Ch 1 Flashcards
(123 cards)
1
Q
What is assessment
A
Process of collecting valid and reliable info
Integrating it
Making a judgment decision from the info
2
Q
What is the outcome of an assessment
A
Usually a diagnosis
3
Q
What term is interchangeable with assessment?
A
Evaluation
4
Q
What is a diagnosis
A
Clinical decision regarding the presence or absence of a disorder
5
Q
Principles of foundational integrity of useful assessment
A
- Thorough
- Variety of assessment types
- Valid - assesses intended skills
- Reliable - reflects client’s abilities and disabilities & repeated assessment has same results
- Tailored to the individual client, using age, gender, skill levels and ethnocultural background
6
Q
7 steps to complete assessment
A
- Obtain history
- Interview the client, family/caregivers
- Evaluate structure and function of orofacial mechanism
- Evaluate client’s functional skills in language, articulation, fluency, voice, resonance, and/or cognition. Dysphasia: evaluate chewing and swallowing
- Screen client’s hearing or obtain evaluation info
- Analyze assessment info to form diagnosis/conclusions, prognosis, and recommendations
- Share findings
7
Q
What are assessment methods?
A
- Norm referenced tests (NRT)
- Criterion-referenced tests
- Authentic assessment approach
8
Q
Are norm referenced tests always standardized?
A
Yes!
9
Q
What are norm-referenced tests (NRT)?
A
Standardized tests used for evaluating clients for articulation or language disorders
Most commercially available tests used by SLPs are NRT.
10
Q
What is the purpose of norm-referenced tests?
A
To compare a client’s performance to a larger group’s performance
The larger group is called the normative group.
11
Q
How is normal distribution typically depicted?
A
As a bell-shaped curve.
12
Q
What is the normative group?
A
The larger group used for performance comparison in NRT.
13
Q
What determines the peak of the bell curve in a normal distribution?
A
The mean.
14
Q
What does the mean represent in the context of a normal distribution?
A
The average performance.
15
Q
What determines the width or spread of the bell curve?
A
The standard deviation (SD).
16
Q
What does standard deviation (SD) represent?
A
The distribution away from the group average.
17
Q
What score can be derived from a norm-referenced test?
A
Z-score, percentile rank, and Stanine.
18
Q
What is a Z-score also known as?
A
Standard score.
19
Q
What is a Stanine?
A
Test scores on a 9-point scale.
20
Q
True or False: The standard deviation indicates how closely scores cluster around the mean.
A
True.
21
Q
Advantages of NRT
A
-objective
-compare client skills to larger population
-efficient administration
-widely recognized, allowing discussion among professionals
-methods specified in test manuals
-3rd party and insurance prefer
22
Q
Disadvantages of NRT
A
-do not permit individualization
-static test - what client knows, not how they learn
-test setting unnatural setting
-assess isolated skills without contributing factors
-if not administered exactly as intended then results are not reliable
-materials not appropriate for all populations
23
Q
What do criterion-referenced tests identify?
A
What a client can and cannot do compared to a predefined criterion
24
Q
True or False: Criterion-referenced tests compare a client’s performance to others.
A
False
25
What is assumed about the performance level in criterion-referenced tests?
A certain performance level must be met for a behavior to be acceptable
26
What is considered deviant in criterion-referenced tests?
Performance below the accepted level
27
What is the outcome of a client on a criterion-referenced speech and language screening instrument?
Client passes or fails
28
When are criterion-referenced tests most often used?
When evaluating clients for neurogenic disorders, fluency disorders, and voiced disorders
29
Can criterion-referenced tests assess aspects of articulation or language?
Yes
30
True or False: All criterion-referenced tests are standardized.
False
31
Advantages of criterion referenced tests
-objective
-efficient administration
-widely recognized, can discuss with professionals
-3rd parties and insurance prefer
-if non-standardized then some opportunity for individualization
32
Disadvantages of Criterion-Referenced tests
-test setting unnatural
-assesses intended skills isolated skills without contributing factors
-if standardized:
Not individualized
Have to administer as instructed or not valid and reliable info Integrating
33
What is the authentic assessment approach?
An approach that identifies what a client can and cannot do
## Footnote
It is also referred to as alternative assessment or non-traditional assessment.
34
What is emphasized in the authentic assessment approach?
Contextualized test stimuli
## Footnote
This results in a more realistic and natural test environment than traditional assessment approaches.
35
Give an example of authentic assessment.
Observe client in a real-life setting, such as a classroom environment
36
Is authentic assessment ongoing?
Yes
37
When does the examiner evaluate the client in authentic assessment?
During diagnostic and treatment phases
38
What type of information is maintained in a client portfolio?
Assessment information across time and in varied settings
39
What types of tests are documented in the client portfolio?
Standardized tests, nonstandardized tests, and treatment tasks
40
What opportunity does authentic assessment provide for the client?
To self-monitor and self-evaluate
41
What is required from the clinician when using the authentic assessment approach?
