Cells and Tissue Flashcards

(40 cards)

1
Q

A stable patient arrives at the intensive care unit in diabetic ketoacidosis and is placed on an insulin and D5W drip. When placed on cardiac monitoring, the nurse notices U- waves appear. What would be the nurses next step?

A. Increase insulin drip rate
B. Contact the provider to order a BMP
C. Check the patients blood sugar level
D. Decrease the D5w rate

A

Contact the provider to order a BMP.

This is correct, as U waves can appear on cardiac monitoring for patients in hypokalemia (Rogers & Brash, 2023, pp. 120-121). Given the patient is on an insulin drip, this will deplete levels quickly, so the nurse should check out their electrolyte levels to determine if replacement is warranted.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

A patient arrives at your outpatient clinic, and a BMP shows they have hypophosphatemia. Which response by the patient would prompt further education?

A. I will make sure to cut back my alcohol drinking during the week
B. I’ll make sure to add Vitamin D Supplements to my morning medications, to make sure I take them
C. I can try alternative methods to relieve my heartburn, rather than always taking antacids
D. I need to make sure I’m adding more calcium to my diet

A

I need to make sure I’m adding more calcium into my diet

This statement means the patient needs more education as phosporous and calcium have an inverse relationship (p.125). therefore if calcium levels are increased, then phosphorous level will decrease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

While caring for an intubated patient, the lab calls, and reports from an arterial blood gas that the patient’s pH came back at 7.5, and their PaCO2 is 30 mmHg, and their HCO3 is 27 mmol/L. What would the nurse anticipate the provider ordering?

A. Decrease respirations (on ventilator)
B. repeat ABG
C. Give a dose of Bicarbonate
D. COntinue to monitor

A

Decrease respirations– pt is currently in respiratory alkalosis and requires respirations to decrease so the patient can retain more CO2 (p. 136)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

During rounds, the medical provider notifies the bedside nurse that the team will be ordering a blood test that could help to indicate or rule out heart failure in their patient. The provider goes on to explain that the blood test will check for the presence of hormones released by the myocardium in response to increased left ventricular tension to help reduce the workload on the heart by :

A) preventing urinary sodium excretion

B) promoting urinary sodium excretion

C) preventing a drop in blood pressure

D) promoting vasoconstriction

A

promoting urinary sodium excretion

B-Type Natriuretic Peptide (BNP) is produced by the myocardium of the cardiac ventricles in response to increased volume, pressure, or tension on the ventricular walls. Serum BNP is measured to assist in the preliminary diagnosis of heart failure. The function of natriuretic peptides is to reduce cardiac workload by reducing blood pressure. BNP reduces blood pressure by promoting vasodilation, sodium and water excretion by the kidneys

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which of the following actions would constitute a disruption in the first layer of defense in human immunity?

A) Peripheral venous blood draw

B) chronic inflammation

C) oral antihistamine therapy

D) chemotherapy induced neutropenia

A

peripheral venous blood draw

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

When describing the causes of an inherited trait, the term multifactorial inheritance is used when ________ is/ are thought to be involved.

A) multiple gene diseases
B) environmental factors
C) when both members of a set of identical twins are afflicted similarly
D) single gene diseases

A

environmental factors

The term multifactorial inheritance is used when it is believed that there are non-genetic causes for an inherited trait or disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

A patient with a partial small bowel obstruction has been admitted to the medical unit with symptoms of abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting. An X-ray shows a largely distended stomach. An NG tube was inserted, 800 mL of green fluid was removed, and continuous suction was ordered. Morning lab results reveal a potassium level of 2.7 mEq/L. Which of the following symptoms is the patient most likely experiencing?

A. ECG changes such as T wave decreases, ST depression, and/or U wave

B. Depression

C. Chvostek and Trousseau signs

D. Kidney stones

A

ECG changes such as T wave decreases, ST depression, and/or U wave

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which of the following statements correctly explains a cellular response in inflammation?

A. Eosinophils are the most important phagocytes in the cellular response to inflammation and arrive early at the scene in large numbers.

B. All pathogens can be destroyed by phagocytosis using pattern recognition receptors (PRRs) that recognize pathogen-associated molecular patterns (PAMPs) on microorganisms.

