Ch. 1 - 3 Flashcards
(138 cards)
1
Q
On page 5, Any substance that jumps out of its container when something goes wrong and hurts or harms the things it touches is called what?
A
Hazardous Materials
2
Q
On page 6, ____ are primarily created through an act of congress, by an individual state legislatures or by local government bodies.
A
Laws
3
Q
On page 6, ___, sometimes called rules, are created by federal or state agencies as a method of providing guidelines for complying with a law that was enacted through legislative action.
A
Regulation
4
Q
On page 6, _______ are standards and recommended practices developed through an open, democratic, consensus-based process.
A
Voluntary Consensus Standard
5
Q
On page 6, when a federal, state, or municipal government adopts a consensus standard by reference, the document becomes a _____.
A
Regulation
6
Q
On page 6, the law that establishes a framework for the proper management and disposal of all waste materials is called what?
A. The Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation and Liability Act (CERCLA)
B. The Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA)
C. Superfund Amendments and Reauthorization Act of 1986 (SARA)
D. The Clean Air Act (CAA)
E. Oil Pollution Act of 1990 (OPA)
A
Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA)
7
Q
On page 6, known as superfund, this law addresses hazardous substance releases into the environment and clean-up of inactive hazardous waste disposal sites. It also requires those individuals responsible for the release of the hazardous materials. This act is called what?
A. The Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation and Liability Act (CERCLA)
B. The Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA)
C. Superfund Amendments and Reauthorization Act of 1986 (SARA)
D. The Clean Air Act (CAA)
E. Oil Pollution Act of 1990 (OPA)
A
The Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation and Liability Act (CERCLA)
8
Q
On page 6, this act amended and reauthorized the CERCLA act. It established a national baseline with regard to hazmat, planning, community right to know, preparedness, training and response.
A
Superfund Amendments and Reauthorization Act of 1986 (SARA)
9
Q
On page 6, SARA title III is known as the:
A
Emergency Planning and Community Right to Know Act (EPCRA)
10
Q
On page 7, SARA Title _____, is the primary federal legislation that directly affects the local hazardous materials emergency preparedness program.
A
SARA Title III
11
Q
On page 7, _________ also known as HAZWOPER, this federal regulation was issued under the authority of SARA Title I.
A
Hazardous Waste Operations and Emergency Response (29 CFR 1910 . 120)
12
Q
On page 10, Hazard Communication Regulation (___ CFR _________) HAZCOM is a federal regulation that requires hazardous materials manufacturers and handlers to develop written SDS on specific types of hazardous chemicals.
A
29 CFR 1910 . 1200
13
Q
On page 10, Risk management programs consist of 3 elements:
A
- Hazard assessment of the facility
- Prevention program
- Emergency Response Considerations
14
Q
On page 10, _________ study is the most popular method of hazard analysis used within the petroleum and chemical industries.
A
HAZOP (Hazard Operability study)
15
Q
On page 14, 4 key elements in a hazardous materials management system approach:
A
Planning and Preparedness
Prevention
Response
Clean up and recovery
16
Q
On page 14, the ability to develop an implement an effective hazmat management plan depends upon two elements:
A
Hazard analysis
Contingency emergency planning
17
Q
On page 16, 4 components of a hazards analysis program:
A
- Hazard identification
- Vulnerability analysis
- Risk analysis
- Emergency response resources evaluation
18
Q
On page 17, the emergency management planning process steps are:
A
- Form a collaborative planning team
- Understand the situation
- Determine the goals and objectives
- Plan development
- Plan, Preparation, Review, Approve
- Plan implementation and Maintenance
19
Q
On page 19, historically, the ERG is revised and published on a ___ year cycle.
A
3 year cycle
20
Q
On page 26, a _________ can be defined as the release, or potential release, of a hazardous materials emergency preparedness program.
A
Hazardous Materials Incident
21
Q
On page 26, OSHA 1910.120 is the _____ of the land. NFPA 472 is a _____ consensus standard.
