Reproductive Flashcards
(36 cards)
Which of the following statements is true as it relates to disorders of the male breast?
A. Gynecomastia results from hormonal imbalance
B. workup for malignancy in unilateral gynecomastia is only indicated with familial hx of BRCA1 and BRCA2 mutation
C. Treatment protocols for male breast cancer differ from female breast cancer because Tamoxifen is contraindicated in male breast cancer
D. Male breast cancers tend to have better prognoses than female breast cancers
Gynecomastia results from hormonal imbalance
Which statement regarding endometriosis is true?
A. As many as 40% of women with infertility have endometriosis
B. As many as 80% of women with infertility have endometriosis
C. Chances of infertility increase with severe disease.
D. Severe pain associated with menstruation is correlated with increase severity of endometriosis
As many as 40% of women with inferitlity have endometriosis
A provider is educating a female client diagnosed with bacterial vaginosis (BV). Which of the following statements from the provider is incorrect?
A. Both you and your husband will need to take an oral course of antibiotics twice daily for one week
B. BV isnt necessarily considered to be a STI even though BV is associated with sex
C. Infectious microorganisms associated with BV can be asymptomatically harbored by both men and women
D. Women with BV whoa re HIV+ are not prescribed different treatment for BV than women who arent HIV+
Both you and your husband will nee to take an oral course of antibiotics twice daily for one week — BV male sex partner does not need treated
Which of the following characteristics of sexual maturation in females is considered the first sign of puberty?
Growth spurt
Menstruation
Breast development
Emotional changes
Breast development
Kenneth is a primary care family nurse practitioner. His patient that is coming in today is a 54 year old male, who has a past medical history of obesity, diabetes mellitus, and hypertension. This patient is coming in with the chief complain of changes in normal urination- hesitancy, straining and poor stream. On assessment, he states that it feels like he is unable to fully empty his bladder, and occasionally experiences incontinence episodes. Kenneth believes his patient developed benign prostatic hyperplasia. Which of the following is this patient at risk for if the diagnosis is accurate?
Urinary tract infections
Bladder calculi
Hydronephrosis
All of the above
None of the above
All of the above
Which of the following statements is true about the human papillomavirus vaccine?
Vaccines are recommended for only females beginning at age 11, up to 26
The HPV vaccine is recommended for pregnant women
The HPV vaccine is effective in in preventing in preventing high-risk HPV types associated with cervical cancer
Vaccinated women do not require a cervical cancer screening at regular intervals
The HPV vaccine is effective in in preventing in preventing high-risk HPV types associated with cervical cancer
All are causes of secondary dysmenorrhea except?
Pelvic inflammatory disease
Excessive prostaglandin synthesis
Endometriosis
Ovarian cyst
Excessive prostaglandin synthesis
A 16 year old male comes to the clinic complaining of a sudden onset of extreme left testicular pain, nausea and vomiting. Upon assessment you find that the patient has testicular swelling, absent cremasteric reflex and a high riding testis on the left side. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Appendiceal torsion
Testicular torsion
Epididymitis
Testicular appendage
Testicular torsion
What STD/STI is the leading cause of preventable infertility and ectopic pregnancy?
HSV 1
Chlamydia
Human Papillomavirus
Syphilis
Chlamydia
A 15-year-old female presents to her primary care provider, accompanied by her mother, for a well-child visit. During the examination, it was discovered that the patient had not yet started her menstrual cycle. The patient and mother denied any ongoing health issues or concerns, but the exam also discovered that the patient has not had development of secondary sex characteristics. The clinician was planning to diagnose the patient with amenorrhea but needed to determine if the condition was primary or secondary. Which of the following choices best distinguishes primary amenorrhea from secondary amenorrhea?
While structural uterine abnormalities can cause secondary amenorrhea, primary amenorrhea is typically caused by a lack of hypothalamic-pituitary-ovarian axis function.
While secondary amenorrhea is typically diagnosed after menstruation stops for three or more months after menarche, primary amenorrhea is typically diagnosed when, by age 15, menstruation has never even occurred.
While secondary amenorrhea occurs before menarche, primary amenorrhea typically occurs after menarche.
While secondary amenorrhea is strongly associated with congenital abnormalities, primary amenorrhea is strongly related to polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS).
While secondary amenorrhea is typically diagnosed after menstruation stops for three or more months after menarche, primary amenorrhea is typically diagnosed when, by age 15, menstruation has never even occurred.
A 22-year-old male presents to the urgent care clinic today for examination, as he has been symptomatic for the past week. His symptoms include burning with pain during urination, as well as purulent discharge from his urethra. He states that he has been sexually active with several female partners over the past several months but does not go into further detail. Based on his presenting symptoms, which of the following STDs are the most likely cause?
Human papillomavirus (HPV).
Syphilis.
Genital Herpes.
Gonorrhea.
Gonorrhea.
A 35-year-old male presents to the emergency department due to painful swelling of his scrotum. The patient reports that this pain and swelling has been developing over the past 48 hours and that he has been having difficulty with urination. On examination, he is found to be febrile (101.4oF) and has a tender, inflamed epididymis. Based on this clinical presentation, what would be the best course of treatment for this patient?
Surgical drainage and IV antivirals.
Scrotal elevation with antifungal therapy.
Antibiotic therapy with accompanying ice therapy.
No treatment is needed, as this condition typically self-resolves.
Antibiotic therapy with accompanying ice therapy.
