Ch. 4 - 6 Flashcards
(144 cards)
1
Q
On page 98, the critical success factors in hour 1 of a hazmat response will typically be:
A
Establish command
Recognize “clues”
Gain control of the incident scene and separate bystanders
2
Q
On page 99, the 8 basic tactical level functions are:
A
- Site management and control
- Identify the problem
- Hazard Assessment and Risk Evaluation
- Select PPE
- Information Management and Resource Coordination
- implement Response Objectives
- Decon
- Terminate
3
Q
The first step in the eight step process is:
A. Information Management and Resource Coordination B. Decon C. Terminate the Incident D. Implement Response Objectives E. Select PPE F. Identify the Problem G. Site Management H. Hazard Assessment and Risk Evaluation
A
Site management
4
Q
The second step in the eight step process is:
A. Information Management and Resource Coordination B. Decon C. Terminate the Incident D. Implement Response Objectives E. Select PPE F. Identify the Problem G. Site Management H. Hazard Assessment and Risk Evaluation
A
Identify the Problem
5
Q
The third step in the eight step process is:
A. Information Management and Resource Coordination B. Decon C. Terminate the Incident D. Implement Response Objectives E. Select PPE F. Identify the Problem G. Site Management H. Hazard Assessment and Risk Evaluation
A
Hazard Assessment and Risk Evaluation
6
Q
The fourth step in the eight step process is:
A. Information Management and Resource Coordination B. Decon C. Terminate the Incident D. Implement Response Objectives E. Select PPE F. Identify the Problem G. Site Management H. Hazard Assessment and Risk Evaluation
A
Select PPE
7
Q
The fifth step in the eight step process is:
A. Information Management and Resource Coordination B. Decon C. Terminate the Incident D. Implement Response Objectives E. Select PPE F. Identify the Problem G. Site Management H. Hazard Assessment and Risk Evaluation
A
Information Management and Resource Coordination
8
Q
The sixth step in the eight step process is:
A. Information Management and Resource Coordination B. Decon C. Terminate the Incident D. Implement Response Objectives E. Select PPE F. Identify the Problem G. Site Management H. Hazard Assessment and Risk Evaluation
A
Implement Response Objectives
9
Q
The seventh step in the eight step process is:
A. Information Management and Resource Coordination B. Decon C. Terminate the Incident D. Implement Response Objectives E. Select PPE F. Identify the Problem G. Site Management H. Hazard Assessment and Risk Evaluation
A
Decon
10
Q
The eighth step in the eight step process is:
A. Information Management and Resource Coordination B. Decon C. Terminate the Incident D. Implement Response Objectives E. Select PPE F. Identify the Problem G. Site Management H. Hazard Assessment and Risk Evaluation
A
Terminate the Incident
11
Q
On page 99, _____ is a critical benchmark in the overall success of the response and is the foundation on which all subsequent response functions, strategies, and tactics are built.
A
Site Management and Control
12
Q
On page 99, the initial ____ minutes of the incident will determine operations for the next _______ minutes, and the next _____ minutes will determine operations for the next _______ hours.
A
10 minutes; 60 minutes; 8 hours
13
Q
On page 100, ________ is the obtaining information on site layout, containers, physical hazards, access, and other related conditions from beyond the inner perimeter.
A
Defensive Recon
14
Q
On page 100, ______ is the obtaining intelligence and incident information by physical entering the inner perimeter of an incident.
A
Offensive Recon
15
Q
On page 100, ___________ is the most critical function that public safety personnel perform.
A
Hazard Assessment and Risk Evaluation
16
Q
On page 101, Air monitoring and the __________ are critical in implementing a “risk-based response.”
A
General Hazmat Behavior Model
17
Q
On page 101, ______ and the General Hazmat Behavior Model are critical in implementing a “risk-based response.”
A
Air monitoring
18
Q
On page 101, PACE model stands for:
A
Primary
Alternative
Contingency
Emergency
19
Q
On page 102, _______ tactics require responders to control/mitigate the emergency from within the area of high risk.
A. Defensive
B. Nonintervention
C. Offensive
A
Offensive
20
Q
On page 102, ________ tactics permit responders to control/mitigate the emergency remote from the area of highest risk.
A. Defensive
B. Nonintervention
C. Offensive
A
Defensive
21
Q
On page 102, _______ tactics pursue a passive attack posture until the arrival of additional personnel or equipment, or allowing the fire to burn itself out.
