Ch. 7 Flashcards
(193 cards)
1
Q
On page 193, ______ refer to danger or peril; physical and chemical properties of a material.
A
Hazards
2
Q
On page 193, ____ refer to the probability of suffering or harm.
A
Risks
3
Q
On page 193, factors that influence the level of risk include the following:
A
Hazardous nature of the materials involved
Quantity of the materials involved
Containment system and type of stress applied to container
Proximity of exposures
Level of available resources
4
Q
On page 193, the hazard and risk evaluation process will be viewed as 3 distinct yet inter-related tasks:
A
- Hazard Assessment
- Risk Evaluation
- Development of the IAP
5
Q
On page 194, pure substance that cannot be broken down into simpler substances by chemical means is what?
A. Compound
B. Mixture
C. Element
D. Solution
A
Element
6
Q
On page 194, substance made up two or more elements or compounds, physically mixed together is called what?
A. Compound B. Mixture C. Element D. Solution E. Slurry
A
Mixture
7
Q
On page 194, chemical combination of two or more elements, either the same elements or different ones, that is electrically neutral is called what?
A. Compound B. Mixture C. Element D. Solution E. Slurry
A
Compound
8
Q
On page 194, mixture in which all of the ingredients are completely dissolved is called what?
A. Compound B. Mixture C. Element D. Solution E. Slurry
A
Solution
9
Q
On page 194, pourable mixture of a solid and a liquid is called what?
A. Compound B. Mixture C. Element D. Solution E. Slurry
A
Slurry
10
Q
On page 195, cryogenic liquids are gasses that have been transformed into extremely cold liquids stored at temperatures below ____ degrees Fahrenheit.
A
-130 degrees
11
Q
On page 195, cryogenic liquids have the following hazards:
A
- Extremely cold temperatures
- Liquid to vapor expansion ratio
- hazards of the respective material
12
Q
On page 195, a chemical change that is spontaneous requires _____ of energy.
A. no input
B. input of some energy
A
No input
13
Q
On page 195, a chemical change that is non-spontaneous requires _______ energy.
A. no input
B. input of some
A
input of some
14
Q
On page 195, the electrostatic attraction of oppositely charged particles is called what?
A. Ionic bonding
B. Covalent bonding
A
Ionic bonding
15
Q
On page 195, the force holding together atoms that share electrons is called what?
A. Ionic bonding
B. Covalent bonding
A
Covalent bonding
16
Q
On page 195, materials that contain carbon atoms is called what?
A. Hydrocarbons B. Saturated hydrocarbons C. Inorganic Materials D. Organic Materials E. Unsaturated hydrocarbons F. Aromatic Hydrocarbons G. Halogenated hydrocarbons
A
Organic materials
17
Q
On page 195, compounds derived from other than vegetable or animal sources, which lack carbon chains but may contain a carbon atom us called what?
A. Hydrocarbons B. Saturated hydrocarbons C. Inorganic Materials D. Organic Materials E. Unsaturated hydrocarbons F. Aromatic Hydrocarbons G. Halogenated hydrocarbons
A
Inorganic materials
18
Q
On page 195, compounds primarily made up of hydrogen and carbon is called what?
A. Hydrocarbons B. Saturated hydrocarbons C. Inorganic Materials D. Organic Materials E. Unsaturated hydrocarbons F. Aromatic Hydrocarbons G. Halogenated hydrocarbons
A
Hydrocarbon
19
Q
On page 195, a hydrocarbon possessing only single covalent bond; may also be referred to as alkanes; these are called what?
A. Saturated hydrocarbons
B. Unsaturated hydrocarbons
C. Aromatic Hydrocarbons
D. Halogenated hydrocarbons
A
Saturated hydrocarbon
20
Q
On page 195, a hydrocarbon with at least one multiple bond between two carbon atoms somewhere in the molecule; may also be referred to as the alkenes and alkynes; these are called what?
A. Saturated hydrocarbons
B. Unsaturated hydrocarbons
C. Aromatic Hydrocarbons
D. Halogenated hydrocarbons
A
Unsaturated hydrocarbons
21
Q
On page 195, a hydrocarbon containing the benzene ring, which is formed by 6 carbon atoms and contains resonant bonds is called what?
A. Saturated hydrocarbon
B. Unsaturated hydrocarbon
C. Aromatic hydrocarbon
D. Halogenated hydrocarbons
A
Aromatic Hydrocarbons
22
Q
On page 195, a hydrocarbon with a halogen atom substituted for a hydrogen atom is called what?
A. Saturated hydrocarbon
B. Unsaturated hydrocarbon
C. Aromatic hydrocarbon
D. Halogenated hydrocarbons
A
Halogenated hydrocarbon
23
Q
On page 195, normal temperatures are between ___ degrees Fahrenheit to _______ degrees Fahrenheit.
A
68 degrees to 77 degrees
24
Q
On page 195, 760 mm HG is equivalent to _____ psi or _____ atmosphere.
A
14.7 psi; 1 atmosphere
25
On page 195, _____ mm HG is equivalent to 14.7 psi or ______ atmosphere.