C. Phagocytes detect chemotactic factors (chemokines), including bacterial products, complement fragments C3a and C5a, and other chemokines, and migrate toward the highest concentration of these factors.

D. Dying phagocytes do not cause tissue damage at the site of inflammation and are absorbed by the vascular system.

A

Phagocytes detect chemotactic factors (chemokines), including bacterial products, complement fragments C3a and C5a, and other chemokines, and migrate toward the highest concentration of these factors.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which of the following is a good example of active immunity?

A. An adult does not contract measles after childhood because they were previously infected and recovered.

B. Neonates do not develop an infection because they have maternal antibodies received through breast milk.

C. A cancer patient is given monoclonal antibodies against a cancer antigen.

D. Adults do not develop an infection because they receive rabies immune globulin, which provides immediate protection against the rabies virus.

A

An adult does not contract measles after childhood because they were previously infected and recovered.

Active immunity occurs when the immune system generates its own antibodies in response to an infection or vaccination, leading to long-term protection.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

A patient presents post unilateral nephrectomy with normal kidney function. What is the type of cellular adaptation responsible for maintaining the patient’s kidney function post nephrectomy?

Physiologic hypertrophy

Pathologic hypertrophy

Hormonal hyperplasia

Compensatory hyperplasia

A

Physiologic hypertrophy occurs when the cells increase in size but maintain their functionality. In physiologic hypertrophy there is no alteration in the structure or function. This is due to increased demand and there is no pathology occurring to alter function. (Gray et al., 2024, pp. 44)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

A 25 year old patient with no past medical or surgical history presents with altered mental status, lethargy and new onset of seizure activity. Assessment shows very dry mucous membranes and tenting skin turgor. Upon collecting a history from the patient mother present at the bedside she states that the patient has had 1 week of vomiting with poor PO intake. The collection of a comprehensive metabolic panel shows a serum sodium level of 125 mEq/L. What is the likely type of hyponatremia?

Isovolemic Hypernatremia

Hypertonic Hyponatremia

Hypovolemic Hyponatremia

Dilutional Hyponatremia

A

Hypovolemic Hyponatremia

Correct. Due to the loss of fluid through vomiting and no past medical history this is the most likely form of hyponatremia. The extracellular fluid volume is decreased causing an increased concentration of sodium in the blood serum.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

During the inflammatory response mast cells act as activators containing biochemical mediators responsible for initiating different responses to stimuli. Of these mediators, which is responsible for the increased vascular permeability, neutrophil chemotaxis and pain produced by the action of cyclooxygenase (COX)?

Vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF)

Prostaglandins

Leukotrienes

Platelet-activating factor

A

Prostaglandins

Correct. Prostaglandins are mediators produced by mast cells causing above symptoms. They are produced by the action of COX in two forms, COX- 1 and COX - 2. This is why NSAIDs are useful in counteracting these symptoms depending on the COX type. They counteract the prostaglandins reducing inflammation and pain produced by the prostaglandin. (Brasher, 2024, pp. 212)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

In regards to cellular function, atrophy, hypertrophy, hyperplasia, metaplasia, and dysplasia are all examples of:

A. Cellular reactivity

B. Cellular adaptation

C. Cellular malfunction

D. Cellular injury/death

A

Cellular adaptation is the “reversible response involving structural and functional modifications to accommodate physiologic and pathologic conditions” ( Gray et al, 2023, p.44). Cellular Adaptation response to stressors are as listed in the question. Cellular injury occurs when the cell is unable to maintain homeostasis (normal or adaptive steady state) Rodgers, 2023, p 47)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

A patient with Kussmaul respirations is showing compensatory mechanisms of?

A. Metabolic acidosis

B. Respiratory acidosis

C. Metabolic alkalosis

D. Respiratory alkalosis

A

Kussmaul (deep and rapid) respirations are the bodies attempt to compensate and achieve homeostasis during metabolic acidosis, often associated diabetic keto acidosis. The patients ph is acidic, less than 7.35 and bicarb is low <22 mEq/L

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Your patient is complaining of burning and pressure along the sternum and belching after eating acidic food. As the nurse you know stimulation of which histamine receptor is responsible for these symptoms?

