Ch 07 01

Question 1

1. Which of the following structures is not an aspect of the proximal femur?

a. Intertrochanteric crest
b. Fovea capitis
c. Obturator foramen
d. Lesser trochanter

Answer 1

Answer: c. Obturator foramen

Question 2

2. Which of the following structures is considered to be most inferior or distal?

a. Fovea capitis
b. Lesser trochanter
c. Neck
d. Greater trochanter

Answer 2

Answer: b. Lesser trochanter

Question 3

3. Why must the lower limbs be rotated 15 to 20 degrees internally for AP pelvis projection (nontrauma)?

a. To separate the greater trochanters from the lesser trochanter
b. To place the fovea capitis into a profiled position
c. To open up the femoroacetabular joint
d. To place the femoral necks parallel to the image receptor

Answer 3

Answer: d. To place the femoral necks parallel to the image receptor

Question 4

4. Which bones fuse to form the acetabulum?

a. Ischium and pubis
b. Ilium and ischium
c. Pubis, ilium, and sacrum
d. Ischium, pubis, and ilium

Answer 4

Answer: d. Ischium, pubis, and ilium

Question 5

5. Which of the following bony structures cannot be palpated?

a. Ischial spine
b. ASIS
c. Ischial tuberosity
d. Symphysis pubis

Answer 5

Answer: a. Ischial spine

Question 6

6. Which bone of the pelvis forms the anterior inferior aspect?

a. Ilium
b. Ischium
c. Pubis
d. Sacrum

Answer 6

Answer: c. Pubis

Question 7

7. The lesser sciatic notch is an aspect of the:

a. ilium
b. ischium
c. sacrum
d. pubis

Answer 7

Answer: b. ischium

Question 8

8. The sacroiliac joints are classified as _____ joints with _____ mobility.

a. cartilaginous; amphiarthrodial
b. synovial; irregular gliding
c. cartilaginous; synarthrodial
d. fibrous; amphiarthrodial

Answer 8

Answer: b. synovial; irregular gliding

Question 9

9. The symphysis pubis provides limited movement during pelvic trauma and during:

a. walking and running.
b. flexing and extending.
c. labor and delivery.
d. voiding.

Answer 9

Answer: c. labor and delivery

Question 10

10. The two bony landmarks that are palpated using the hip localization method are the:

a. ischial spine and the symphysis pubis.
b. symphysis pubis and the greater trochanter.
c. ASIS and the crest of ilium.
d. ASIS and the symphysis pubis.

Answer 10

Answer: d. ASIS and the symphysis pubis

Question 11

11. Using the hip localization method, the femoral head can be located:

a. 1 inch (2.5 cm) below the midpoint of the imaginary line between the two bony landmarks.
b. 1 1/2 inches (4 cm) below the midpoint of the imaginary line between the two bony landmarks.
c. 2 1/2 inches (6 to 7 cm) below the midpoint of the imaginary line between the two bony landmarks.
d. at the level of the symphysis pubis.

Answer 11

Answer: b. 1 1/2 inches (4 cm) below the midpoint of the imaginary line between the two bony landmarks.

Question 12

12. Select the correct gender to correspond with the following pelvic characteristics. More oval (anthropoid) or heart-shaped (android) pelvic inlet:

a. Male
b. Female

Answer 12

Answer: a. Male

Question 13

13. Select the correct gender to correspond with the following pelvic characteristics. Wider and shallow (platypelloid) general shape of pelvis:

a. Male
b. Female

Answer 13

Answer: b. Female

Question 14

14. Select the correct gender to correspond with the following pelvic characteristics. An 80- to 85-degree angle of pubic arch.

a. Male
b. Female

Answer 14

Answer: b. Female

Question 15

15. Select the correct gender to correspond with the following pelvic characteristics. Gynecoid pelvic inlet.

a. Male
b. Female

Answer 15

Answer: b. Female

Question 16

16. Select the correct gender to correspond with the following pelvic characteristics. Narrower, deeper and less flared shape of pelvis with android pelvic inlet.

a. Male
b. Female

Answer 16

Answer: a. Male

Question 17

17. Select the correct gender to correspond with the following pelvic characteristics. Ischial spines more protruding into the pelvic cavity.

a. Male
b. Female

Answer 17

Answer: a. Male

Question 18

24. Gonadal shielding of the male patient for the AP pelvis projection requires that the top of the shield is not extended above the level of:

a. the ASIS.
b. the ischial spine.
c. the inferior margin of the symphysis pubis.
d. none of the options; gonadal shielding cannot be used due to possible covering of pertinent anatomy.

Answer 18

Answer: c. the inferior margin of the symphysis pubis

Question 19

25. A common condition of the femur that develops in elderly patients, leading to frequent fractures of the hip (proximal femur), is:

a. congenital hip dysplasia.
b. Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease.
c. avascular necrosis.
d. developmental dysplasia of the hip.