760 mm HG; 1 atmosphere
26
On page 196, materials with pressures greater than 760 mm HG are usually found as _______.
A. Solids
B. Liquids
C. Gases
Gases
27
On page 196, water has a vapor pressure of _____ mm HG.
25 mm HG
28
On page 196, the weight of a pure vapor or gas compared with the weight of an equal volume of dry air at the same temperature and pressure is called what?
A. Vapor density
B. Specific gravity
C. Vapor pressure
Specific gravity
29
On page 196, if the specific gravity is less than ____, the material is lighter than water and will float.
1
30
On page 196, if the specific gravity is greater than ____, the material is heaver than water and will sink.
1
31
On page 196, the weight of a pure vapor or gas compared with the weight of an equal volume of dry air at the same temperature and pressure is called what?
A. Vapor Density
B. Specific Pressure
C. Vapor Pressure
Vapor Density
32
On page 196, if the vapor density of a gas is less than _____, the material is lighter than air and may rise.
1
33
On page 196, materials with a vapor density greater than ____, the material is heavier than air and will collect in low or enclosed areas.
1
34
On page 196, materials with a vapor density close to ` will likely _________ and will not travel unless moved by wind or ventilation drafts.
A. Sink
B. Float
C. hang at midlevel
Hang at midlevel
35
On page 196, if a reference source does not provide a vapor density, you can calculate it by using the molecular weight of the material. The molecular weight of air is _____.
29
36
On page 196, materials with a molecular weight of < 29 will _____.
A. Rise
B. Sink
C. Hang at midlevel
Rise
37
On page 196, materials with a molecular weight of > 29, will ____.
A. Rise
B. Sink
C. Hang at midlevel
Sink
38
On page 196, an easy way to remember common hazardous gases and simple asphyxiants lighter than air is the acronym __________.
4H MEDIC ANNA
39
On page 196, the chemicals found in the 4H MEDIC ANNA acronym are as follows:
Hydrogen
Helium
Hydrogen Cyanide
Hydrogen Fluoride
```
Methane
Ethylene
Diborane
Illuminating gas
Carbon Monoxide
```
Anhydrous Ammonia
Neon
Nitrogen
Acetylene
40
On page 196, the ability of a substance to change from the solid to the vapor phase without passing through the liquid phase such as dry ice is called what?
A. Deposition
B. Sublimation
C. Boiling Point
D. Melting Point
Sublimation
41
On page 196, the ability of a substance to change from a vapor to a solid without passing through the liquid phase is called what?
A. Deposition
B. Sublimation
C. Boiling Point
D. Melting Point
Deposition
42
On page 196, temperature above which a gas cannot be liquified no matter how much pressure is applied is called what?
Critical temperature
43
On page 196, pressure that must be applied to liquify a gas at its critical temperature is called what?
Critical Pressure
44
On page 196, a _____ cannot be liquified above its critical temperature.
A. Solid
B. Gas
Gas
45
On page 196, _____ occurs during the rapid release of a liquified gas that causes it to rapidly cool, slow down the boiling process, and remain in a liquid state.
Auto-refrigeration
46
On page 196, the ease with a liquid or solid can pass into the vapor state is called what?; the higher materials _____, the greater its rate of evaporation.
Volatility
47
On page 197, the ability of a solid, liquid, gas, or vapor to dissolve in water or other specified medium is called what?
A. Miscibility
B. Solubility
C. Viscosity
D. Volatility
Solubility
48
On page 197, the ability of materials to dissolve in a uniform mixture is called what?
A. Miscibility
B. Solubility
C. Viscosity
D. Volatility
Miscibility
49
On page 197, degree of solubility that is less than 0.1% is considered _____.
```
A. Moderate
B. Appreciable
C. Complete
D. Slight
E. Negligible
```
Negligible
50
On page 197, degree of solubility that is 0.1% to 1.0% is considered _____.
```
A. Moderate
B. Appreciable
C. Complete
D. Slight
E. Negligible
```
Slight
51
On page 197, degree of solubility that is 1 - 10% is considered _____.
```
A. Moderate
B. Appreciable
C. Complete
D. Slight
E. Negligible
```
Moderate
52
On page 197, degree of solubility that is greater than 10% is considered _____.
```
A. Moderate
B. Appreciable
C. Complete
D. Slight
E. Negligible
```
Appreciable
53
On page 197, degree of solubility that is soluble in all proportions is considered _____.
```
A. Moderate
B. Appreciable
C. Complete
D. Slight
E. Negligible
```
Complete
54
On page 197, a fast evaporation rate range is considered _____.
> 3.0
55
On page 197, a medium evaporation rate range is considered ____.
0.8 - 3.0
56
On page 197, a slow evaporation rate range is considered _____.
< 0.8
57
On page 197, concentration of material to which the body is exposed over a specific time period; _____ = concentration x time. This is called what?
Dose
58
On page 197, biological reaction caused by the dose in the body. The degree of harm is directly related to the dose and its impact at the biological site. This is called what?
Dose-Response
59
On page 197, minimum temperature at which a liquid gives off sufficient vapors that will ignite and flashover, but will not continue to burn without the addition of more heat is called what?