A. Histamine 1

B. Histamine 2

C. Histamine 3

D. Histamine 4

A

Histamine 2 receptor is generally antiiflammatory, abundant in parietal cells of the stomach where stimulation induces the secretion of gastric acid as normal physiology of the stomach” (Rodgers, 2023, p 211)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Your 45yo male patient presents with complaints of widespread muscle twitching/spasms. You would be concerned about the following electrolyte abnormalities:

Hypercalcemia, hypophosphatemia, hypermagnesemia

Hypernatremia, hypomagnesemia, hypocalcemia

Hypernatremia, hypocalcemia, hypokalemia

Hyperkalemia, hypercalcemia, hyponatremia

A

Hypernatremia, hypomagnesemia, hypocalcemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

You evaluate a patient who fell and sustained a 1” laceration across their knee. You decide to suture the incision based on the principal of healing by:

Proliferation

Epithelialization

Primary intention

Secondary intention

A

Primary intention

17
Q

You are interpreting your patients EKG and notice peaked T waves. You would be concerned about which of the following electrolyte abnormalities:

Hyperkalemia

Hypokalemia

Hypercalcemia

Hypernatremia

18
Q

Which of the following statements is true about hypertrophy?

Hypertrophy is a compensatory increase in the number of cells that occurs in response to mechanical load or stress

Hypertension causes physiologic hypertrophy of the heart

“Runner’s heart” is a type of pathologic hypertrophy

Physiologic hypertrophy of the heart results from increased demands, but the myocardial matrix is preserved

A

Physiologic hypertrophy of the heart results from increased demands, but the myocardial matrix is preserved

Physiologic hypertrophy results from increased demands, stimulation hormones and growth factors. Despite the increase in size of the heart, the myocardial matrix is preserved. (Roger, 2023, p. 45)

19
Q

A 75 year old female presents to her primary care office with the chief complaint of “feeling ill.” She states she has been experiencing flu-like symptoms for the past 5 days, including nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, weakness, and decreased appetite, as well as a 6/10 headache that began 2 days ago. She explains that she has been trying her best to increase her water intake to prevent dehydration. According to her presentation, which electrolyte imbalance is this patient at risk for?

Hyponatremia
Hyperchloremia
Hyperkalemia
Hypomagnesemia

20
Q

Innate immunity refers to the defense mechanisms that are present at birth. The immune system provides an initial nonspecific response to protect the body. Which of the follow statements are false about innate immunity?

A first line of defense is the physical barrier of the epithelial cells of the skin

Inflammation is activated as the second line of defense when the guardian cells detect pathogen invasion or tissue damage

Neutrophils and macrophages play an essential role of removing debris and initiating healing by the process of phagocytosis

None of the above

A

none of the above, these are all true statements

21
Q

Mark was playing soccer with his local sports club when he fell and injured his left ankle. He presents to the office with swelling surrounding the left ankle joint. Which type of edema would be anticipated that Mark is experiencing based on the presentation of swelling of his left ankle?

a. generalized edema

b. localized edema

c. pitting edema

d. dependent edema

A

localized edema. Considering the localized swelling of his left ankle, it is likely that Mark is experiencing localized edema, which can be caused by injury such as a sprained joint (Rogers, 2022). Page 110

22
Q

A 4-year-old child presents with fatigue, irritability, and abdominal pain. The child lives in a house built in the early 1900s and attends a daycare located in an older building. What is the suspected diagnosis for this child’s presentation?

a. fetal alcohol poisoning

b. carbon monoxide exposure

c. lead exposure

d. mercury exposure

A

lead exposure.
With the prevalence of hand-to-mouth behavior in children and the absence of regulations concerning household materials, such as paint, prior to the 1970s, young children are at an elevated risk of encountering deteriorating paint in older housing and environments. (Rogers, 2022). Pages 57-65

23
Q

Which of the following terms refers to the reversible change from one cell type to another in response to chronic irritation or inflammation, and tissue damage, repair, and regeneration?

