
  1. Positive or negative signs are still placed when the subject fails to answer or when “Silent Answer Test” (SAT) is conducted.
    a. true
    b. false
    c. yes
    d. no
A

a. true

196
Q
  1. Class of countermeasures in which the examinee
    attempts to affect the polygraph recordings through
    self-manipulation of attention, memory and emotion
    like hypnosis and thought control.
A

d. cognitive countermeasures

197
Q

FORENSIC BALLISTICS

A
198
Q
  1. This treats of the motion of projectiles after leaving
    the muzzle of the gun barrel.
A

d. exterior ballistics

199
Q
  1. This is a device for storing cartridges in a
    repeating firearm for loading into the chamber.
A

b. magazine

200
Q
  1. What is propelled from the barrel and out of the gun by powder gasses?
A

b. projectiles

201
Q
  1. Instances when the size of the entrance wound is bigger than the caliber of the firearm used, except:
    a. contact fire
    b. acute angular approach of the bullet
    c. deformity of the bullet
    d. fragmentation of the bullet before hitting the
    subject
A

d. fragmentation of the bullet before hitting the
subject

202
Q
  1. It is the science of mechanics that deals with
    the flight, behavior and effects of projectiles
    especially bullet, gravity bombs, rockets or the
    like.
A

b. ballistics

203
Q
  1. The unburned or partially burned powder grains embedded in the skin surrounding the point of entry in gunshot wound produce:
    a. tattooing
    b. stippling
    c. peppering
    d. all of the above
A

d. all of the above

204
Q
  1. Which of the following is the characteristic of a
    gunshot wound of exit?
    a. contusion collar
    b. tattooing or smudging
    c. wound larger than the bullet
    d. edges of the wound are inverted
A

c. wound larger than the bullet

205
Q
  1. A dead person was found with a contact gunshot wound in the right temple and the fatal gun tightly gripped by the right hand. Such condition is called:
A

c. cadaveric spasm

206
Q
  1. This consists of unburned, burning and partially burned powder together with graphite
    which came out from the muzzle. It is responsible for the tattooing around the gunshot wound of entrance.
A

b. powder grains

207
Q
  1. In a common police parlance, a bullet may be called ______.
A

c. slug

208
Q
  1. Firing pin mark can be found in a “Fired Shell”.
    a. true
    b. false
    c. partially true
    d. partially false
A

a. true

209
Q
  1. The number of lands and grooves inside the bore
    of a fired firearm are always_________.
A

b. the same

210
Q
  1. This is a part of the firearm which causes firing mechanism.
A

b. trigger

211
Q
  1. It refers to the circular groove near the base of the case or shell designed for the automatic withdrawal of the case after each firing.
A

b. extractor groove

212
Q
  1. Firearm which may be fired only by a single hand.
A

b. pistol

212
Q
  1. The first priming mixture is composed of Potassium Chlorate, Charcoal, and _________.
A

d. Sulphur

213
Q
  1. The term cartridge is derived from the word
    “charta”, the Latin word for ____.
A

d. paper

214
Q
  1. It is the hole in the web or the bottom of the primer pocket through which the primer “flash” provides ignition to the gunpowder.
    a. flash hole
    b. vent
    c. cannelures
    d. a or b
A

d. a or b

215
Q
  1. It is equal to the height of the side of a land.
A

a. depth of grooves

215
Q
  1. The gun powder is otherwise known
    as_____________.
    a. powder charge
    b. propellant
    c. pulbura
    d. a & b
A

d. a & b

215
Q
  1. It is the result of the critical study of the specimens submitted,
    conducted by the Firearm Examiner, usually with the use of Bullet
    Comparison Microscope.
A

a. ballistics report

216
Q
  1. These are used in cases such in sending
    signals and enabling to see enemies in the dark.
A

d. flare guns

217
Q
  1. The portion of the primer against which the priming mixture is crushed by a blow from the firing pin.
A

b. anvil

217
Q
  1. The rifling inside the gun barrel may twist
    _________.
A

c. to the right & left

217
Q
  1. It is a tabular metallic or non-metallic container which holds together the bullet, gunpowder and primer.
    a. bullet
    b. cartridge case
    c. shell
    d. b or c
A