Answer 19

Answer: c. avascular necrosis

Question 20

26. Which of the following imaging modalities can be performed on a newborn to assess hip joint stability during movement?

a. CT
b. Sonography
c. MRI
d. Nuclear medicine

Answer 20

Answer: b. Sonography

Question 21

27. Which of the following conditions will produce the radiographic sign referred to as “bamboo spine”?

a. Osteoarthritis
b. Chondrosarcoma
c. Metastatic carcinoma
d. Ankylosing spondylitis

Answer 21

Answer: d. Ankylosing spondylitis

Question 22

28. Which of the following pathologic conditions often occurs in males older than the age of 45 years?

a. Developmental dysplasia of the hip
b. Slipped capital femoral epiphysis
c. Chondrosarcoma
d. Osteoporosis

Answer 22

Answer: c. Chondrosarcoma

Question 23

29. Which of the following pathologic conditions is a common type of aseptic or ischemic necrosis?

a. Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease
b. Ankylosing spondylitis
c. Metastatic carcinoma
d. Osteoarthritis

Answer 23

Answer: a. Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease

Question 24

30. Which of the following conditions will produce shortening of the epiphyses but widening of the epiphyseal plate?

a. Osteoarthritis
b. Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease
c. Slipped capital femur
d. Chondrosarcoma

Answer 24

Answer: c. Slipped capital femur

Question 25

31. The use of the 80- to 90-kVp technique (as opposed to 70 kVp) with a corresponding mAs change for an AP pelvis projection will result in: a. increased radiographic contrast. b. improved spatial resolution. c. reduction in gonadal dose. d. none of the options; the difference is not measurable.

Answer 25

Answer: c. reduction in gonadal dose

Question 26

32. Where is the CR placed for an AP projection of the pelvis? a. 1 inch (2.5 cm) above the symphysis pubis b. At the level of the ASIS c. At the level of the iliac crest d. Midway between the ASIS and the symphysis pubis

Answer 26

Answer: d. Midway between the ASIS and the symphysis pubis

Question 27

33. What is the amount of abduction of the femurs recommended for an AP bilateral frog-leg (modified Cleaves) projection? a. 10 to 15 degrees b. 50 to 60 degrees c. 40 to 45 degrees d. 90 degrees

Answer 27

Answer: c. 40 to 45 degrees

Question 28

34. Which of the following positions will best demonstrate signs of developmental dysplasia of the hip? a. Posterior oblique (Judet method) b. Axiolateral, inferosuperior (Danelius-Miller method) c. Taylor method d. Bilateral frog-leg method

Answer 28

Answer: d. Bilateral frog-leg method

Question 29

35. Which of the following positions will best demonstrate the posterior (ilioischial) column and anterior (iliopubic) column of the pelvis? a. Posterior oblique (Judet method) b. AP axial (Taylor method) c. RPO and LPO projections d. Modified axiolateral (Clements-Nakayama method)

Answer 29

Answer: a. Posterior oblique (Judet method)

Question 30

36. Which one of the following projections will best demonstrate a lateral oblique view of the femoral head and neck for the patient with limited movement in both lower limbs? a. Teufel b. Axiolateral (inferosuperior) projection c. AP axial (Taylor) d. Modified axiolateral (Clements-Nakayama)

Answer 30

Answer: d. Modified axiolateral (Clements-Nakayama)

Question 31

37. What type of CR angle must be used for an AP axial (Taylor method) “outlet” projection for a male patient? a. 20- to 35-degree caudad b. 15- to 20-degree cephalad c. 20- to 35-degree cephalad d. 0 degree (CR perpendicular to the image receptor)

Answer 31

Answer: c. 20- to 35-degree cephalad

Question 32

38. How much rotation of the body is required for posterior axial oblique projection for acetabulum (Teufel method)? a. 45 degrees b. 35 to 40 degrees c. 60 to 70 degrees d. 25 to 30 degrees

Answer 32

Answer: b. 35 to 40 degrees

Question 33

39. What type of CR angle is required for the posterior axial oblique projection for the acetabulum (Teufel method)? a. 12-degree cephalad b. 10-degree cephalad c. 20- to 25-degree caudad d. 15-degree cephalad

Answer 33

Answer: a. 12-degree cephalad

Question 34

40. Which of the following projections would be best for a patient with limited movement of both lower limbs (in addition to the AP pelvis)? a. Modified axiolateral (Clements-Nakayama method) b. Axiolateral (inferosuperior) c. Anterior oblique (Teufel method) d. AP axial (Taylor method)

Answer 34

Answer: a. Modified axiolateral (Clements-Nakayama method)

Question 35

41. The proper name of the method used for the unilateral frog-leg projection is the _____ method. a. Danelius-Miller b. modified Cleaves c. Teufel d. Taylor

Answer 35

Answer: b. modified Cleaves