A. Defensive
B. Nonintervention
C. Offensive
A
Nonintervention
22
Q
On page 102, two primary types of personal protective clothing are commonly used at hazmat incidents:
A
Structural Firefighting protective clothing
Chemical protective clothing
23
Q
On page 102, ______ protective clothing are primarily designed to offer protection from both chemical gases and vapors, as well as total body splash protection.
A. Structural Firefighting
B. Chemical Splash
C. Chemical vapor
A
Chemical Vapor
24
Q
On page 102, _____ protective clothing protects the wearer against chemical liquid splashes but not against chemical vapors or gases. it is primarily designed to provided protection against liquid splashes, solids, dusts, and particles.
A. Structural firefighting
B. Chemical Splash
C. Chemical Vapor
A
Chemical Splash
25
On page 102, Chemical Vapor protective clothing may be referred to as:
A. EPA Level A or NFPA 1991 compliant clothing
B. EPA level B or NFPA 1992 compliant clothing
C. EPA level C or NFPA 1994 compliant clothing
EPA level A or NFPA 1991 compliant clothing
26
On page 102, Chemical splash protective clothing and the use of an air supplied respirator protection may be referred to as:
A. EPA Level A or NFPA 1991 compliant clothing
B. EPA level B or NFPA 1992 compliant clothing
C. EPA level C or NFPA 1994 compliant clothing
EPA Level B or NFPA 1992 compliant clothing
27
On page 102, Chemical splash protective clothing and the use of an air purifying respirator (APR) may be referred to as:
A. EPA Level A or NFPA 1991 compliant clothing
B. EPA level B or NFPA 1992 compliant clothing
C. EPA level C or NFPA 1994 compliant clothing
EPA Level C or NFPA 1994 compliant clothing
28
On page 104, _______ should be set up prior to initiating entry operations.
Decon
29
On page 106, basic principles of mass casualty decon include the following: anticipate a ____ to _____ ratio of unaffected to affected casualties.
5 to 1 ratio
30
On page 106, water flushing for a period of ___ minutes is generally the best mass decon method.
3 minutes
31
On page 106, _______ for a period of 3 minutes is generally the best mass decon method.
Water flushing
32
On page 107, ________ is all post emergency activities, include investigation, restoration, and recovery activities.
Post Emergency Response Operations (PERO)
33
On page 107, Post emergency response operation (PERO) activities include:
Investigation
Restoration
Recovery
34
On page 114, the ____ section is responsible for the management of the staging area.
```
A. Operations
B. Logistics
C. Planning
C. Finance/Administration
D. Command
```
Operations
35
On page 114, the first arriving unit responds to the incident scene, while other units are ordered to stage at a safe location close to, but away from the scene, from where they can deploy in a safe, timely, and effective manner is what type of staging?
A. Sustained Response Operations or Level II Staging
B. Initial Response Operations or Level I staging
Initial Response Operations or Level I staging
36
On page 114, as an incident grows or escalates, the IC designates a fixed location where resources responding beyond the initial response can be placed until given a tactical assignment is what type of staging?
A. Sustained Response Operations or Level II Staging
B. Initial Response Operations or Level I staging
Sustained Response Operations or Level II Staging
37
On page 114, the designated crowd control line surrounding the Hazard Control Zones and is always the line between the general public and the Cold Zone is what?
A. Hot Zone
B. Isolation Perimeter
C. Warm Zone
D. Area of Refuge
Isolation Perimeter
38
On page 114, law enforcement may refer to the isolation perimeter as the _____.
"outer perimeter"
39
On page 114, control zone at a hazardous materials incident site where the personnel and equipment decontamination and Hot Zone support takes place is what?
A. Cold Zone
B. Isolation Perimeter
C. Warm Zone
D. Area of Refuge
Warm Zone
40
On page 114, a holding area within the hot zone where personnel are controlled until they can be safely decontaminated, treated, or removed is called what?
A. Hot Zone
B. Isolation Perimeter
C. Warm Zone
D. Area of Refuge
Area of Refuge
41
On page 114, the 3 public protective actions (PPA) are:
Protection in place
Evacuation
Combination of both
42
On page 114, site management can be divided into 6 major tasks:
1. Assuming Command
2. Ensure safe approach and positioning
3. Establish staging
4. Establish isolation perimeter
5. Establish Hazard Control Zones
6. Sizing up the need for immediate rescue and implement initial public protective actions (PPA)
43
On page 114, responders need to know who is in command, ________ and where to find the location of the Incident Command Post (ICP).