d. b or c

218
Q
  1. Most center-fire rifle cartridge cases are
    of_______.
A

a. bottleneck type

219
Q
  1. The bottom of the case which holds the primer and the shell head.
A

b. base

219
Q
  1. It is an instrument used for the propulsion of
    projectile by means of the expansive force of gases
    coming from the burning gunpowder.
A

b. firearm

219
Q
  1. This (also called as propellant or power charge) is the mixture of chemicals of various compositions designed to propel the projectile by means of its expensive force of gas when burned.
A

b. gunpowder

220
Q
  1. This is the part of cartridge which when ignited is converted to high pressure and propels the bullet or shot through the barrel and on the target.
A

b. gunpowder

220
Q
  1. The firearm leaves its “fingerprints” or “thumb mark” on every cartridge case which it fires.
    a. yes
    b. no
    c. true
    d. false
A

c. true

221
Q
  1. This is the study of the projectiles behavior when it leaves the barrel and the pressure behind the projectile is equalized.
A

d . transition/intermediate ballistic

222
Q
  1. This refers to the diameter of the barrel on a
    shotgun in terms of the number of lead balls the
    size of the bore it would take to weigh one pound
A

c. gauge

222
Q
  1. What is meant by the Greek word ballo or ballien?
A

c. to throw

223
Q
  1. It is the method of viewing fired bullet and shell in the bullet comparison microscope where the specimens are compared side by side.
A

a. Juxtaposition

223
Q
  1. What is the factor that affects the bullet drops to the ground?
A

c. gravity

224
Q
  1. It refers to the helical lines cut in the interior bore
    of the gun barrel.
A

c. rifling

225
Q
  1. What is the portion of the gun that holds the
    cartridge ready for firing?
A

d. chamber

226
Q
  1. The following are the basis for conclusive positive
    identification of firearm evidences, EXCEPT:
    a. consistent
    b. significant
    c. parallel
    d. prominent
A

c. parallel

226
Q
  1. This is due to the passage of bullet at the spiral
    landings and grooving of the barrel.
A

b. spinning movement

227
Q
  1. Most firearms have some type of designed
    to minimize the potential for accidental discharge.
A

c. safety

227
Q
  1. At the crime scene, is it proper to note down
    where the empty shells, bullets and/ or firearms
    were found and make a diagram to illustrate the
    same to show their relative distances from the
    body of the victim?
    a. yes
    b. no
    c. true
    d. false
A

a. yes

228
Q
  1. It the primary fracture resembles the spokes of a
    wheel radiating outward from the point of impact.
A
228
Q
  1. In a given cartridge, where to find the name of manufacturer?
A

b. head stamp

229
Q
  1. It is the chemical wear and tear of the inside of the gun barrel due to rust formation or chemical reaction by the products of combustion after firing.
A

B. corrosion

230
Q
  1. The firearm examiner’s job usually involves the inspection of submitted firearms functionality to determine if __________is possible.
A

d. accidental discharge

230
Q
  1. Under RA 10591, there class of firearm refer to self-loading pistols, rifles and carbines, submachine guns, assault rifles and light machine guns not exceeding caliber 7.62MM which have fully automatic mode.
A

a. class a light weapon

231
Q
  1. It is a branch of ballistics which study shotgun ammunition including its characteristics spread and trailing.
A

a. shot ballistics

232
Q
  1. This procedure is to obtain standard bullet and shell that will compare to the evidence.
A

a. test firing

232
Q
  1. It is an energy generated at the muzzle point,
    whenever the cartridge explodes from a firearm.
A

c. muzzle blast

233
Q
  1. The diameter of the rim is equal with the diameter of the body of the cartridge case.
A

b. rimless type

234
Q
  1. Conclusions reached in a bullet comparison will NOT include the following.
    a. inconclusive identification
    b. positive identification
    c. personal identification
    d. negative identification
A

