Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

CSCS TEST > Ch 1 structure and function of body systems > Flashcards

Ch 1 structure and function of body systems Flashcards

1
Q

skeletal muscles are under the control of which part of the brain?

A

cerebral cortex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

the musculoskeletal system is comprised of…

A

muscle, bones, joints, tendons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

muscles can only — not —

A

pull, not push

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

there are approximately —-bones in the body

A

206

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

the axiel skeleton consists of —

A

skull (cranium) vertebrae ribs sternum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

the appendicular skeleton consists of —

A

shoulder girdle arms pelvic girdle legs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

fibrous joints (movement)

A

very little/none (skull sutures)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

cartilaginous joints (movement)

A

limited (disks)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

synovial joints (movement)

A

very mobile

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

articulating bone ends are covered with —-

A

hyaline cartilage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

types of joints that rotate about one axis

A

uniaxial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

types of joints that rotate about two axes

A

biaxial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

types of joints that rotate about three axes

A

multiaxial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

number of vertebrae 1) cervical 2)thoracic 3)lumbar 4)sacrum 5)coccyx

A

cervical = 7 thoracic = 12 lumbar =5 sacral = 5 fused coccyx = 3-5 fused

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

each skeletal muscle is an organ that contains —–

A

muscle tissue connective tissue nerves blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Epimysium covers (1) and is continuous with (2)

A

1) muscles 2) tendons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

tendons attach to the bone

A

periosteum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what are fasciculi?

A

bundles of muscle fibers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

endomysium in continuous with —

A

the sarcolema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

epimysium, perimysium, and endomysium are continuous with —-

A

the tendon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

the junctions between a motor neuron and the fibers it innervates

A

motor end plate/ neuromuscular junction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

each muscle cell has only one

A

neuromuscular junction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

a motor neuron and the fibers it innervates

A

motor unit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

sarcoplasm is the —-

A

cytoplasm of a muscle fiber

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

sarcoplasm contains —-

A

contractile proteins (actin/myosin) other proteins stored glycogen and fat particles sarcoplasmic reticulum mitochondria enzymes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

draw a muscle

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

draw a motor unit

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Thick contractile filaments

A

Myosin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

thin contractile filaments

A

actin

myosin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

a pair of myosin filaments form a —–which interacts with —–

A

crossbridge which interacts with actin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

actin and myosin are orginized longitudinally in the smallest contractile unit of skeletal muscle, the —

A

sarcomere

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

M-bridge

A

where adjacent myosin filaments anchor to eachother

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Z-line

A

where actin filaments are anchored

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

how many actin filaments surround one myosin filament?

A

6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

how many myosin filaments surround each actin filament?

A

3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

A-band

A

corresponds with the alignment of the myosin filaments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

I-band

A

corresponds with areas in two adjacent sarcomeres that contain only actin filaments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Z-line

A

the middle of the I-band

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

H-Zone

A

area in the center of the sarcomere where only myosin is present

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

the H-zone —- during muscle contraction

A

decreases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

the I-band —- during muscular contraction

A

decreases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

sarcoplasmic reticulum: where, what does it store?

A

system of tubules which terminate around the Z-line, store calcium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

the regulation of —- controls muscle contraction

A

calcium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

T-tubules

A

transverse tubules: run perpendicular to the SR (sarcoplasmic reticulum)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

calcium is released to all surface depths of a muscle….producing a ….

A

at the same time, producing a coordinated contraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

draw the sliding filament theory

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

the sliding filament theory states:

A

actin filaments at each end of the sarcomere slide toward the center of the sarcomere, pulling the Z-lines towards the center of the sarcomere, shortening the muscle fiber

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

only a small displacement of the actin filament occurs with each flexion of the myosin crossbridge, so….

A

very rapid, repeated flexions must occur in many crossbridges throughout the entire muscle for measurable movement to occur.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

troponin

A

a protein that sits on the actin filament

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

for muscle contraction to occur, calcium must bind with

A

the troponin that sits on the actin filament

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

troponin and calcium binding activates

A

tropomyosin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

tropomyosin allows for

A

a strong bond between actin and myosin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

the amount of force produced by a muscle at any given time is directly related to

A

the number of myosin crossbridges bound to actin filaments cross-sectionally at that instant in time.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

power stroke def.

A

the energy for pulling action during muscle contraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

hydrolysis def.

A

breakdown of ATP (adenosine triphosphate) to ADP (adenosine diphosphate)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

hydrolysis is catalyzed by the enzyme…

A

myosin adenosine triphosphatase (ATPase)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Contraction phase of muscle contraction

A

when hydrolysis happens and ATP is converted to ADP through the enzyme ATPase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Recharge phase of muscle contraction

A

the process of contraction phase plus another ATP molecule replacing the ADP on the myosin crossbridge to allow temporary relaxation for another contraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

relaxation phase of muscle contraction

A

stimulation of nerve stops, calcium is pumped back in to the SR which prevents the link between actin and myosin filaments.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

type of signal that comes from motor neurons

A

electrochemical signals from spinal cord to muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

action potential def

A

when a motor neuron fires an impulse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

muscles that must function with great precision have motor units that innervate….