How to contact command
44
On page 118, the IDLH action level for flammability is ____% of the lower explosive limit (LEL).
10%
45
On page 118, an oxygen deficient atmosphere is ____% oxygen or lower while an oxygen enriched atmosphere contains ____% or higher.
19.5%; 23.5%
46
On page 118, toxicity is measured in ______ and is normally measured by a ________.
ppm; photo ionization device (PID)
47
on page 118, if there is no published IDLH value, consider using an estimated IDLH of ___ times the TLV/TWA.
10 times
48
On page 118, for radioactivity, any positive reading ___ times above background levels would confirm the existence of a radiation hazard and should be used as the basis for establishing a hot zone.
2 times
49
On page 118, for radioactivity, alpha or beta particles that are _____ to ____ counts per minute (cpm) above background levels would confirm the existence of a radiation hazard and should be used as the basis for establishing a hot zone.
200 - 300 cpm
50
On page 118, initial hazard control zones can be established for toxic materials using the following guidelines: Hot zone - monitoring readings above _____ or ____ exposure values.
A. TLV / TWA or PEL
B. PEL or REL
C. TLV / TWA or REL
D. STEL or IDLH
STEL or IDLH
51
On page 118, initial hazard control zones can be established for toxic materials using the following guidelines: Warm Zone - monitoring readings equal to or greater than _________ or ____ exposure values.
A. TLV / TWA or PEL
B. PEL or REL
C. TLV / TWA or REL
D. STEL or IDLH
TLV / TWA or PEL
52
On page 118, initial hazard control zones can be established for toxic materials using the following guidelines: Cold Zone - monitoring readings less than _______ or ____ exposure values.
A. TLV / TWA or PEL
B. PEL or REL
C. TLV / TWA or REL
D. STEL or IDLH
TLV / TWA or PEL
53
On page 118, initial hazard control zones can be established for toxic materials using the following guidelines: what zone can monitor readings less than TLV/TWA or PEL exposure values?
A. Cold zone
B. Warm zone
C. Hot zone
Cold Zone
54
On page 118, initial hazard control zones can be established for toxic materials using the following guidelines: what zone can monitor readings above STEL or IDLH exposure values?
A. Cold zone
B. Warm zone
C. Hot zone
Hot zone
55
On page 118, initial hazard control zones can be established for toxic materials using the following guidelines: what zone monitors readings equal to or greater than TLV / TWA or PEL exposure values?
A. Cold zone
B. Warm zone
C. Hot zone
Warm Zone
56
On page 120, be aware that if the situation deteriorates rapidly, exposures within ____ feet may be contaminated.
1000 feet
57
On page 123, Wally wise guy is designed to reach children from _____ to ____ grade.
Kindergarten to 4th grade
58
On page 123, _______ is the direction the wind blows the majority of the time for the time of year in the area you live in.
Wind rose
59
On page 123, ______ evacuations are used when the incident affects one or two buildings in the vicinity of the incident.
Limited Scale Evacuation
60
On page 125, the median duration of evacuation was __ hours.
2 hours
61
On page 125, ______ is a situation in which occupants of a building experience acute health effects that seem to be linked to time spent in a building, but no specific illness or cause can be identified.
Sick Building Syndrome
62
On page 126, full scale evacuations present two major problems for the IC:
1. Life Safety
| 2. Expense
63
On page 126, full scale evacuations are expensive and the cost to individual households for evacuation would be expected to be almost ___ times the cost of protection in place.
7 times
64
On page 126, costs to the public sector during a full scale evacuation are approximately ___ times as high and ______ times as high for the manufacturing sector.
3 times; 15 times
65
On page 127, when the decision is made to commit to a full-scale public evacuation, 4 critical issues must be addressed and managed effectively in order for the operation to succeed:
Alerting and Notification
Transportation
Relocation Facility
Information
66
On page 129, sound from public address systems on emergency vehicles travels ___ feet, which means the vehicle has to stop every __ feet to broadcast the message.
500 feet; 1000 feet
67
On page 129, the ______ or EAS, is an effective method of alerting people in buildings and automobiles.
Emergency Alerting System
68
On page 131, PLAN stands for:
Personalized Localized Alerting Network
69
On page 131, 3 types of alerts can be sent out over the personalized localized alerting network (PLAN):
Messages issued by the president of the U.S.
Alerts involving imminent threats to life safety
Amber Alerts
70
On page 132, ________ (CTN) are defined as people who cannot self-evacuate by any means of transportation.