c. personal identification

234
Q
  1. If class characteristics between an ammunition component and a firearm are in agreement the next step in the examination process would be to look for:
A

b. individual characteristics

234
Q
  1. By holding the nose of the bullet pointing far from your eyes, the direction of rifling impressions run______ from you determines the direction of twist.
A

d. away

235
Q
  1. In a given bullet, what are the details to be
    determined by firearm examiner?
A

a. caliber

236
Q
  1. This is defined as the science of motion of
    projectiles.
A

b. ballistics

236
Q
  1. What is the reason why the markings cannot be placed on the base of a cartridge case?
A

c. to preserve the firing pin marks

236
Q
  1. What is the importance of trajectory in investigation
    of a shooting incidence?
A

b. to identify the position of firer and victim

236
Q
  1. What is meant by MAC rule?
A

a. mutilate-alter-contaminate

237
Q
  1. Interior ballistics involves the following reactions, EXCEPT:
    a. pressure developed
    b. recoil of the gun
    c. ignition of the priming mixture
    d. muzzle blast
A

d. muzzle blast

237
Q
  1. The movement or action of projectiles launched from firearms is called:
A

d. motions

237
Q
  1. The metallic or non-metallic objects propelled from
    a firearm.
A

b. projectiles

238
Q
  1. From the release of the firing pin to the moment the sound of the shot can be heard as it leaves the muzzle occupies only about 0.01 seconds, in a modern rifle, is the sequence in:
A

c. interior ballistics

239
Q
  1. Things involved in interior ballistics, except:
    a. Ignition of primer
    b. Flames is produced
    c. Combustion of the gunpowder
    d. Effect of bullet on the target
A

d. Effect of bullet on the target

239
Q
  1. This is the greater distance a projectile can travel when fired at the optimum angle of elevation of the barrel.
A

d. maximum range

239
Q
  1. As applied to ballistics, or to any other subject,
    suggest a relationship to Courts of Justice and legal
    proceedings.
A

c. forensic

240
Q
  1. In Section 877 Revised Administrative Code and Section 290 of National Internal Revenue Code, the barrel of any firearm shall be considered a complete firearm.
    a. yes
    b. no
    c. true
    d. false
A

c. true

241
Q
  1. A type of cartridge in which the primer cup forced into the middle portion of the head of the cartridge case.
A

d. center- fire cartridge

241
Q
  1. What do you call the firearms that have no rifling (lands and grooves) inside their gun barrel?
A

a. smooth bore firearms

241
Q
  1. It refers to those types of firearms that propels projectile with more than one-inch diameter.
A

c. artillery

242
Q
  1. The diameter of the rim is greater than the
    diameter of the body of the cartridge case.
A

a. rimmed type

243
Q
  1. This bullet contains a mixture such as phosphorous or other materials, that can be set on fire by impact. They are used against target that will burn readily such as aircraft.
A

b. incendiary bullets

243
Q
  1. It is the metallic or non- metallic tabular container usually made of brass (70% copper and 30% zinc); it is designed to unite the bullet, primer and the gunpowder into one unit.
    a. cartridge case
    b. shell
    c. casing
    d. all of the above
A

d. all of the above

243
Q
  1. Functions of the cartridge case, except;
    a. It holds the bullet, gunpowder and primer assembled into one unit
    b. It serves as a waterproof container for the gun
    powder
    c. It prevents the escape of the gases to the rear as the sidewalls of the cartridge case are forced against the walls of the chamber by the pressure.
    d. None of the above
A

d. None of the above

244
Q
  1. This is a type of cartridge commonly found
    ammunitions for rifle.
    a. tapered type
    b. bottle- neck type
    c. straight case
    d. NOTA
A

b. bottle- neck type

245
Q
  1. This contains a small amount of explosive mixture which is sufficiently sensitive to result chemical reaction being set up by the caused by a sudden blow.
A