A

as few as one muscle fiber

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Muscles that produce large, gross movements have motor neurons that innervate….

A

many (several hundred) fibers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

action potential def

A

electric current that flows along a motor neuron

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

an action potential is not capable of….

A

directly exciting muscle fibers. The motor neuron excites the muscle fiber(s) that it innervates by chemical transmission.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

arrival of the action potential at the nerve terminal causes release of…

A

acetylcholine, which diffuses across the neuromuscular junction, cuasing excitation of the sarcolemma.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

the all or none principle of muscle

A

if there is a motor neuron stimulus, all innervated fibers will contract; a stronger action potential cannot create a stronger contraction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

twitch

A

a brief muscle contraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

if multiple action potentials cause multiple muscle twitches…

A

the force of the twitches summates and the resulting force is greater than that produced by a single twitch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

tetanus

A

when twitches happen so rapidly that they merge and completely fuse; this is the maximal amount of force the motor unit can develop.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

classification of muscle fibers by twitch time

A

slow twitch and fast twitch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

fast twitch muscle/ motor unit

A

develops force and also relaxis rapidly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

slow twitch muscle/motor units

A

develop force and relax slowly, long twitch time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

type 1 fibers

A

slow twitch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

type IIa fibers

A

fast twitch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

type IIx fibers

A

fast twitch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

type I fiber characteristics

A

high capacity for aerobic activity

withstand fatigue

limited force development (low myosin ATPase activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

type II fiber characteristics

A

inneficient, fatigue quickly

rapid force development

high anaerobic output

high myosin and ATPase activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Difference between type IIa and type IIx fibers

A

type IIa have greater capacity for aerobic metabolism, more capillaries surrounding them, greater resistance to fatigue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

motor unit recruitment patterns are graded from less to more force…

A

in two ways:

1) variation in twitches
2) increasing the number of motor units that are activated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Proprioceptors

A

specialized sensory receptors that provide the CNS with info needed to maintain muscle tone and perform complex coordinated movements

82
Q

muscle spindles

A

proprioceptors made of intrafusal fibers (within the muscle) that run parallel to the extrafusal fibers.

Provides info concerning muscle length and rate of change in length.

Indicates the degree to which muscle must be activated to overcome resistance

promote muscle activation

83
Q

Example of the muscle spindle activity

A

knee jerk reflex

84
Q

golgi tendon organs (GTOs)

A

proprioceptors located in tendons near the myotendinous junction and attached within the muscle

as tension in muscle and tendon increases, GTO sends an inhibitory signal to the motor neuron

85
Q

One fundamental adaptation of heavy resistance training

A

the ability of the motor cortex to override the GTO inhibition

86
Q

roles of the cardiovascular system

A

transport nutrients

remove waste and by-products

role in regulating fluids, temp, and other functions

87
Q

heart basic structure

A

two interconnected pumps

each pump has two chambers: atrium and ventricle

right and left atria deliver blood in to R and L ventricles

R and L ventricles supply lungs and body

right side pumps blood through the lungs

left side pumps blood through the rest of the body

88
Q

atrioventricular (AV) valves

A

tricuspid valve

bicuspid (mitral) valve

prevent the flow of blood from the ventricles back in to the atria during ventricular contraction (systole)

89
Q

systole

A

contraction of the ventricles

90
Q

semilunar valves

A

aortic valve

pulmonary valve

prevent backflow from the aorta and pulmonary arteries into the ventricles during ventricular relaxation (diastole)

91
Q

heart valves open and close…

A

passively, they close when a backward pressure gradient pushes blood back against the valve and open when a forward pressure gradient forces blood to open the valve.

92
Q

diastole

A

ventricular relaxation

93
Q

The heart conduction system controls the…

A

mechanical contraction of the heart

94
Q

the conduction system is composed of:

A

SA (sinoatrial) node

internodal pathways

AV (atrioventricular) node

AV (atrioventricular) bundle

95
Q

SA (sinoatrial) node

A

intrisic pacemaker

where rhythmic electrical impulses are normally initiated

96
Q

internodal pathways

A

pathways that conduct the impulse from the SA node to the AV node

97
Q

AV (atrioventricular) node

A

where the impulse from the SA node is delayed slightly before passing into the ventricles

Located in the posterior wall of the R atrium

98
Q

AV (atrioventricular) bundle

A

conducts the impulse from the AV node to the ventricles

Left and Right bundle branches:

branches divide in to Purkinje fibers and conduct impulses to all parts of the ventricles

99
Q

ventricles contract at..