Critical Transportation Needs
71
On page 132, Emergency escape packs also known as emergency breathing apparatus (EBA) typically have ___ to ____ minutes of breathing air in their cylinders.
5 - 10 minutes
72
On page 132, ____% of evacuees do not stay at public relocation shelters.
65%
73
On page 132, ____% require some form of public shelter.
35%
74
On page 132, in order for relocation shelters to be effective, they need the following elements:
Safe building
Shelter manager
Shelter support staff
75
On page 143, approximately ___% of releases occur in facilities that produce, store, manufacture, or use chemicals; the remaining ______% occurs during transportation.
75%; 25%
76
On page 143, the majority of hazmat emergencies involve ________ , __________ and _________. The next most common hazard class is _______ materials.
Flammable and combustible liquids and compressed gas; Corrosive materials
77
On page 143, _________ (TOFC) and _________ (COFC) account for the largest number of rail car movements.
Trailer on flat cars
Containers on flat cars
78
On page 143, the identification process is built on the following basic elements:
1. Recognition
2. Identification
3. Classification
79
On page 144, emergency responders rely on seven basic clues as part of their identification process. Look for hazmats in every incident; then identify or at least classify the material. The seven clues are:
1. Occupancy and Location
2. Container Shapes
3. Markings and Colors
4. Placards and Labels
5. Shipping papers and facility documents
6. Monitoring and detection equipment
7. Senses
80
On page 144, occupancy and locations can be categorized into 4 basic areas:
Production
Transportation
Storage
Use
81
On page 147, packaging is divided into 3 general groups:
Non-bulk packaging
Bulk packaging
Facility Containment Systems
82
On page 147, liquid capacity in non-bulk packaging is:
119 gallons or less
83
On page 147, solid capacity in non-bulk packaging has a net mass of ___ pounds or less or capacity of ___ gallons or less.
882 pounds; 119 gallons or less
84
On page 147, compressed gas in non-bulk packaging has a water capacity of _____ pounds or less.
1001 pounds or less
85
On page 147, liquid capacity in bulk packaging is greater than _____ gallons.
119 gallons
86
On page 147, solid net mass in bulk packaging is greater than _____ pounds for solids, or capacity greater than _____ gallons.
882 pounds; 119 gallons
87
On page 147, compressed gas water capacities in bulk packaging is greater than _____ pounds.
1001
88
On page 156, two types of non-pressure tank containers are:
IM 101 (IMO Type I) and IM 102 (IMO Type II)
89
On page 156, IM ___ tanks transport hazardous and non-hazardous liquid materials, including flammable liquids with flash points of < 32 degrees Fahrenheit, poisons and environmentally harmful liquids and corrosives.
IM 101
90
On page 156, IM _____ tanks transport hazardous and non hazardous liquid materials, including flammable liquids with a flash point ranging from 32 degrees Fahrenheit to 140 degrees Fahrenheit.
IM 102
91
On page 156, IM 101 and IM 102 account for over ___% of the total number of tank containers worldwide.
90%
92
On page 156, DOT Spec 51 or IMO type 5 are what type of containers?
A. Non-pressure Tank containers
B. Pressure Tank Containers
C. Specialized tank containers (cryogenics)
D. Specialized tank containers (tube modules)
Pressure tank containers
93
On page 157, IMO type 7 is what type of container?
A. Non-pressure Tank containers
B. Pressure Tank Containers
C. Specialized tank containers (cryogenics)
D. Specialized tank containers (tube modules)
Specialized Tank Containers (Cryogenics)
94
On page 159, MC-331 cargo tanks are required to be inspected _____ and be tested every __ years.
annually; 5 years
95
On page 159, external visual inspection is what abbreviation?
```
A. "V"
B. "I"
C. "K"
D. "L"
E. "P"
F. "T"
```
"V"
96
On page 159, Internal visual inspection is what abbreviation?
```
A. "V"
B. "I"
C. "K"
D. "L"
E. "P"
F. "T"
```
"I"
97
On page 159, leakage test is what abbreviation?
```
A. "V"
B. "I"
C. "K"
D. "L"
E. "P"
F. "T"
```
"K"
98
On page 159, Lining inspection is what abbreviation?
```
A. "V"
B. "I"
C. "K"
D. "L"
E. "P"
F. "T"
```
"L"
99
On page 159, pressure test is what abbreviation?