A. Fire point
B. Flash point
C. Ignition Temperature
D. Autoignition
Flash point
60
On page 197, minimum temperature at which a liquid gives off sufficient vapors that will ignite and sustain combustion is called what?
A. Fire point
B. Flash point
C. Ignition Temperature
D. Autoignition
Fire point
61
On page 197, minimum temperature required to ignite gas or vapor without a spark or flame being present is called what?
A. Fire point
B. Flash point
C. Ignition Temperature
D. Flammable Range
Ignition temperature
62
On page 197, ignition temperature is also known as ______.
Autoignition
63
On page 198, the ability of a material to undergo a chemical reaction with the release of energy is called what?
A. Reactivity / Instability
B. Polymerization
C. Catalyst
D. Dissociation
Reactivity / Instability
64
On page 198, used to control the rate of a chemical reaction by either speeding it up or slowing it down is called what?
A. Reactivity / Instability
B. Polymerization
C. Catalyst
D. Dissociation
Catalyst
65
On page 198, a material that causes visible destruction of, or irreversible alterations to, living tissue by chemical action at the point of contact is called what?
A. Reactivity / Instability
B. Polymerization
C. Catalyst
D. Corrosivity
Corrosivity
66
On page 198, the process by which acids and bases break down when dissolved in water to produce hydrogen ions or hydroxide ions is called what?
A. Reactivity / Instability
B. Polymerization
C. Corrosivity
D. Dissociation
Dissociation
67
On page 198, the percentage of an acid or base dissolved in water is called what?
A. Concentration
B. Strength
C. Polymerization
D. Dissociation
Concentration
68
On page 199, categories of chemical agents are:
Nerve Agents
Chocking agents
Blood agents
Vesicants or blister agents
Antipersonnel agents
69
On page 199, chemical warfare agents that are the most toxic of the known chemical agents is called what?
```
A. Choking agents
B. Nerve agents
C. Blood agents
D. Antipersonnel agents
E. Vesicants or Blister agents
```
Nerve agents
70
On page 199, chemical agents that can damage the membranes of the lung is called what?
```
A. Choking agents
B. Nerve agents
C. Blood agents
D. Antipersonnel agents
E. Vesicants or Blister agents
```
Chocking agents
71
On page 199, chemical agents that consist of a cyanide compound is called what?
```
A. Choking agents
B. Nerve agents
C. Blood agents
D. Antipersonnel agents
E. Vesicants or Blister agents
```
Blood agents
72
On page 199, chemical agents that pose both a liquid and vapor threat to all exposed skin and mucous membranes is called what?
```
A. Choking agents
B. Nerve agents
C. Blood agents
D. Antipersonnel agents
E. Vesicants or Blister agents
```
Vesicants or Blister Agents
73
On page 199, usually solid materials dispersed in a liquid spray and cause pain or burning on exposed mucous membranes and skin is called what?
```
A. Choking agents
B. Nerve agents
C. Blood agents
D. Antipersonnel agents
E. Vesicants or Blister agents
```
Antipersonnel Agents
74
On page 199, _____ refers to the length of time a chemical agent remains as a liquid.
A. Half-life
B. Reactivity
C. Persistence
D. Polymerization
Persistence
75
On page 199, a chemical agent is said to be persistent if it remains as a liquid for longer than ___ hours and non-persistent if it evaporates within that time.
24 hours
76
On page 203, most responders will evaluate a minimum of two or three independent information sources and reference guidebooks (aka ________) before permitting personnel to operate within the hot zone.
Rule of Threes
77
On page 203, in the United States, the most recognized emergency information center is _______.
A. Canadian Transport Emergency Centre (CANUTEC)
B. Computer Assisted Management of Emergency Operations (CAMEO)
C. Chemical Transportation Emergency Center (CHEMTREC)
D. The Wireless Information System for Emergency Responders (WISER)
E. U.S. Coast Guard and the Department of Transportation National Response Center (NRC)
F. Area Locations Of Hazardous Atmospheres (ALOHA)
CHEMTREC
78
On page 203, CHEMTREC provides a number of emergency and nonemergency services including:
1. Emergency Response Information
2. Emergency Communications
3. Participation in drills and exercises
79
On page 203, requests to participate in drills and exercises with CHEMTREC should be coordinated with CHEMTREC at least ____ hours before the exercise.
A. 24
B. 48
C. 72
D. 96
48
80
On page 204, _____ is the leading federal public health agency for hazmat incidents and operates a 24 hour emergency number.
A. National Pesticide Information Center (NPIC)
B. Chemical Transportation Emergency Center (CHEMTREC)
C. The Agency for Toxic Substances and Disease Registry (ATSDR)
D. Animal Poison Control Center (ASPCA)
The Agency for Toxic Substances and Disease Registry (ATSDR)
81
On page 204, _______ is the most widely used computer-based software tool used by hazmat responders.