a. metaplasia

b. dysplasia

c. hyperplasia

d. hypertrophy

A

metaplasia. Metaplasia refers to the reversible change from one type of tissue to another in response to chronic irritation or inflammation (Rogers, 2022). This adaptive change allows the affected tissue better to withstand adverse conditions (Rogers, 2022). For example, in the respiratory tract, chronic exposure to cigarette smoke can lead to the transformation of the normal pseudostratified columnar epithelium into stratified squamous epithelium, a change that is more resistant to damage from the inhaled irritants but not able to secrete mucus nor have cilia which decrease the protective barrier of the tissues (Rogers, 2022). Page 47

24
You are caring for a 62-year-old female patient in the urgent care with a history of depression managed with fluoxetine 20mg. She was recently diagnosed with hypertension and started on hydrochlorothiazide 12.5 mg. Presents with a complaint of increased lethargy, nauseous, and headaches for the past three days. Which electrolyte imbalance do you suspect is causing her symptoms? Hypocalcemia Hyponatremia Hyperkalemia Hypernatremia
Severe hyponatremia, less than 125 mEq/L, can cause neurological problems including the ones listed in the question (Rogers & Brashers, 2023, p. 117). Diuretics, including hydrochlorothiazide, can cause hypovolemia hyponatremia due to renal loses (Rogers & Brashers, 2023, p. 116). Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) including fluoxetine can cause dilutional hypotonic hyponatremia (Rogers & Brashers, 2023, p. 117). Therefore, Option B would be the correct answer.
25
A 68-year-old male patient has a leg wound from a fall healing by secondary intention. He comes in to be seen because the wound is taking a very long time to heal. Which of the following test results would alarm the provider the most as contributing to the delayed wound healing? An A1c of 9.5% BMI of 24.7 Albumin level of 3.5 g/dL BUN level of 12 mg/dL
Diabetes can cause prolonged wound healing and infection, especially with persistent hyperglycemia which this patient seems to be exhibiting with an A1c of 9.5% due to deficient glucose transport to the cells involved in wound healing (Rogers & Brashers, 2023, p. 224). The other options are all within the normal and healthy range, thus would help wound healing.
26
A patient newly diagnosed with congestive heart failure is experiencing generalized edema and has been prescribed furosemide. Which of the following should not be included in the teaching regarding edema? Avoid tight clothing Increase salt intake Avoid prolonged standing Use compression stockings
Increase salt intake
27
Which of the following is the primary enzyme involved in DNA replication? A. Thymine B. Adenine C. Cytosine D. Polymerase
Polymerase
28
What are the three layers of human defense? A. physiological barriers B. inflammatory response C. adaptive immunity D. all the above
all of the above
29
Which types of lymphocytes is the adaptive immunity response mediated by? A. natural killer cells B. B lymphocytes and T lymphocytes C. B lymphocytes and natural killer cells D. T lymphocytes and natural killer cells
the adaptive immune response is mediated by two types of lymphocytes – B lymphocytes and T lymphocytes, each has distinct functions. B cells are responsible for humoral immunity mediated by circulating antibodies, and T cells are responsible for cell-mediated immunity in which they kill targets directly or stimulate the activity of other leukocytes (Rogers & Brashers, 2023). Page e13
30
A 70-year-old patient is admitted to the hospital after experiencing lethargy, muscle cramps, and confusion. Laboratory results show a serum sodium level of 120 mEq/L. Based on the lab results and the patient’s symptoms; he is most likely experiencing signs of: Hyperkalemia Hypocalcemia Hyponatremia Hypernatremia
hyponatremia
31
A 55-year-old male patient is recently diagnosed with benign prostatic hyperplasia (BHP). The provider explains that the prostate enlargement is not due to an increase in the size of the cells but due to the rise in the number of cells. Which of the following best describes the difference between hypertrophy and hyperplasia in this context? A. Hypertrophy is an increase in cell number, whereas hyperplasia is an increase in cell size. B. Hypertrophy involves an increase in cell size and number, while hyperplasia involves only an increase in cell number. C. Hypertrophy is an increase in cell size, while hyperplasia is an increase in cell number. D. Hypertrophy and hyperplasia are both the same.
Hypertrophy is an increase in cell size, while hyperplasia is an increase in cell number.
32