A
LAW; VOLUNTARY
22
Q
On page 26, hazmat prevention activities include:
A
- Hazmat process, container design, and construction standards
- Inspection and enforcement
- Public education
- Handling, notification, and reporting requirements
23
Q
On page 28, which phrase is defined in EPA 40 CFR 355?
A. Dangerous Goods
B. Clean Air Act
C. Extremely Hazardous Substances
D. Local Emergency Planning Committee
A
Extremely Hazardous Substances
24
Q
On page 32, ____ is defined as the ability of a substance to cause injury to a biological tissue.
A
Toxicity
25
On page 32, the health hazard equation is:
Exposure + Toxicity = Health Hazard
26
On page 33, dose =
Concentration x Time
27
On page 33, signs and symptoms of acute effects may be immediate or may not be evident for ___ to ___ hours after the exposure.
24 - 72 hours
28
On page 33 responders can be exposed to hazardous materials by the following means:
```
Inhalation
Ingestion
Direct Contact
Skin Absorption
Injection
```
29
On page 33, _____ is the most common exposure route and often the most damaging.
Inhalation
30
On page 35, 7 types of harm:
Thermal
Mechanical
Poisonous
Corrosive
Asphyxiation
Radiation
Etiological
31
On page 35, _______ break down fatty skin tissue and penetrate deeply.
Bases/Caustics
32
On page 35, _____ generally cause greater surface tissue damage while _____ produce deeper, slower healing burns.
Acids; bases
33
On page 35, ______ asphyxiants act on the body by displacing or reducing the oxygen in the air for normal breathing.
Simple Asphyxiants
34
On page 35, _______ disturb the normal body processes that control respiration.
Chemical asphyxiants
35
On page 35, _________ radiation, such as microwaves and lasers, may also create potential harm in certain emergency situations.
Nonionizing
36
On page 35, events created by uncontrolled exposures to living microorganisms is called what type of harm?
Etiological
37
On page 36, 4 categories of factors that influence toxicity:
1. Concentration or dose
2. Rate of absorption
3. Rate of detoxification
4. Rate of excretion
38
On page 36, the concentration of an ingested, absorbed, or injected substance which results in the death of 50% of the test population. Expressed in mg/kg. This is called what?
Lethal Dose, 50% kill (LD 50%)
39
On page 36, the concentration of an inhaled substance that results in the death of 50% of the test population in a specific time period (usually one hour). It is usually expressed in ppm and mg/m3 or micrograms per liter. This is called what?
Lethal Concentration, 50% kill (LC 50%)
40
On page 37, The Hodge Sterner table states that the degree of toxicity that is dangerously toxic is how many mg?
<1.0 mg
41
The Hodge Sterner table states that the degree of toxicity that is seriously toxic is how many mg?
1 - 50 mg
42
The Hodge Sterner table states that the degree of toxicity that is highly toxic is how many mg?
50 - 500 mg
43
The Hodge Sterner table states that the degree of toxicity that is moderately toxic is how many mg?
0.5 - 5 grams
44
The Hodge Sterner table states that the degree of toxicity that is slightly toxic is how many mg?
5 - 15 grams
45
The Hodge Sterner table states that the degree of toxicity that is extremely low toxicity is how many mg?
>15 grams
46
The Hodge Sterner table states that > 15 grams is what degree of toxicity?
Extremely low toxicity
47
The Hodge Sterner table states that 5 - 15 grams is what degree of toxicity?
Slightly toxic
48
The Hodge Sterner table states that 0.5 - 5 grams is what degree of toxicity?
Moderately toxic
49
The Hodge Sterner table states that 50 - 500 mg is what degree of toxicity?
Highly Toxic
50
The Hodge Sterner table states that 1 - 50 mg is what degree of toxicity?
Seriously toxic
51
The Hodge Sterner table states that < 1 mg is what degree of toxicity?
Dangerously toxic
52
On page 62, the maximum airborne concentration of a material to which an average healthy person may be exposed repeatedly for 8 hours each day, 40 hours per week without suffering adverse effects is called what?