More clinical skills, experience, and creativity
42
Why does the clinician manipulate the testing environment?
To elicit desired client behavior
43
Recommended strategies in authentic assessment
Systematic observation
Real-life simulations
Language sampling
Structured symbolic play
Short answer and extended answer responses
Self-monitoring and self-assessment
Use of anectodal notes and checklists
Videotaping
Audio recording
Involvement of caregivers and other professionals
44
Advantages of authentic assessment approach
Natural setting
Client engages in self-evaluation and monitoring
Individualization
Flexibility in assessment design
45
Disadvantages of authentic assessment approach
May lack objectivity
Reliability and validity less assured
High level of clinical skill and experience
Not efficient
May be impractical
3rd parties and others may not approve
46
Purpose of dynamic assessment
Form of authentic assessment
Assessment client’s learning potential based on ability to modify responses after clinician provides teaching assistance
What can client do alone?
What can the client do with help?
47
What does dynamic assessment approach use for method
Test-teach-retest
Mediated learning experience
48
When is dynamic assessment useful
When assessing clients from culturally and linguistically diverse background
Assists in distinguishing between language difference and disorder
49
What is dynamic assessment used for?
Determining baseline skills
Identify appropriate goals and intervention strategies
50
What is psychometric?
Measurement of human traits, abilities, and certain processes
51
Types of validity
Face validity
Content validity
construct validity
Criterion validity
52
What is face validity
Test looks like it evaluates the skill it claims to assess
53
What is content validity
Test contents is representative of the content domain of the skill being assessed
54
What is construct validity?
Test measures theoretical construct that it claims to measure
55
Criterion validity:
Concurrent - tests validity in comparison to widely accepted standard
Predictive - tests ability to predict performance in another situation or at a later time
56
What is reliability in psychometric principles?
Results of the test are replicable
## Footnote
Reliability indicates the consistency of test results across different administrations or evaluators.
57
What is test-retest reliability?
Test's stability over time; same test is administered multiple times to the same group of persons and the scores are compared
## Footnote
This type of reliability assesses whether test scores remain consistent across different time points.
58
What does split-half reliability measure?
Test's internal consistency; scores from one half of test correlate with scores from other half of test
## Footnote
It evaluates whether different parts of the same test yield similar results.
59
Define rater reliability.
Level of agreement among individuals rating a test; single test administration that is scored multiple times
## Footnote
Rater reliability is crucial for ensuring that test scores are not dependent on who is scoring them.
60
What are the two types of rater reliability?
* Intrarater reliability
* Interrater reliability
## Footnote
Intrarater reliability assesses consistency from the same rater over time, while interrater reliability measures agreement between different raters.
61
What is intrarater reliability?
Established if results are consistent when the same person rates the test on more than one occasion
## Footnote
This ensures that a single rater's scoring is stable over time.
62
What is interrater reliability?
Established if results are consistent when more than one person rates the test
## Footnote
This type of reliability checks the agreement among different raters.
63
What does alternate form reliability refer to?
Test's correlation coefficient with a similar test
## Footnote
It involves administering two different forms of the same test to the same group and comparing the results.
64
What is the purpose of administering two forms of a test?
To compare results for both test sets
## Footnote
This helps in assessing the reliability of the test across different versions.
65
What is meant by 'Standardized Administration' in testing?
Administer according to testing protocol
66
What should be done before administering a standardized test?
Read manual and protocols
67
What specific directions must be followed in standardized testing?
Wording of prompts
cues allowed or disallowed
repetitions allowed or disallowed
time restrictions
68
What is the significance of normative scores in testing?
not valid if the client is not represented in the normative group
69
What should be ensured when administering a test?
Follow standardization
70
Fill in the blank: ___________ are not valid for a client who is not reflected in the normative sample.
Normative scores
71
What should practitioners do prior to an actual assessment?
Practice administering the entire test according to standardized methods
72
What is chronological age?
Exact age of person in years, months, and days
Allows clinician to convert raw data into meaningful scores
73
What is the basal in standardized test administration?
Starting point for test administration and scoring
The manual will give the starting point based on the client’s age
74
How is the basal established?
By a certain number of consecutively correct responses
## Footnote
If the basal cannot be determined, test items before the starting point are administered backward until the required number of correct responses is achieved.
75
What is the ceiling in standardized test administration?
Ending point of test administration
## Footnote
The test ceiling is stated in the manual.
76
How is the ceiling determined?
By a certain number of consecutively incorrect responses
## Footnote
This helps define where the test administration should stop.
77
What is the purpose of using basal and ceiling in testing?
To use the most relevant testing material and improve efficiency
## Footnote
This targeted approach reduces unnecessary testing.
78
Do basals and ceilings vary by test?
Yes, they vary by test
## Footnote
Different tests can have different criteria for establishing basals and ceilings.
79
Can subtests within a test have different basal and ceiling criteria?
Yes, subtests can have different basal and ceiling criteria
## Footnote
This allows for more tailored assessment within the same test framework.