A. Computer Assisted Management of Emergency Operations (CAMEO)
B. Mapping Applications for Response, Planning and Local Operational Tasks (MARPLOT)
C. The Wireless Information System for Emergency Responders (WISER)
D. Area Locations of Hazardous Atmospheres (ALOHA)
CAMEO
82
On page 205, _______ is an atmospheric plume dispersion model used for evaluating releases of hazardous materials vapors.
A. Computer Assisted Management of Emergency Operations (CAMEO)
B. Mapping Applications for Response, Planning and Local Operational Tasks (MARPLOT)
C. The Wireless Information System for Emergency Responders (WISER)
D. Area Locations of Hazardous Atmospheres (ALOHA)
ALOHA
83
On page 206, under the revised Globally Harmonized System of Classification and Labeling of Chemicals (GHS) requirements, OSHA will require that all SDS eventually be modified and formatted into 16 sections including:
```
Section 1 - Product identification
Section 2 - _____
Section 3 - Composition on ingredients
Section 4 - ______
Section 5 - ______
Section 6 - Accidental release measures
Section 7 - _______
Section 8 - Exposure controls / Personal protection
Section 9 - _________
Section 10 - Stability and Reactivity
Section 11 - Toxicological information
Section 12 - ______
Section 13 - Disposal
Section 14 - Transport information
Section 15 - ____
Section 16 - ___
```
Section 2 - Hazards Identification
Section 4 - First Aid
Section 5 - Firefighting
Section 7 - Handling and Storage
Section 9 - Physical and Chemical Properties
Section 12 - Ecological information
Section 15 - Regulatory Information
Section 16 - Other information
84
On page 206, under the revised Globally Harmonized System of Classification and Labeling of Chemicals (GHS) requirements, OSHA will require that all SDS eventually be modified and formatted into 16 sections including:
```
Section 1 - _____
Section 2 - Hazards Identification
Section 3 - _________
Section 4 - First Aid
Section 5 - Firefighting
Section 6 - _________
Section 7 - Handling and Storage
Section 8 - ________
Section 9 - Physical and Chemical Properties
Section 10 - _____
Section 11 - _____
Section 12 - Ecological information
Section 13 - ______
Section 14 - ______
Section 15 - Regulatory Information
Section 16 - Other information
```
Section 1 - Product and Company Identification
Section 3 - Composition on ingredients
Section 6 - Accidental release measures
Section 8 - Exposure Controls / Personal Protection
Section 10 - Stability and Reactivity
Section 11 - Toxicological information
Section 13 - Disposal
Section 14 - Transport information
85
On page 206, under the revised Globally Harmonized System of Classification and Labeling of Chemicals (GHS) requirements, OSHA will require that all SDS eventually be modified and formatted into 16 sections including:
```
Section 1 - ____
Section 2 - _____
Section 3 - _____
Section 4 - ______
Section 5 - ______
Section 6 - _______
Section 7 - _______
Section 8 - _______
Section 9 - _________
Section 10 - __________
Section 11 - _________
Section 12 - ______
Section 13 - ________
Section 14 - _________
Section 15 - ____
Section 16 - ___
```
```
Section 1 - Product identification
Section 2 - Hazards Identification
Section 3 - Composition on Ingredients
Section 4 - First Aid
Section 5 - Firefighting
Section 6 - Accidental Release
Section 7 - Handling and Storage
Section 8 - Exposure Controls / Personal Protection
Section 9 - Physical and Chemical Properties
Section 10 - Stability and Reactivity
Section 11 - Toxicological Information
Section 12 - Ecological information
Section 13 - Disposal
Section 14 - Transport Information
Section 15 - Regulatory Information
Section 16 - Other information
```
86
On page 206, under the revised Globally Harmonized System of Classification and Labeling of Chemicals (GHS) requirements, OSHA will require that all SDS eventually be modified and formatted into 16 sections. List the sections in order:
```
Section 1 - ____________
Section 2 - ___________
Section 3 - __________
Section 4 - __________
Section 5 - __________
Section 6 - __________
Section 7 - __________
Section 8 - __________
Section 9 - __________
Section 10 - __________
Section 11 - __________
Section 12 - __________
Section 13 - _______
Section 14 - ___________
Section 15 - ___________
Section 16 - ____________
```
First Aid Accidental Release Disposal
Stability and Reactivity Other information
Regulatory Information Ecological information
Handling and Storage Firefighting
Transport Information Composition on ingredients
Physical and Chemical Properties
Product Identification Hazards Identification
Exposure controls and Personal Protection
Toxicological Information
```
Section 1 - Product identification
Section 2 - Hazards Identification
Section 3 - Composition on Ingredients
Section 4 - First Aid
Section 5 - Firefighting
Section 6 - Accidental Release
Section 7 - Handling and Storage
Section 8 - Exposure Controls / Personal Protection
Section 9 - Physical and Chemical Properties
Section 10 - Stability and Reactivity
Section 11 - Toxicological Information
Section 12 - Ecological information
Section 13 - Disposal
Section 14 - Transport Information
Section 15 - Regulatory Information
Section 16 - Other information
```
87
On page 207, hazardous materials concentration can be identified, quantified, and verified in two ways:
1. On site use of direct-reading instruments
| 2. Laboratory analysis of samples
88
On page 207, _____ is also known as lag time, this is the period of time between when the instrument senses a product and when a monitor reading is produced.
