Ch 09 01 Flashcards

(38 cards)

1
Q
  1. The intervertebral foramina of the lumbar spine are located at an angle of _____ in relation to the midsagittal plane.

a. 45 degrees
b. 30 to 35 degrees
c. 70 to 75 degrees
d. 90 degrees

A

Answer: d. 90 degrees

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2
Q
  1. The small section of bone found between the superior and inferior articular processes of the lumbar spine is termed:

a. pillar
b. transverse processes
c. articular facets
d. pars interarticularis

A

Answer: d. pars interarticularis

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3
Q
  1. The zygapophyseal joints of the upper lumbar vertebrae are _____ in relationship to the midsagittal plane.

a. 30 degrees
b. 50 degrees
c. 45 degrees
d. 90 degrees

A

Answer: b. 50 degrees

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4
Q
  1. The anterior projecting bony process of the sacrum that forms part of the inlet of the true pelvis is the:

a. promontory of the sacrum
b. body of S1
c. apex of coccyx
d. sacral foramina

A

a. promontory of the sacrum

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5
Q
  1. Another term for the sacral horns is the:

a. base of the sacrum
b. promontory of the sacrum
c. cornu of the sacrum
d. median sacral crest

A

c. cornu of the sacrum

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6
Q
  1. Which specific aspect of the sacrum articulates with the ilium to form the sacroiliac joint?

a. Promontory
b. Cornu
c. Auricular surface
d. Inferior articular processes

A

c. Auricular surface

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7
Q
  1. Which one of the following structures of the sacrum is considered to be the most posterior?

a. Median sacral crest
b. Promontory
c. Superior articular processes
d. Spinous processes

A

a. Median sacral crest

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8
Q
  1. What is the term for the superior aspect of the coccyx?

a. Base
b. Apex
c. Superior margin
d. Sacrococcygeal junction

A

a. Base

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9
Q
  1. What is the joint classification of the zygapophyseal joints?

a. Cartilaginous/amphiarthrodial
b. Synovial/diarthrodial
c. Fibrous/synarthrodial
d. Symphyses/amphiarthrodial

A

b. Synovial/diarthrodial

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10
Q
  1. The intervertebral joints in the lumbar spine are classified as:

a. synovial/diarthrodial
b. fibrous/synarthrodial
c. cartilaginous/amphiarthrodial
d. fibrous/amphiarthrodial

A

c. cartilaginous/amphiarthrodial

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11
Q
  1. What type of joint movement occurs with the zygapophyseal joints?

a. Ginglymus
b. Plane
c. Ellipsoidal
d. Pivot

A

b. Plane

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12
Q
  1. Which of the following topographic landmarks corresponds with the L4-5 vertebral level?

a. Xiphoid process
b. Lower costal margin
c. Anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS)
d. Iliac crest

A

d. Iliac crest

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13
Q
  1. Which of the following structures is located at the level of the ASIS?

a. S1-2 (sacral segments)
b. Tip of coccyx
c. L5-S1 joint space
d. L4-5 joint space

A

a. S1-2 (sacral segments)

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14
Q
  1. Which aspect of the Scottie dog is the inferior articular process?

a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D

A

d. D

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15
Q
  1. Which aspect of the Scottie dog is the superior articular process?

a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
e. E

A

e. E

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16
Q
  1. Which aspect of the Scottie dog is the transverse process?

a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D

17
Q
  1. Which aspect of the Scottie dog is the pedicle?

a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D

18
Q
  1. The average degree of rotation required to demonstrate the L3-4 zygapophyseal joints is:

a. 50 degrees
b. 30 degrees
c. 20 to 25 degrees
d. 45 degrees

A

d. 45 degrees

19
Q
  1. Why should the hips and knees be flexed for an anteroposterior (AP) projection of the lumbar spine?

a. For patient comfort
b. To reduce the lumbar curvature
c. To demonstrate any possible spondylolisthesis
d. Both for patient comfort and to reduce the lumbar curvature

A

d. Both for patient comfort and to reduce the lumbar curvature

20
Q
  1. Which of the following should be done to reduce scatter radiation from reaching the image receptor for the lateral lumbar and sacrum/coccyx projections?

a. Use a lower kVp.
b. Place a lead mat on the tabletop behind the patient’s lower back and pelvis.
c. Increase the source–image receptor distance (SID) to 44 inches (110 cm).
d. Use a smaller image receptor.