a. priming mixture

245
Q
  1. It is the science of analyzing firearms usage
    in crimes. It involves analysis of bullets and
    bullets impact to determine information of use to a court or other part of legal system.
A

a. forensic ballistics

245
Q
  1. It is the assembly which ignite the propellant. It consists of a brass or guiding-metal cup that contains a primer composition pellet of sensitive explosive, a paper disk (foil), and a brass anvil.
A

a. primer

246
Q
  1. It is the process by which an object moves
    through an atmosphere by generating
    aerodynamic lift and propulsive thrust using
    buoyancy or by ballistic movement without any
    direct solid mechanical support from the ground.
A

a. flight

247
Q
  1. This is the path that a moving object follows
    through space as a function of time.
A

b. trajectory

247
Q
  1. The deposits of unburned powder residue in
    the bore of a gun is called:
A

a. fouling

247
Q
  1. What is the metal tube through which the
    bullet is fired?
A

a. barrel

248
Q
  1. This involves analyzing firearm, ammunition
    and tool mark evidence in order to establish
    whether a certain firearm or tool was used in the
    commission of a crime.
A

c. ballistic fingerprinting

249
Q
  1. A type of bullet in which the front is flattened.
A

d. wad-cutter

250
Q
  1. It is the portion of the gun which is held or
    shouldered.
A

d. butt

250
Q
  1. This is a synonym for a handgun that does not
    have a revolving cylinder.
A

d. pistol

250
Q
  1. This is the diameter of the bore measured
    from land to land, usually expressed in hundredths
    of an inch (.22 cal) or in millimeters (9mm).
A

a. caliber

251
Q
  1. What is the escaping of gases past a fired
    bullet while the bullet is still in the barrel?
A

d. blowby

252
Q
  1. This are the collection and cataloging of test-
    fired bullets and cartridge cases from known
    firearms. Also known as Fired standards.
A

c. known standards

252
Q
  1. It is a discipline of forensic science which has
    as its primary concern to determine if a bullet,
    cartridge case, or other ammunition component
    was fired by a particular firearm.
A

b. firearms identification

252
Q
  1. This is a plastic, paper or fiber disk used to
    keep ammunition components in place or
    separated.
A

b. wads

253
Q
  1. The air that is compressed and moves out
    spherically from a firearm’s muzzle after firing a
    projectile.
A

d. muzzle wave

254
Q
  1. This is a portion of a firearm’s mechanism
    which pulls the cartridge case from the chamber.
A

a. extractor

254
Q
  1. This is essentially two microscopes
    connected to an optical bridge which allows the
    viewer to observe two objects simultaneously
    with the same degree of magnification.
A

c. comparison microscope

255
Q
  1. These may be in any form, since the name has been applied to all homemade guns. A great many of this class will be found to be exceedingly clever mechanisms and most effective weapon.
A

a. zip guns

256
Q
  1. Shall mean loaded shell rifle, muskets,
    carbine, shotguns, revolver and pistol from which a bullet, ball, shot, shell or other missiles may be fore by means of a gun powder or other
    explosives.
A

a. ammunition

257
Q
  1. This is a bullet made from paraffin and other
    wax preparation usually used for short range
    indoor target shooting.
A

c. wax bullet

258
Q
  1. When the bullet enters the rifled bore from a
    stationary position and is forced abruptly into the rifling, its natural tendency is to go straight toward before encountering the regular rifling twist. This is called:
A

b. skid marks

259
Q
  1. This deals with the destructive actions and effects that occur at the end of the projectiles flight as an integral and un-deformed body and may end in one of these: the projectile may strike a solid obstruction, or Its metal case may be broken by the explosion of a bursting charge.
A

c. terminal ballistics

260
Q
  1. Every bullet leaves its thumb marks on every barrel which is fired through it, just as every breech face leaves its thumb marks on the base of every fired cartridge case.
    a. yes
    b. no
    c. true
    d. false
A

d. false