A. Threshold Limit Value / Ceiling (TLV/C)
B. Short Term Exposure Limit (STEL)
C. Threshold Limit Value / Time Weighted Average (TLV / TWA)
D. Recommended Exposure Levels (REL)
E. Permissible Exposure Levels (PEL)
Threshold Limit Value / Time Weighted Average (TLV/TWA)
53
On page 62, the maximum concentration that should not be exceeded, even instantaneously. The lower the value, the more toxic the substance is called what?
A. Threshold Limit Value / Ceiling (TLV/C)
B. Short Term Exposure Limit (STEL)
C. Threshold Limit Value / Time Weighted Average (TLV / TWA)
D. Recommended Exposure Levels (REL)
E. Permissible Exposure Levels (PEL)
Threshold Limit Value / Ceiling (TLV / C)
54
On page 62, The 15 minute time weighted average exposure that should not be exceeded at any time, nor repeated more than 4 times daily with a 60 minute rest period required between each STEL exposure is called what?
A. Threshold Limit Value / Ceiling (TLV/C)
B. Short Term Exposure Limit (STEL)
C. Threshold Limit Value / Time Weighted Average (TLV / TWA)
D. Recommended Exposure Levels (REL)
E. Permissible Exposure Levels (PEL)
Short-term Exposure Limit (STEL)
55
On page 62, the maximum time weighted concentration at which 95% of exposed healthy adults suffer no adverse effects over a 40 hour work week, based on a 10 hour, time weighted average concentration; used by NIOSH is called what?
A. Threshold Limit Value / Ceiling (TLV/C)
B. Short Term Exposure Limit (STEL)
C. Threshold Limit Value / Time Weighted Average (TLV / TWA)
D. Recommended Exposure Levels (REL)
E. Permissible Exposure Levels (PEL)
Recommended Exposure Levels (REL)
56
On page 62, The maximum time weighted concentration at which 95% of exposed, healthy adults suffer no adverse effects over a 40 hour work week, based on an 8 hour, time weighted average concentration; used by OSHA is called what?
A. Threshold Limit Value / Ceiling (TLV/C)
B. Short Term Exposure Limit (STEL)
C. Threshold Limit Value / Time Weighted Average (TLV / TWA)
D. Recommended Exposure Levels (REL)
E. Permissible Exposure Levels (PEL)
Permissible Exposure Limit (PEL)
57
On page 38, three general IDLH atmospheres:
Toxic
Flammable
Oxygen Deficient
58
On page 38, In the absence of an IDLH value for toxic atmospheres, emergency responders may consider using an estimated IDLH of ___ times the TLV/TWA.
10 times
59
On page 38, IDLH values for flammable atmospheres are typically _____% of the lower explosive limit, while an IDLH oxygen deficient atmosphere is _____ % oxygen or lower.
10%; 19.5%
60
On page 39, _________ are air concentration guidelines for single exposures to hazardous materials.
Emergency Response Planning Guidelines (ERPG)
61
On page 39, the ______ level is the most commonly cited guideline when using public protective action decision making support tools.
ERPG-2
62
On page 39, the _____ is defined as the maximum airborne concentration below which it is believed that nearly all individuals could be exposed for up to one hour without experiencing or developing irreversible or other serious health effects of symptoms that could impair an individuals ability to take protective action.
ERPG-2
63
On page 39, the ERPG-2 is defined as the maximum airborne concentration below which it is believed that nearly all individuals could be exposed for up to ____ (time in hour(s)) without experiencing or developing irreversible or other serious health effects of symptoms that could impair an individuals ability to take protective action.
one hour
64
On page 39, three tiers of AEGLs have been developed covering 5 exposure periods: _______ minutes, ____ minutes, _____ hour, ______ hours, and ______ hours.
10 minutes
30 minutes
1 hour
4 hours
8 hours
65
On page 39, 3 basic atmospheres at an incident involving hazardous materials:
Safe atmosphere
Unsafe Atmosphere
Dangerous Atmosphere
66
On page 39, no harmful effects exist, which allows personnel to handle routine emergencies without specialized PPE is what type of basic atmospheres at an incident involving hazardous materials?