```
A. "V"
B. "I"
C. "K"
D. "L"
E. "P"
F. "T"
```
"P"
100
On page 159, thickness test is what abbreviation?
```
A. "V"
B. "I"
C. "K"
D. "L"
E. "P"
F. "T"
```
"T"
101
On page 159, atmospheric pressure cargo tank trucks are also known as:
```
A. MC-306 / DOT-406
B. MC -307 / DOT-407
C. MC-312 / DOT-412
D. MC-330 / MC-331
E. MC-338
```
MC-306 / DOT-406
102
On page 159, Low pressure chemical cargo tank truck are also known as:
```
A. MC-306 / DOT-406
B. MC -307 / DOT-407
C. MC-312 / DOT-412
D. MC-330 / MC-331
E. MC-338
```
MC - 307 / DOT - 407
103
On page 159, Corrosive cargo tank trucks are also known as:
```
A. MC-306 / DOT-406
B. MC -307 / DOT-407
C. MC-312 / DOT-412
D. MC-330 / MC-331
E. MC-338
```
MC - 312 / DOT-412
104
On page 159, High pressure cargo tank trucks are also known as:
```
A. MC-306 / DOT-406
B. MC -307 / DOT-407
C. MC-312 / DOT-412
D. MC-330 / MC-331
E. MC-338
```
MC-330 / MC-331
105
On page 159, Cryogenic liquid tank trucks are also known as:
```
A. MC-306 / DOT-406
B. MC -307 / DOT-407
C. MC-312 / DOT-412
D. MC-330 / MC-331
E. MC-338
```
MC-338
106
On page 159, MC-338 is what type of tank truck?
```
A. Low pressure chemical cargo
B. High pressure cargo tank truck
C. Corrosive cargo tank truck
D. Cryogenic cargo tank truck
E. Atmospheric pressure cargo tank truck
```
Cryogenic cargo tank truck
107
On page 159, MC-307 is what type of tank truck?
```
A. Low pressure chemical cargo
B. High pressure cargo tank truck
C. Corrosive cargo tank truck
D. Cryogenic cargo tank truck
E. Atmospheric pressure cargo tank truck
```
Low pressure chemical cargo tank truck
108
On page 159, MC-312 is what type of tank truck?
```
A. Low pressure chemical cargo
B. High pressure cargo tank truck
C. Corrosive cargo tank truck
D. Cryogenic cargo tank truck
E. Atmospheric pressure cargo tank truck
```
Corrosive Cargo tank truck
109
On page 159, MC-330 / MC 331 is what type of tank truck?
```
A. Low pressure chemical cargo
B. High pressure cargo tank truck
C. Corrosive cargo tank truck
D. Cryogenic cargo tank truck
E. Atmospheric pressure cargo tank truck
```
High pressure cargo tank truck
110
On page 159, MC-306 is what type of tank truck?
```
A. Low pressure chemical cargo
B. High pressure cargo tank truck
C. Corrosive cargo tank truck
D. Cryogenic cargo tank truck
E. Atmospheric pressure cargo tank truck
```
Atmospheric pressure cargo tank truck
111
On page 162, tank cars transporting anhydrous ammonia, ammonia solutions with more than 50% ammonia, Division 2.1 material or a division 2.3 material must have a ________.
Commodity stencil
112
On page 162, __ indicates a rail car is not owned by a railroad.
A. "X"
B. "Z"
C. "U"
"X"
113
On page 162, ___ indicates a trailer.
A. "X"
B. "Z"
C. "U"
"Z"
114
On page 162, ___ indicates a container.
A. "X"
B. "Z"
C. "U"
"U"
115
On page 164, separator character ____ means top and bottom shelf couplers.
A. "S"
B. "A"
C. "J"
D. "T"
"A"
116
On page 164, separator character ____ means tank headshields, top and bottom shelf couplers.
A. "S"
B. "A"
C. "J"
D. "T"
"S"
117
On page 164, separator character _____ means jacketed thermal protection, tank head shields, top and bottom shelf couplers.
A. "S"
B. "A"
C. "J"
D. "T"
"J"
118
On page 164, separator character _____ means spray on thermal protection, tank headshields, top and bottom shelf couplers.
A. "S"
B. "A"
C. "J"
D. "T"
"T"
119
On page 164, type of material used in tank construction with ____ means carbon steel.
```
A. No letter
B. AL
C. A - AL
D. N
E. C, D, or E
```
"No letter"
120
On page 164, type of material used in tank construction with _____ means stainless steel.