Instrument Response Time
89
On page 207, monitors with a pump typically have a response time of _____ - ______ seconds.
3 - 5 seconds
90
On page 207, monitors without a pump and operating in a diffusion mode have response times of _____ - ______ seconds.
30 - 60 seconds
91
On page 207, use of sampling tubing add ____ to ____ seconds of lag time for each foot of hose.
1 - 2 seconds
92
If you are using a monitor with a pump with sampling tubing that is 3 feet long, what is the instrument response time?
A. 6 - 11 feet
B. 6 - 9 feet
C. 8 - 12 feet
D. 8 - 10 feet
6 - 11 feet
93
On page 207, conditions that will affect calibration include:
Atmosphere
Humidity
Temperature
Atmospheric Pressure
94
On page 207, the 4 types of calibration are:
Factory
Full
Field
Bump test
95
On page 207, instrument is shown a calibration gas and the readings are adjusted to the certified calibration gas values is what type of calibration?
A. Factory
B. Full
C. Field
D. Bump test
Full
96
On page 207, instrument is returned to a certified factory/facility for testing and adjustment by certified instrument technicians is what type of calibration?
A. Factory
B. Full
C. Field
D. Bump test
Factory
97
On page 207, instrument is exposed to a known calibration gas and the user verifies that the readings correspond to +10% of the calibration gas is what type of calibration?
A. Factory
B. Full
C. Field
D. Bump test
Field
98
On page 207, a field test in which and instrument is exposed to a known calibration gas and the sensors show a response or alarm is what type of calibration?
A. Factory
B. Full
C. Field
D. Bump test
Bump test
99
On page 208, as a general rule, direct reading instruments are not designed to measure and or detect airborne concentrations below ___ ppm and many are designed to detect one particular substance that may detect other substances and give false readings.
1 ppm
100
On page 208, a reading of zero should be reported as ______ rather than clean, since quantities of chemicals may be present that cannot be detected by that particular instrument.
A. Negative instrument response
B. Positive Instrument Response
C. No instrument response
D. None of the Above
no instrument response
101
On page 208, ______ and ______ operations pose the greatest threat to emergency responders.
Air monitoring
Reconnaissance operations
102
On page 208, ________ personnel have the greatest risk of exposure.
Air monitoring personnel
103
On page 209, acids are normally shades of ____ and purple; bases are shades of ______ on PH paper.
A. Blue; Red
B. Red; Blue
C. Blue; Purple
D. Blue; Green
Red; Blue
104
On page 210, the 3 types of LEL sensors are:
Catalytic bead
Metal oxide semi-conductors
Infrared
105
On page 210, the most common LEL sensor is the:
A. Infrared
B. PID
C. Catalytic Bead
D. Metal Oxide Semi-Conductor
Catalytic Bead
106
On page 211, the three types of radiation detectors are:
Scintillation
Geiger Mueller Tubes
Ion Chambers
107
On page 211, the range of scintillation is:
0.02 - 20 mR/hr
108
On page 211, the range for GM (Geiger Mueller Tubes) are ____ to ____ mR/hr or ___ to __ cpm.
0.2 - 20 mR / hr or 800 - 80,000 cpm
109
On page 211, the most common detection technology found in emergency response is _____.
A. Scintillation
B. Geiger Mueller Tubes
C. Ion chambers
D. None of the Above
Geiger Mueller Tubes
110
On page 211, the range for ion chambers are:
1 mR - 500 R/hr
111
On page 210, 1% of LEL = _____ ppm.
10,000 ppm
112
On page 211, an instrument reliability check should be performed before each use. If the reading is not with _____% of the initial reading listed on the calibration sticker, the instrument should be recalibrated.
+ or - 20%
113
On page 214, PID reads from ____ to _____ ppm.
0.1 - 2,000 ppm
114
On page 214, the ____ or ___ bulbs are typically used for emergency response purposes.
A. 10.2 or 11.7 eV
B. 11.7 eV or 10.6
C. 10.2 or 10.6
D. None of the above
10.2 or 10.6
115
On page 214, the _______ lamp will see most chemical agents but the _____ lamp is the better to see nerve agents.
A. 10.2 eV; 10.6 eV
B. 10.6 eV; 11.7 eV
C. 10.2 eV; 11.7 eV
D. None of the above
10.6 eV; 11.7 eV
116
On page 214, the _____ is more accurate than the PID.
FID
117
On page 217, monitoring results should be documented as follows:
Instrument
Location
Time
Level (foot, waist, head, etc.)
Reading
118
On page 218, a positive reading ___ above background levels would confirm the existence of a radiation hazard.