80
Do all tests and subtests have basals and ceilings?
No, not all tests or subtests have basals and ceilings
## Footnote
Some tests are designed to be administered in their entirety without these criteria.
81
What is an accommodation
Minor adjustments to a testing situation that DO NOT result in a change in the test’s standardization procedures
82
What is a modification
Changes to testing procedures
Findings are NOT valid and norm-referenced scores CANNOT be applied
83
What is considered below average
-1.5 to -2.0 standard deviations (SD) below test MEAN
84
What is a raw score?
Based on the number of correct or incorrect responses
## Footnote
Some tests award multiple points for correct responses.
85
What needs to be done for a raw score to be meaningful?
Must be converted to other scores or ratings
86
What does a standard score reflect?
Performance compared to average and the normal distribution.
87
How do test developers calculate the standard score?
Calculating the average of a normative sample and assigning it a value.
88
What is the most common average for standard scores?
100 with a standard deviation (SD) of 15.
89
What score range is considered significantly below average?
Generally -1.5 to -2.0 standard deviations (SDs) below the test mean.
90
Fill in the blank: A raw score is based on the number of _______ or incorrect responses.
correct
91
True or False: A raw score will always provide an accurate assessment of test performance.
False
92
What are scaled scores?
Scores that reflect performance compared to a normative sample
## Footnote
Scaled scores do not necessarily follow a normal distribution.
93
Do scaled scores follow a normal distribution?
No, they do not necessarily follow a normal distribution
## Footnote
This means 50% of individuals in the sample group do not necessarily fall above or below average.
94
What is the purpose of scaled scores?
To allow examiner to compare abilities of examinee to appropriate normative sample
## Footnote
Normative samples are defined by test designers in terms of gender, age, ethnicity, etc.
95
What is a Z-score?
A score that allows comparison of a client's score to a normative sample
## Footnote
It indicates how many standard deviations the raw score is from the test mean.
96
What does a Z-score tell us?
Shows difference b/w client and average score
Shows score on bell curve continuum
97
Fill in the blank: Scaled scores allow examiners to compare abilities of examinees to appropriate _______.
[normative sample]
98
What does percentile rank show?
The percentage of individuals scoring at or below a particular score
## Footnote
This allows comparison of a client's score to the normal distribution.
99
At what percentile does clinical cause for concern generally arise?
Near the bottom 7% of the normal distribution.
100
What is the 50th percentile also known as?
The median.
101
What does it mean if a client scores in the 50th percentile?
The client scored as well as or better than 50% of the individuals in the normative sample.
102
What scale is used for standardized test scores?
A 9-unit scale.
103
What score describes average performance on a 9-unit scale?
Score of 5.
104
How are stanine units distributed across the curve?
Except for 1 and 9, each stanine unit is distributed equally.
105
What is the most common scoring on stanine
4, 5,6 - 54% of the time
106
What percentage of individuals score stanines of 1 or 9?
8%.
107
What is a confidence interval (CI)
Provides a range of reliable scores
Represents degree of certainty that statistical values obtained are true
Many tests us CI of 95%
108
Age equivalence or grade equivalence scores
-MOST MISLEADING
-LEAST USEFULE
-it is the average raw score for age/grade
-cannot use to determine how student performed
Does not take normal distribution into account
109
What does HIPAA stand for?
Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act
110
What does HIPAA allow regarding health insurance coverage?
Continuation and transfer of health insurance coverage after job loss or change
111
What does HIPAA mandate for the electronic transmission of health records?
Industry-wide standards
112
What is a major requirement of HIPAA affecting SLPs?
Healthcare providers must obtain a National Provider Identifier (NPI)
113
How must protected health information be handled?
Confidentially
114
What types of information does HIPAA apply to?
Oral, electronic, AND paper information
115
What must be followed according to HIPAA regarding healthcare transactions?
National standards for electronic healthcare transactions
116
What is meant by 'accounting of disclosures' under HIPAA?
A record of all instances when a client's information is shared
117
Who must comply with HIPAA rules besides clinicians?
Individuals who manage healthcare records on behalf of the provider
118
Who developed the Code of Fair Testing Practices in Education?
The Joint Committee on Testing Practices
## Footnote
This committee includes sponsorship from various professional groups.
119
Which professional groups sponsor the Joint Committee on Testing Practices?
* American Psychological Association
* National Council on Measurement in Education
* American Speech-Language-Hearing Association (ASHA)
## Footnote
These groups contribute to the guidelines for fair testing practices.
120
What is the primary purpose of the Code of Fair Testing Practices in Education?
To provide guidelines for commercially available and standardized tests.
121
What are the two parts of the Code of Fair Testing Practices?
* For test developers and publishers
* For those who administer and use the tests.
122
What are some examples of an accommodation
Use of large-print version of visual stimuli
Aide may record client’s response verbatim for client
123
Guidlelines for those who administer and use tests
1. Select appropriate test
2. Administer ands core tests
3. Report and interpret test results
4. Inform test takers