A

b. Place a lead mat on the tabletop behind the patient’s lower back and pelvis.

21
Q
  1. Where is the central ray (CR) centered for an AP projection of the lumbar spine with a 14- × 17-inch (35- × 43-cm) IR?

a. At the iliac crest
b. At the ASIS
c. 1 to 1.5 inches (2.5 to 3 cm) above the iliac crest
d. At the lower costal margin

A

a. At the iliac crest

22
Q
  1. An average of _____ segment(s) make up the adult coccyx.

a. one
b. four
c. five
d. three

23
Q
  1. Which of the following statements is NOT true about the lateral L5-S1 projection?

a. If the waist is not supported, the CR is frequently angled 5- to 8-degree caudad.
b. A lead mat should be placed on the tabletop behind the patient, and there should be close collimation to improve image quality.
c. A 14- × 17-inch (35- × 43-cm) IR is required.
d. The CR is centered 1.5 inches (3 to 4 cm) inferior to the iliac crest and 2 inches (5 cm) posterior to the ASIS.

A

c. A 14- × 17-inch (35- × 43-cm) IR is required.

24
Q
  1. Which labeled structure in the figure is the superior articular process?

a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
e. E

25
25. Which labeled structure is the pars interarticularis? a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E
C
26
26. Which labeled structure is the inferior articular process? a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E
B
27
27. Which labeled structure is the spinous process? a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E
A
28
28. What CR angulation should be used for an AP axial projection of the L5-S1 joint space on a male patient? a. 20-degree cephalad b. 30-degree cephalad c. 35-degree caudad d. 40- to 45-degree cephalad
b. 30-degree cephalad
29
29. A key advantage of a posteroanterior (PA) projection taken during a pediatric scoliosis study as compared with the AP projection is that it reduces: a. breast dose by 90%. b. female ovarian dose by 25% to 30%. c. breast dose by 15% to 20%. d. breast and thyroid dose by 150%.
a. breast dose by 90%.
30
30. Where is the CR centered for an AP axial projection of the sacrum? a. At the level of the ASIS b. At the level of the symphysis pubis c. 1 to 1 1/2 inches (3 to 4 cm) below the iliac crest d. 2 inches (5 cm) above the symphysis pubis
d. 2 inches (5 cm) above the symphysis pubis
31
31. What type of CR angulation is required for an AP axial projection of the coccyx? a. 10-degree caudad b. 15-degree cephalad c. 10-degree cephalad d. Perpendicular to the cassette
a. 10-degree caudad
32
32. The radiographic appearance on an oblique lumbar spine in which the neck of the Scottie dog appears broken suggests the presence of: a. spondylolisthesis. b. spina bifida. c. a compression fracture. d. spondylolysis.
d. spondylolysis.
33
33. A destructive type of lesion with irregular margins and increased density is an indication of possible: a. osteoblastic type of metastases. b. osteolytic type of metastases. c. spondylolisthesis. d. spondylolysis.
a. osteoblastic type of metastases.
34
34. A fracture through the vertebral body and posterior elements caused by lap seat belts during an auto accident involving sudden deceleration is a _____ fracture. a. compression b. Jefferson c. teardrop burst d. Chance
d. Chance
35
35. Which of the following is a condition of unknown cause in which calcification of bony ridges between vertebrae occurs, creating a lack of mobility with a “bamboo” appearance? a. Scheuermann disease b. Ankylosing spondylitis c. Spondylolisthesis d. Osteoblastic type of metastases
b. Ankylosing spondylitis
36
36. An anterior wedging of vertebrae with a loss of body height but rarely causing neurologic symptoms is called: a. a teardrop burst fracture. b. a Chance fracture. c. a compression fracture. d. spondylolysis.
c. a compression fracture
37
37. Sciatic type of pain resulting from a “slipped disk” indicates: a. spondylolisthesis. b. herniated nucleus pulposus. c. ankylosing spondylitis. d. spina bifida.
b. herniated nucleus pulposus
38
38. An abnormal lateral curvature of the spine is a congenital condition termed: a. spina bifida. b. spondylolisthesis. c. lordosis. d. scoliosis.
d. scoliosis