A. x2 (twice)
B. x3 (thrice)
C. x4
D. x5
x2 (twice)
119
On page 218, OSHA 1910.126 - Permit Required Confined Space Standard, clearly outlines the required monitoring priority as follows:
1. Oxygen deficient and enrichment
2. Flammability
3. Toxicity
120
On page 218, decisions regarding protective clothing recommendations, establishing hazard control zones, and evaluating any related public protective actions should be based on the following parameters:
1. Radioactivity
2. Flammability
3. Oxygen
4. Toxicity
121
On page 219, the risk-based response process must include:
Analyzing the problem
Identifying and assessing hazards
Evaluating the potential consequences
Determining the appropriate response actions
122
On page 219, the ________ process must include:
Analyzing the problem
Identifying and assessing hazards
Evaluating the potential consequences
Determining the appropriate response actions
Risk-based response process
123
On page 220, to identify or classify unknow materials, follow the steps in order:
Step 1 - ______
Step 2 - _______
Step 3 - _______
Step 4 - _________
Multi-gas meter
Radiation pagers or radiation survey meters
PH paper
Photoionization Detector (PID)
1. Radiation pagers or radiation survey meters
2. Multi-gas meter
3. Photoionization Detector (PID)
4. PH paper
124
On page 221, to properly use equipment provided by the AHJ, in performing field screening, follow the steps in order:
Steps 1 - 6
Explosive devices
Oxygen levels
VOC's
Corrosivity
Flammability
Radiation
1. Explosive devices
2. Radiation
3. Flammability
4. Corrosive
5. Oxygen
6. VOC's
125
On page 227, as a general rule, samples collected for product identification during emergency response operations should not be used for ________ purposes. Collect a separate sample for that.
Evidentiary
126
On page 227, all sample containers should be clearly labeled with the appropriate identifying information. Labels should include:
sample identifier
type of material
date obtained
investigators name and initials
127
On page 228, ________ have been used successfully by the FBI and USSS to manage and respond to threats at major public events such as parades, major sporting events, farm shows and fairs, and rallies or protests.
A. Hazardous Materials Technicians (HMTs)
B. Joint Hazard Assessment Teams (JHATs)
C. SWAT teams
D. Police departments
Joint Hazard Assessment Teams (JHATS)
128
On page 229, JHATs lessons learned; based on current intelligence for the day of the event, write tour mission statement and goals and post them for everyone to see. ___ to ____ strategic goals are all that you need for an event.
5 - 7
129
On page 229, JHAT stands for ________.
Joint Hazard Assessment Team
130
On page 227, if a sample is cold, keep it cold but don't _______.
freeze it
131
On page 227, if the sample is warm, make it ______ but don't ______.
make it cold; don't freeze it
132
On page 230, if the sample is frozen, keep it ______.
Frozen
133
On page 230, if the sample is dry, leave it ______.
Dry
134
On page 230, if the sample is wet, leave it _____.
Wet
135
On page 230, the only time evidence may be left alone is when stored in a _______ location designed for holding evidence.
Secure
136
On page 230, what tools are used for liquid sampling?
A. Stainless steel spoons, scoops, scalpels and spatulas
B. Transfer Pipettes, syringes, and tubing
C. Nylon or Dacron swabs, transfer swabs, cotton or synthetic gauze, and forceps
D. None of the above
Transfer Pipettes, syringes, and tubing
137
On page 230, what tools are used for solid sampling?
A. Stainless steel spoons, scoops, scalpels and spatulas
B. Transfer Pipettes, syringes, and tubing
C. Nylon or Dacron swabs, transfer swabs, cotton or synthetic gauze, and forceps
D. None of the above
Stainless steel spoons, scoops, scalpels, and spatulas
138
On page 230, what tools are used for wipe sampling sampling?
A. Stainless steel spoons, scoops, scalpels and spatulas
B. Transfer Pipettes, syringes, and tubing
C. Nylon or Dacron swabs, transfer swabs, cotton or synthetic gauze, and forceps
D. None of the above
Nylon or Dacron swabs, transfer swabs, cotton or synthetic gauze, and forceps
139
On page 230, when opening a drum to collect a sample, use a ___________.
A. sparking bung wrench
B. non-sparking bung wrench
C. Standard wrench
D. All of the above
Non-sparking bung wrench
140
On page 230, when dealing with flammable liquids, bung caps should be unscrewed very slowly, at approximately ____ inches per movement.
A. .35
B. 2
C. .25
D. .15
0.25 inches per movement
141
On page 230, a hazmat drum thief, _____ or polyethylene bailer is often used to collect drum samples.
A. Syringes
B. Coliwasa
C. Pipettes
D. Drum collectors
Coliwasa
142
On page 230, a _______, Coliwasa, or polyethylene bailer is often used to collect drum samples.
A. Syringes
B. Pipettes
C. Hazmat Drum Thief
D. Drum collectors
Hazmat Drum Thief
143
On page 230, a hazmat drum thief, Coliwasa, or _________is often used to collect drum samples.
A. Polyethylene Bailer
B. Syringes
C. Pipettes
D. Drum collectors
Polyethylene Bailer
144
On page 230, Sumps and wells - disposable _______ were made for monitoring groundwater wells but also work well for retrieving samples from other static water sources.
A. Hazmat Drum Thief
B. Polyethylene Bailers
C. Coliwasa
D. Turkey Baster
Polyethylene Bailers
145
On page 230, Puddles - use a ________ or a small plastic/glass cup attached to the end of a pole to collect a sample from a puddle.