Autumn, a 20-year-old college student, visits the student health center due to pelvic pain. She reports moderate abdominal and pelvic pain accompanied by dysuria, vaginal discharge, and dyspareunia (pain during sexual intercourse). She notes that the pain worsens with movement, such as walking. Pregnancy has been ruled out. During the pelvic examination, she exhibits mild fever (37.9°C) and tenderness upon cervical movement.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)
B. Vaginitis
C. Bartholinitis
D. Vulvodynia
Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)
A patient presented to the clinic with lesions on the distal penis characterized by indurated, sharply defined, painless, itchy, and bleeding subcutaneous nodules. The diagnosis of granuloma inguinale (donovanosis) was confirmed through microscopic examination revealing Donovan bodies in a smear. Which of the following statements correctly describes granuloma inguinale?
A. Caused by Chlamydia trachomatis, a gram-negative intracellular bacterium, this infection is a leading cause of preventable infertility, ectopic pregnancy, and newborn eye infections and pneumonitis.
B. Caused by Neisseria gonorrhoeae, a gram-negative diplococcus, it can result in both local and systemic manifestations, ranging from uncomplicated to complicated cases in both men and women. The CDC recommends ceftriaxone as the primary treatment.
C. This infection is caused by the anaerobic spirochete Treponema pallidum. Condylomata lata may develop, which are highly contagious. Treatment involves parenteral injection of benzathine penicillin G for all stages.
D. Caused by Klebsiella granulomatis, it can facilitate HIV transmission due to easily bleeding nodules. Antibiotic treatment is required until lesions fully heal, with prolonged follow-up necessary due to possible relapses occurring 6 to 18 months later.
Caused by Klebsiella granulomatis, it can facilitate HIV transmission due to easily bleeding nodules. Antibiotic treatment is required until lesions fully heal, with prolonged follow-up necessary due to possible relapses occurring 6 to 18 months later.
Which of the following statements about male reproductive disorders is correct?
A. Balanitis is an acute inflammation of the testis and is usually unilateral, requiring supportive therapies such as bed rest, antipyretics, analgesics, scrotal support, and hot or cold packs for pain relief.
B. Testicular torsion requires 6 hours from the onset of pain as the window for surgical intervention and testicular salvage.
C. Varicocele is an abnormal collection of fluid between the layers of the tunica vaginalis of the testis, causing significant enlargement of the scrotal sac with a tense, smooth scrotal mass that easily transilluminates and is mostly asymptomatic.
D. Hydrocele is defined as dilated, tortuous veins of the pampiniform plexus, which are the venous sinuses that drain the testicles. This condition is clinically significant as it is one of the most commonly identified causes of abnormal semen analysis.
B. Testicular torsion requires 6 hours from the onset of pain as the window for surgical intervention and testicular salvage.
When conducting a routine pap test on a female patient, the NP must target the ______________zone of the cervix, the area most susceptible to neoplastic changes from HPV.
Pseudocolumnar
Endometrial
Epithelial
Transformation
Transformation– squamocolumnar junction
The following medications are approved to treat PCOS:
Metformin
Spironolactone
Progesterone
None of the above
D is correct. There are no drugs specifically FDA Approved for PCOS. Several drugs are used off-label to help manage symptoms, such as metformin, which improves insulin sensitivity, and spironolactone, which antagonizes testosterone. Progesterone can be used to promote regular menses
Each of the following are known to increase risk of endometrial cancer, except:
Long-term progesterone use
Nulliparous status
Early menarche
Late menopause
Long-term progesterone use
A 25-year-old woman presents to her primary care office with a health history of type 2 diabetes and depression. She states that she and her husband have been trying to conceive for two years; she also mentions that she has had irregular menses since she was 18 years old and has had a history of ovarian cysts. Which condition should you explore further for this patient?
A. Premenstrual Disorder Syndrome
B. Abnormal Uterine Bleeding
C. Polycystic Ovary Syndrome
D. Primary Amenorrhea
Polycystic Ovary Syndrome
A 32-year-old male presents to his primary care physician and states he has a lump on his testicle. After further assessment, there is a palpable lump that is non-tender to the touch. Which condition should we explore further for this patient?
A. Orchitis
B. Testicular Cancer
C. Cryptorchidism
D. Varicocele
Testicular Cancer
An 18-year-old female presented to the primary care office and stated that she was having copious, frothy, and yellow-green discharge. After pelvic examination, you notice small, punctate red marks on the vaginal walls and cervix. You diagnose this patient with trichomoniasis; which of the following would be the first line of treatment for this patient?
A. single PO 2 g dose of Metronidazole
B. Tinidazole 2 g PO 1x
C. Metronidazole vaginal gel
D. Metronidazole 500 mg PO BID for 7 days
Metronidazole 500 mg PO BID for 7 days
All of the following are recommendations to reduce risk fo breast cancer EXCEPT:
A. Dietary fiber intake of 10g/day
B. Regular physical activity
C. Decrease alcohol consumption
D. Use of insulin for DM management
Use of insulin for DM management
Ovarian Cancer is often diagnosed:
A. Early due to abnormal vaginal discharge
B. With acute onset of right or left lower quadrant abdominal pain associated from enlargement of ovaries
C. Late due to vague and generalized abdominal symptoms
D. In relation to BRCA 1 and BRCA 2 gene
Late due to vague and generalized abdominal symptoms
A 14 year old male presents with abrupt onset of unilateral testicular pain, swelling, erythema, with nausea/vomiting and pain in lower abdominal. Patient is most likely experiencing:
A. Orchitis
B. Testicular torsion
C. Epididymitis
D. Testicular Cancer
Testicular torsion