A. Safe Atmosphere
B. Unsafe Atmosphere
C. Dangerous Atmosphere
Safe Atmosphere
67
On page 42, an oxygen enriched atmosphere contains ____% oxygen or higher.
23.5%
68
On page 42, NIOSH historical statistics have shown that ____% of all fatalities at confined space emergencies are personnel acting in a rescuer capacity.
60%
69
On page 42, NIOSH historical statistics have shown that 60% of all fatalities at confined space emergencies are personnel acting in a ______ capacity.
rescuer capacity
70
On page 44, radiation can be classified into 2 types:
Nonionizing radiation
Ionizing radiation
71
On page 44, what type of radiation lack energy to remove electrons from atoms? Examples are infrared waves, radio waves, and visible light.
Nonionizing radiation
72
On page 44, what type of radiation creates charge particles or ions in anything it strikes? Example is an X-ray.
Ionizing radiation
73
On page 44, 4 types of ionizing radiation:
Alpha
Beta
Gamma
Neutron
74
On page 45, if you double the distance from a point of radiation source, the radiation intensity is lowered by ____.
1/4th
75
On page 45, if you increase the distance 10 times, the radiation intensity is _____ of the original value.
1/100th
76
On page 45, ALARA stands for:
As Low As Reasonably Achievable
77
On page 46, ALARA principles should always prevail; responder dose should not require management beyond the ___ rem guideline for any emergency activity.
5 rem
78
On page 46, Emergency responders exceeding ___ rem guideline should understand both the acute and long term effects of radiation.
5 rem
79
On page 47, an inflammation of the skin resulting from prolonged exposure to heat and humid air and often aggravated by chafing clothing is what type of physical reaction to heat?
A. Heat exhaustion
B. Heat rash
C. Heat cramps
D. Heat stroke
Heat rash
80
On page 47, a cramp in the extremities or abdomen caused by a depletion of water and salt in the body is what type of physical reaction to heat?
A. Heat exhaustion
B. Heat rash
C. Heat cramps
D. Heat stroke
Heat cramp
81
On page 47, a mild form of shock caused when the circulatory system begins to fail as a result of the body's inadequate effort to give off excessive heat is what type of physical reaction to heat?
A. Heat exhaustion
B. Heat rash
C. Heat cramps
D. Heat stroke
Heat exhaustion
82
On page 47, a severe and sometimes fatal condition resulting from the failure of the temperature regulating capacity of the body is what type of physical reaction to heat?
A. Heat exhaustion
B. Heat rash
C. Heat cramps
D. Heat stroke
Heat stroke
83
On page 47, any means available should be used to cool the victim; the body temperature should be taken at ___ minute intervals and should not go below _____ degrees Fahrenheit.
5 minute intervals; 101 degrees Fahrenheit
84
On page 49, two factors significantly influence the development of cold injuries:
Ambient temperatures
Wind velocity
85
On page 49, the greatest increase in wind chill effect occurs when a wind of only ___ mph increases to ___ mph.
5 mph to 10 mph
86
On page 49, body heat lost through conduction is called what?
Water chill
87
On page 49, wet clothing extracts heat from the body up to __ times faster than dry clothing.
240 times
88
On page 49, hypothermia is when the body temperature falls below ____ degrees Fahrenheit.
95 degrees Fahrenheit
89
On page 49, many response organizations recommend CPC be worn for a maximum work time of ____ to ___ minutes.
20 - 30 minutes
90
On page 50, OSHA regulations require that hearing protection be provided whenever noise levels exceed ___ decibels.
85 decibels
91
On page 51, cold weather experts involved in the report recommended an ambient temperature of ___ degrees Fahrenheit as a "breakpoint" for outdoor decontamination.
65 degrees Fahrenheit
92
On page 51, _____ is the sudden manifestation of physiological responses triggered by a cold water exposure, and can result in sudden death in susceptible individuals.
Cold shock
93
On page 51, Hypothermia is not a significant risk for most people undergoing mass decon in cold weather. Most individuals can tolerate ___ degrees Fahrenheit and although they would shiver severely and experience great discomfort, they would not be in an immediate life threatening situation due to hypothermia.