A. Hazmat Drum Thief
B. Polyethylene Bailers
C. Coliwasa
D. Turkey Baster
Turkey Baster
146
On page 231, once the priorities of life safety and incident stabilization are addressed, evidence of the crime must be collected properly to assist in the prosecution phase. These incidents will pass through 4 distinct phases of management:
Tactical
Operational
Crime Scene
Remediation
147
On page 231, _____ phase involves the removal of any hostile threats from the hazmat environment. (SWAT team, law enforcement officers)
A. Crime Scene
B. Remediation
C. Tactical
D. Operational
Tactical
148
On page 231, a critical step in the _____ phase is the "render safe" of all explosive devices and anti-personnel devices. Once the scene is rendered safe, other emergency operations can be initiated, including rescue, medical treatment and transport, and hazard stabilization.
A. Crime Scene
B. Remediation
C. Tactical
D. Operational
Operational
149
On page 231, ____ phase addresses environmental health and safety activities to remediate any remaining hazards after the crime scene is processed.
A. Crime Scene
B. Remediation
C. Tactical
D. Operational
Remediation
150
On page 232, when collecting liquid, solid, or gas samples by steps: the order is typically:
1. Meet AHJ requirements
2. Wear gloves and respiratory equipment as a minimum
3. Use appropriate materials for each skill (syringes, spatula, or pump, etc.)
4. Store/Collect properly
151
On page 235, to visualize the likely behavior of the hazardous material, address 5 basic questions:
```
Who
How
Why
What harm
When
```
152
On page 236, _________ analysis is defined as the process of breaking down complex actions into smaller, more easily understood parts. It helps responders to understand, track, and predict a given sequence of events and decide when and how to change the sequence.
A. Task
B. Events
C. Skills
D. Operational
Events
153
On page 237, the General Hazardous Materials Behavior Model (GHMBO) events are as follows:
1. Stress
2. Breach
3. Release
4. Engulf
5. Impinge
6. Harm
154
On page 237, ____ is defined as an applied force or system of forces that tend to either strain or deform a container or trigger a change in the condition of the contents.
```
A. Breach
B. Stress
C. Release
D. Engulf
E. Impinge
F. Harm
```
Stress
155
On page 237, 3 types of common stresses on containers are:
Thermal
Mechanical
Chemical
156
On page 237, the other less likely stresses on containers are:
Etiological
Radiation
157
On page 238, _________ and _________are now installed on railroad tank cars transporting hazardous materials to minimize the potential for a mechanical stressor in the event of a train derailment, while jacketing is installed to minimize the impact.
Head shields and shelf couples
158
On page 238, head shields and shelf couplers are now installed on railroad tank cars transporting hazardous materials to minimize the potential for a mechanical stressor in the event of a train derailment, while _________ is installed to minimize the impact.
Jacketing
159
On page 238, _______ is the event causing a hazmat container to open up. It occurs when a container is stressed beyond its limits of recovery.
```
A. Stress
B. Breach
C. Release
D. Engulf
E. Impinge
F. Harm
```
Breach
160
On page 238, 5 basic types of breach behaviors are:
1. Disintegration
2. Runaway cracking
3. Failure of container attachments
4. Container punctures
5. Container splits or tears
161
On page 238, _____ is the total loss of container integrity.
```
A. Runaway cracking
B. Failure of container attachments
C. Disintegration
D. Container Punctures
E. Container splits or tears
```
Disintegration
162
On page 238, _____ occurs in closed containers such as liquid drums or pressure vessels. A small crack in a closed container suddenly develop into a rapidly growing crack that encircles the container.
```
A. Runaway cracking
B. Failure of container attachments
C. Disintegration
D. Container Punctures
E. Container splits or tears
```
Runaway Cracking
163
On page 238, ______ usually are associated with mechanical stressors that result in a breach of the container.
```
A. Runaway cracking
B. Failure of container attachments
C. Disintegration
D. Container Punctures
E. Container splits or tears
```
Container punctures
164
On page 238, __________ cracking is commonly associated with catastrophic boiling liquid expanding vapor explosion scenarios (BLEVE).
Linear cracking
165
On page 239, 4 types of release are:
Detonation
Violent rupture
Rapid Relief
Spills or leaks
166
On page 239, an explosive chemical reaction with a release rate of < 0.01 seconds is what type of release?
A. Spills or leaks
B. Rapid Relief
C. Detonation
D. Violent Rupture
Detonation
167
On page 239, associated with chemical reactions having a release rate of 0.01 seconds to 1 second is what type of release?
A. Spills or leaks
B. Rapid Relief
C. Detonation
D. Violent Rupture
Violent Rupture
168
On page 239, ranges from several seconds to several minutes, depending on the size of the opening, type of container, and the nature of its contents is what type of release?
A. Spills or leaks
B. Rapid Relief
C. Detonation
D. Violent Rupture
Rapid Relief
169
On page 239, release rates vary from minutes to hours is what type of release?