```
A. No letter
B. AL
C. A - AL
D. N
E. C, D, or E
```
C, D, or E
121
On page 164, type of weld used ____ means fusion welding.
A. "W"
B. "F"
"W"
122
On page 164, type of weld used _____ means forge welding.
A. "W"
B. "F"
"F"
123
On page 164, the most common type of weld used is:
Fusion welding ("W")
124
On page 164, DOT specification markings for Railroad tank cars from left to right mean:
DOT 111 A 60 AL W 1
Authorizing agency
Class designation
Separator character
PSI
Type of material used in tank construction
Type of weld used
Other car features
125
On page 166, 5 basic types of radioactive material packaging:
Excepted packaging
Industrial packaging
Type A packaging
Type B packaging
Type C packaging
126
On page 166, what type of packaging is used to transport low levels of radioactivity?
```
A. Excepted
B. Industrial
C. Type A
D. Type B
E. Type C
```
Excepted
127
On page 166, what type of packaging is used to transport small levels of radioactive material with higher concentrations of radioactivity than those shipped in industrial packaging?
```
A. Excepted
B. Industrial
C. Type A
D. Type B
E. Type C
```
Type A
128
On page 166, what type of packaging is used to transport radioactive material with the highest levels of radioactivity, including potentially life-endangering amounts that could pose a significant risk if released during an accident?
```
A. Excepted
B. Industrial
C. Type A
D. Type B
E. Type C
```
Type B
129
On page 166, what type of packaging is used to transport by aircraft high activity radioactive materials that have not been certified as "low dispersible radioactive material" that are designed to withstand severe accident conditions associated with air transport without loss of containment or significant increase in external radiation levels?
```
A. Excepted
B. Industrial
C. Type A
D. Type B
E. Type C
```
Type C
130
On page 172, toxicity signal words for the level of toxicity - high are:
A. Warning
B. Caution
C. Danger/Poison
Danger / Poison
131
On page 172, toxicity signal words for the level of toxicity - Moderate are:
A. Warning
B. Caution
C. Danger / Poison
Warning
132
On page 172, toxicity signal words for the level of toxicity - low are:
A. Warning
B. Caution
C. Danger/Poison
Caution
133
On page 173, elevated temperature materials when transported in a bulk container are:
liquids at or above ___ degrees Fahrenheit
Liquids with a flash point at or above ___ degrees Fahrenheit
Solids at a temperature at or above _____ degrees Fahrenheit.
212 degrees
100 degrees
464 degrees
134
On page 175, three main elements of the Global harmonization system (GHS) are:
Classification system
Labeling
SDS
135
On page 178, packaging group ____ indicates great danger.
A. I
B. II
C. III
D. IV
I
136
On page 178, packaging group ___ indicates medium danger.
A. I
B. II
C. III
D. IV
II
137
On page 178, packaging group __ indicates minor danger.
A. I
B. II
C. III
D. IV
III
138
On page 179, maximum contact radiation level ranging from 50 mrem / hour to 200 mrem/hour is what radioactive material label?
A. Radioactive White - Label I
B. Radioactive Yellow - Label II
C. Radioactive Yellow - Label III
Radioactive Yellow Label III
139
On page 179, maximum contact radiation level ranging from 0.5 mrem / hour to 50 mrem/hour is what radioactive material label?
A. Radioactive White - Label I
B. Radioactive Yellow - Label II
C. Radioactive Yellow - Label III
Radioactive Yellow Label II
140
On page 179, maximum contact radiation level of 0.5 mrem/hour is what radioactive material label?
A. Radioactive White - Label I
B. Radioactive Yellow - Label II
C. Radioactive Yellow - Label III
Radioactive White - Label I
141
On page 180, title of shipping paper for air transportation is:
A. Waybill
B. Dangerous Cargo Manifest
C. Air-bill
D. Bill of Lading or Freight Bill
Air bill
142
On page 180, title of shipping paper for water transportation is:
A. Waybill
B. Dangerous Cargo Manifest
C. Air-bill
D. Bill of Lading or Freight Bill
Dangerous Cargo Manifest
143
On page 180, title of shipping paper for highway transportation is:
A. Waybill
B. Dangerous Cargo Manifest
C. Air-bill
D. Bill of Lading or Freight Bill
Bill of Lading or Freight bill
144
On page 180, title of shipping paper for railroad transportation is:
A. Waybill
B. Dangerous Cargo Manifest
C. Air-bill
D. Bill of Lading or Freight Bill
Waybill