55 degrees Fahrenheit
94
On page 54, as a general rule, medical treatment should be provided within ___ to ___ minutes of the incident, while transportation capability should be on-site in approximately ___ to __ minutes.
3 - 4 minutes; 15 - 20 minutes
95
On page 55, OSHA requires that exposure and medical records be maintained for at least ___ years after the employee retires.
30 years
96
On page 55, a comprehensive PPE program should include:
Hazard assessment
Medical monitoring
Equipment selection
Training program
Inspection/maintenance/storage program
97
On page 56, what occurs during the initial ___ minutes will dictate what will occur for the next hour, and what occurs during the first hour will dictate what will occur for the initial ___ hours of the incident.
10 minutes; 8 hours
98
On page 58, entry into hot zone shall be denied if the following criteria is not satisfied:
B/P:
Pulse:
Respirations:
Temperature:
Heat exhaustion within the last ____ hours.
Heavy alcohol consumption within the previous ___ hours or any alcohol within the past ___ hours.
B/P exceeds 100 diastolic
Pulse is greater than 70% maximum heart rate (>115)
Respirations greater than 24 per minute
Temperature: oral temperature less than 97 or exceeds 99.5; core temperature less than 98 or greater than 100.5
Heat exhaustion within the last 72 hours
Heavy alcohol consumption within the previous 24 hours or any alcohol within the past 2 hours.
99
On page 60, vital signs should be monitored every ___ to ___ minutes, with the victim resting, until they return to approximately ___% of the baseline.
5 - 10 minutes; 10% of the baseline
100
On page 69, in the public sector, communications personnel are commonly referred to as the ___________.
Public Safety Answering Point (PSAP)
101
On page 70, water and utility company employees, heavy equipment operators and food service personnel are examples of what type of personnel?
Support Personnel
102
On page 70, individuals who provide specific expertise to the IC and emergency responders either in person, by telephone, or through other means is what type of "player?"
A. Special Operations Team
B. Facility Managers
C. Technical Specialists
D. Support personnel
Technical Specialist
103
On page 70, individuals who are responsible for determining the origin and cause of the hazmat release including any related evidence collection and preservation is what type of "player?"
```
A. Environmental Clean-up contractors
B. Responsible Party
C. Facility Managers
D. Investigators
E. Hazardous Materials Response Teams
F. Emergency Response Teams
```
Investigators
104
On page 71, a CERFP is staffed with approximately 170 personnel from National Guard units and comprises of 4 elements:
1. Search and extraction
2. Decontamination
3. Medical
4. Command/Control
105
On page 72, 5 major components within NIMS:
Preparedness
Communications / Information management
Resource management
Command and management
Ongoing management
106
On page 72, an ____ can be defined as an occurrence or event, either natural or human made, which requires action by emergency response personnel to prevent or minimize loss of life or damage to property and/or natural resources.
A. Incident
B. Crisis
C. Event
Incident
107
On page 72, a _____ is an unplanned event that can exceed the level of available resources and has the potential to impact significantly an organizations operability, credibility, and reputation, or pose a significant environmental, economic or legal liability.
A. Incident
B. Crisis
C. Event
Crisis
108
On page 72, ICS must be a foundational element of any successful hazmat program. Response experience has provided us with the following lessons learned:
1. Variety of different players will respond to the working incident
2. No single agency can manage a major emergency alone
3. Many special operations teams tend to be people dependent programs
4. Problems associated with planning, training, and the organization buying into the ICS program.
5. Management and control of routine incidents establishes the framework for how the larger more significant events will be managed.
109
On page 74, ICS is pre-dictated on basic management concepts:
Division of Labor
Lines of authority
Unity of Command
Span of Control
Establishment of both line and staff functions within the organization
110
On page 75, what section is typically regarded as the information management and research and development (R&D) arm of the ICS process?
A, Operations
B. Planning
C. Logistics
D. Finance and Administration
Planning Section
111
On page 75, in the early phase of the incident, planning will focus on what the requirements are for ___ or ___ hours into the future. At major incidents, this may be _____ hours or multiple days into the future.