A. Spills or leaks
B. Rapid Relief
C. Detonation
D. Violent Rupture
Spills or leaks
170
On page 239, behavior that is commonly associated with runaway cracking and overpressures of closed containers is what type of release?
A. Spills or leaks
B. Rapid Relief
C. Detonation
D. Violent Rupture
Violent Rupture
171
On page 239, behavior that is associated with releases under pressure, through pressure relief valve actuations, broken or damaged valves, punctures, splits, tears or broken piping is what type of release?
A. Spills or leaks
B. Rapid Relief
C. Detonation
D. Violent Rupture
Rapid Relief
172
On page 239, behavior that is generally a low-pressure, nonviolent flow through broken or damaged valves and fittings, splits, tears, or punctures is what type of release?
A. Spills or leaks
B. Rapid Relief
C. Detonation
D. Violent Rupture
Spills or Leaks
173
On page 239, common plume dispersion models include:
ALOHA and CHARM
174
On page 240, ______ impingements have durations of minutes to hours.
A. Long-term
B. Short-term
C. Medium-term
D. None of the above
Short-term
175
On page 240, ________ impingements may extend over a period of days, weeks, and event months.
A. Long-term
B. Short-term
C. Medium-term
D. None of the above
Medium-term
176
On page 240, ______ impingements extend over years and perhaps even generations.
A. Long-term
B. Short-term
C. Medium-term
D. None of the above
Long-term
177
On page 240, _______ means to come in contact with exposures.
```
A. Harm
B. Engulf
C. Impinge
D. Release
E. Stress
F. Breach
```
Impinge
178
On page 242, 3 factors directly influence the level of harm:
1. timing of release
2. size of dispersion pattern
3. lethality of chemicals
179
On page 243, 3 situations that responders commonly deal with when evaluating risks:
damage assessment
behavior of chemicals and petroleum released underground
behavior of hazmats in sewer collection system
180
On page 245, regardless of the type of cargo tank truck involved, if it is overturned, ____ hours is a good initial estimate for how long the transportation infrastructure will be impacted.
A. 12
B. 1
C. 8
D. 4
8 hours
181
On page 245, aluminum-shell __________ cargo tank trucks commonly used for transportation of gasoline and fuel oils should NOT be up righted when loaded.
A. MC-306 / DOT-406
B. MC-307 / DOT-407
C. MC-312 / DOT-412
D. None of the above
MC-306 / DOT-406
182
On page 246, violent rupture of pressurized containers can be triggered by one of two related conditions:
1. crack in the container shell
| 2. thinning of tank shell
183
On page 246, key factors that affect tank damage severity as follows:
Specification of steel
Internal pressure
Damage affecting the heat affected zone of the weld
cold work
rate of application
184
On page 246, guidelines for damage assessment of pressurized containers include the following:
1. Gather information
2. Determine amount of material inside
3. Determine type of stress
4. Evaluate the stability of container
5. Examine all accessible surfaces
185
On page 246, guidelines for damage assessment of pressurized containers in order are:
```
Determine type of stress
Gather information
Evaluate the stability of container
Determine amount of material inside
Examine all accessible surfaces
```
1. Gather information
2. Determine amount of material inside
3. Determine type of stress
4. Evaluate the stability of container
5. Examine all accessible surfaces
186
On page 247, reduction of thickness of the tank shell that is an indention in the shell made by a sharp, chisel like object is what type of mechanical stress?
```
A. Wheel burn
B. Dent
C. Rail burn
D. Score
E. Gouge
F. Crack
G. Street Burn
```
Gouge
187
On page 247, reduction of thickness of the tank shell that is caused by prolonged contact with a turning railcar wheel is what type of mechanical stress?
```
A. Wheel burn
B. Dent
C. Rail burn
D. Score
E. Gouge
F. Crack
G. Street burn
```
Wheel burn
188
On page 247, reduction of thickness of the tank shell that is an indention in the shell made by a blunt object is what type of mechanical stress?
```
A. Wheel burn
B. Dent
C. Rail burn
D. Score
E. Gouge
F. Crack
G. Street burn
```
Score
189
On page 247, deformation of the tank and is caused by an impact from a blunt object is what type of mechanical stress?
```
A. Wheel burn
B. Dent
C. Rail burn
D. Score
E. Gouge
F. Crack
G. Street burn
```
Dent
190
On page 247, deformation in the shell of a railroad tank car that is a long dent with a gouge at the bottom of the inward dent. It is generally caused by the tank car passing over a stationary object is what type of mechanical stress?
```
A. Wheel burn
B. Dent
C. Rail burn
D. Score
E. Gouge
F. Crack
G. Street burn
```
Rail burn
191
On page 247, the ______ rail burns are the more serious because they have a tendency to cross a weld.
A. Horizontal
B. Circumferential
C. Longitudinal
D. Vertical
Longitudinal
192
On page 250, ground water supplies can become contaminated by concentrations as small as _____.
A. 100 ppm
B. 100 ppb
C. 200 ppb
D. 200 ppm
200 ppb
193
On page 251, 4 primary elements of a wastewater system:
Collection and pumping
Filtering system
Liquid treatment system
Solid treatment system