Which of the following is a mechanism by which the microbiome contributes to health and immunity? A. The microbiome produces antibodies that directly attack harmful pathogens. B. The microbiome competes with pathogens for nutrients, limiting their growth. C. The microbiome increases the production of RBC. D. The microbiome reduces the risk of autoimmune diseases.
The microbiome competes with pathogens for nutrients, limiting their growth.
33
A 78-year-old male presents to the clinic today with symptoms of lethargy, mild confusion, and a headache. A basic metabolic panel (BMP) lab blood draw was ordered, and the patient’s sodium came back as 125 mEq/L. Which of the following is the best first course of treatment for this patient’s hyponatremia? Rapid correction of the patient’s hyponatremia. Liberal use of hypertonic saline solutions. Calculation of losses of sodium and water volume. Immediate use of arginine-vasopressin (ADH) receptor antagonist drugs.
Calculation of losses of sodium and water volume.
34
On morning clinical rounds at the hospital, the bedside nurse alerts the team regarding one of the patient’s decompensated medical condition on the unit. The patient is currently breathing rapidly with deep respirations and is also confused. A stat arterial blood gas (ABG) is ordered and comes back with the following results: pH 7.22, PaCO2 26 mmHg, HCO3- 17 mEq/L. What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient? Metabolic acidosis. Respiratory acidosis. Metabolic alkalosis. Respiratory alkalosis.
metabolic acidosis The patient has low pH and bicarbonate. The low PaCO2 compensates for the acidosis, suggesting metabolic acidosis (Adams, 2024).
35
A 52-year-old female comes in today to urgent care and is seen regarding a health issue that has been plaguing her for the past six months. She states that she has had chronic fatigue accompanied by insomnia, as well as body pain and weight gain. Which of the following is a crucial difference that chronic inflammation has that acute inflammation typically doesn’t? A) Presence of redness and warmth. B) Bacteria and debris are cleared from the wound. C) Increased neutrophil infiltration. D) Tissue fibrosis and destruction.
Tissue fibrosis and destruction. Chronic inflammation, as opposed to acute inflammation, is shown to lead to tissue fibrosis and destruction. Acute inflammation has the presence of redness and warmth, increased neutrophil infiltration, and having bacteria and debris cleared from the wound (Rogers & Brashers, 2023, pp. 218-221).
36
A patient has recently been diagnosed with Barrett's esophagus in response to gastric reflux. The nurse practitioner understands that the transformation of one type of tissue to another kind of tissue is related to: Hypertrophy Metaplasia Hyperplasia Atrophy
Metaplasia Rationale: Metaplasia is replacing one mature cell type (epithelial or mesenchymal) with another that can survive in an adverse environment.
37
A mother rushes to the emergency room with her sixteen-year-old son. The teen is notable for a rash on the left arm, facial swelling, and shortness of breath. The mother says, “he was stung by a bee 10 minutes ago.” Vital signs are: BP: 83/50 T: 98.6 P: 120 bpm R: 22, with wheezing and stridor Based on the clinical presentation, what form of hypersensitivity reaction is it? Type I Type II Type III Type IV
Type I Rationale: IgE-mediated reactions occur within minutes to a few hours after exposure to environmental antigens, like pollen, bee venom, nuts, or medication (McCance & Huether, 2024, p. 256). Type II reactions are immune reactions against a specific cell or tissue. An example would be mismatched blood during a blood transfusion that causes lysis of the cell (McCance & Huether, 2024, p.260). In type III reaction, an antibody binds to the soluble antigen released into blood or body fluids. An example would be Reynaud’s phenomenon. The condition precipitates with low temperature and deposits in the capillary beds and peripheral circulation causing pallor and numbness of the tips of the nose, fingers, and toes (McCance & Huether, 2024, p.260) Type IV reactions are mediated by T lymphocytes and not antibodies. The response is delayed (24 to 2 hours) and causes tissue damage. An example would be contact dermatitis, where the lesion occurs only at the contact site. (McCance & Huether, 2024, p. 262).
38
38
The nurse practitioner taps over the facial nerve in front of the patient's ear and notices a strong nose twitch. This finding is related to: Hypophosphatemia Hypercalcemia Hypermagnesemia Hypocalcemia
Hypocalcemia Rationale: Hypocalcemia causes increased excitability. An example of that is the Chvostek sign. Tapping on the facial nerve over the zygomatic arch causes a strong twitch of the nose or lip. (McCance & Huether, 2024, p. 124, Adams, 2024)