1 or 2 hours; 12+ hours
112
On page 75, the organizational level with functional responsibility for primary functions of emergency incident operations is what?
```
A. Incident Commander
B. Sections
C. Branch
D. Division/Groups
E. Command Staff Officers
```
Sections
113
On page 75, the organizational level of having functional or geographic responsibility for major segments of incident operations is what?
```
A. Incident Commander
B. Sections
C. Branch
D. Division/Groups
E. Command Staff Officers
```
Branches
114
On page 75, ___ are often established when the number of divisions/groups or sectors exceeds the recommended span of control.
Branches
115
On page 76, ____ are the organizational level having responsibility for operations within a defined geographic area.
```
A. Incident Commander
B. Sections
C. Branch
D. Division/Groups
E. Command Staff Officers
```
Division/Group
116
On page 76, in those incidents where multiple incident officers from different agencies are present, a Joint Information System and a _______ should be established and all of the individual agency information officers work jointly and cooperatively from one location.
Joint Information's Center (JIC)
117
On page 79, unified command is not management by committee; there will always be a lead agency or one agency that has ____% of the vote as compared to the other players.
51%
118
On page 79, the IAP consists of:
Incident Operations
Strategic Goals
Tactical Objectives
Resource Requirements
119
On page 80, a consolidated action plan is used to ensure that:
Everyone works together toward a common emergency response goal
Individual response agendas are coordinated
Everyone works safely
120
On page 80, the most effective way to ensure a consolidated action plan is implemented is to have a ___________ of each major player at the incident present at the ICP and/or EOC at all times.
Senior Representative
121
On page 80, the hazardous materials group is normally under the command of a _______ who in turn reports to the Operations section chief.
Senior Hazmat Officer (Hazardous Materials Group Supervisor)
122
On page 80, primary functions of a Hazardous Materials Group is:
Safety
Entry/Back up
Decontamination
Site Access
Information/Research
123
On page 81, secondary support functions of a hazardous materials group are:
Medical
Resource
124
On page 83, the entry team is managed by the _______.
Entry Unit Leader (Entry Officer)
125
On page 83, Entry support personnel (may be also known as the _____ team) are responsible for the proper donning and outfitting of both the entry team and back up team.
Dressing team
126
On page 83, the hazardous materials information/research team is managed by the _______ leader (may be known as ____ and ____.)
Information leader; Research and Science
127
On page 84, emergency response operations are increasingly being judged in how responders perform in two similar areas:
Technical Merit
Artistic Impression
128
On page 84, ____________ - in simple terms did responders make the "problem" go away?
A. Technical Merit
B. Artistic Impression
Technical Merit
129
On page 84, _____ is how well we manage the "external worlds" effects of the problem outside of the response community.
A. Technical Merit
B. Artistic Impression
Artistic Impression
130
On page 85, having to make quick decisions may worry the inexperienced officer, but they become easier to make once you recognize the following:
Distinguish between assumptions and facts
Maintain a flexible approach to decision making
Shift to a management role after initiating action
131
On page 87, rules of engagement (ROE) provides the structures for engaging the enemy including the:
Chain of Command decision making authority
Accountability
Responsibility
132
On page 89, a time tested rule for minimizing political vulnerability is the _________. Simply, when faced with significant or politically sensitive decisions, consult at least 3 independent reference sources.
Rule of Threes
133
On page 89, PACE model stands for:
P - Primary Plan
A - Alternative Plan
C - Contingency Plan
E - Emergency Plan
134
On page 89, the majority of hazmat incidents are "high-intensity - short duration" events that are terminated in ___ hours or less.
8 hours or less
135
On page 90, the first and most critical step in problem solving is _____.
Defining the problem
136
On page 91, the IC must prioritize problems and develop solutions by collecting information. The effective IC will:
Seeks out data that is current
Delegate information received
Know where to find reference data
Collect the right information in order
Use a variety of sources
137
On page 93, emergency response programs can be categorized as being either people-dependent or ______.
System dependent
138
On page 94, what are the 4 main sections within the ICS plan?
Operations
Planning
Logistics
Administration