A

approximately the same time

100
Q

label the parts of the heart

A
101
Q

diagram blood flow through the heart

A
102
Q

myocardium def

A

heart muscle

103
Q

part of the brain that controls heart rhythm

A

cardiovascular center of the medulla

104
Q

signals to the heart are sent through the…

A

sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems (components of the autonomic nervous system)

105
Q

chronotropic effect

A

stimulation of sympathetic nerves accelerates depolarization of the SA node (causes heart to beat faster)

106
Q

stimulation of the parasympathetic nervous system effect on heart

A

slows rate of SA node discharge, slows the HR

107
Q

normal HR range

A

60-100 BPM

108
Q

bradycardia

A

HR fewer than 60 BPM

109
Q

tachycardia

A

HR more than 100 BPM

110
Q

electrocardiogram (ECG)

A

graphic representation of the activity of the heart

111
Q

an ECG is composed of:

A

P-wave

QRS complex (Q-wave, R-wave, S-wave)

T-wave

112
Q

P-wave and QRS complex represent…

A

depolarization which leads to mechanical contraction

P-wave = generated by changes in electrical potential that result in atrial contraction

QRS complex = generated by changes in electrical potential that result in ventricular contraction

113
Q

depolarization

A

reversal of membrane electrical potential inside the membrane where the normally negative potential become slightly positive and the outside becomes slightly negative

114
Q

T-wave

A

caused by repolarization of ventricles

115
Q

atrial repolarization is…

A

masked by QRS complex

116
Q

the central and peripheral circulation form a…

A

single closed circuit system with two components:

atrial system

venous system

117
Q

the atrial system..

A

carries blood away from the heart

118
Q

the venous system …

A

returns blood toward the heart

119
Q

the function of arteries is…

A

to rapidly pump blood away from the heart

120
Q

arteries have —-muscular walls

A

strong

121
Q

control vessels through which blood enters capillaries

A

arterioles

122
Q

what facilitates the exchange of O2, fluid, nutrients, electrolytes, hormones, and other substances between blood and interstitial fluid in body tissues?

A

capillaries

123
Q

capillaries are…

A

thin and permeable

124
Q

function of venous system

A

to transport blood back to the heart

125
Q

what collects blood from the capillaries and takes it to progressively larger veins?

A

venules

126
Q

pressure in the venous system is…

A

low

127
Q

the most abundant by-product of metabolism is…

A

carbon dioxide

128
Q

function of blood

A

transport of O2 from the lungs to tissues for use in cellular metabolism and removal of CO2

129
Q

the transport of O2 in the blood is accomplished through…

A

hemoglobin

130
Q

the major component of blood

A

red blood cells

131
Q

the primary function of the respiratory system

A

the basic exchange of oxygen and CO2

132
Q

3 functions of the nasal cavity

A

warming air

humidifying air

purifying air

133
Q

air is distributed to the lungs by way of the…

A

1) trachea
2) bronchi
3) bronchioles
4) alveoli

134
Q

what is the first generation respiratory passage?

A

trachea

135
Q

what is the second generation repiratory passage?

A

bronchi

136
Q

what are the generation 3-23 respiratory passages?

A

bronchioles

137
Q

where are gasses exchanged in respiration?

A

alveoli

138
Q

the amount and movement of the air and expired gases in and out of the lungs are controlled by….

A

expansion and recoil of the lungs

139
Q

how do the lungs expand and recoil?

A

1) by the downward and upward movement of the diaphragm
2) elevation and depression of the ribs to increase and decrease back-to-front diameter of the chest cavity

140
Q

normal, quiet breathing is accomplished by movement of the ….

A

diaphragm

141
Q

during inspiration, the diaphragm…

A

contracts

142
Q

contraction of the diaphragm creates—– bringing——

A

negative pressure (vacuum) in the chest cavity bringing air in to the lungs

143
Q

during expiration, the diaphragm….

A

relaxes, the elastic recoil of the lungs, chest wall, and abdominal structures compresses the lungs and air is expelled

144
Q

During heavy breathing, extra force is required from…

A

contraction of the abdominal muscles which push the abdomen upward against the bottom of the diaphragm

and

raising of the rib cage which allows the stermum to move forward

145
Q

list the muscles of inspiration

A

serratus anterior

scalenes

SCM

External intercostals

146
Q

list the muscles of expiration

A

abs (rectus abdominis, external and internal obliques, transverse abdominis)

internal intercostals

147
Q

the pressure in the narrow space between the lung pleura and the chest wall

A

pleural pressure

148
Q

pleura def

A

membranes enveloping the lungs and lining the chest walls

149
Q

function of the pleura

A

allows the lungs to move with the chest wall when expanding or recoiling

150
Q

the pressure inside the alveoli when the glottis is open and no air is flowing in or out of the lungs

A

alveolar pressure

*when this happens, the pressure in all parts of the respiratory tree are the same (atmospheric pressure)

151
Q

to cause inward flow of air during inspiration, the pressure in the alveoli must…

A

drop to a value slightly below atmospheric pressure

152
Q

during expiration, alveolar pressure must…

A

rise above atmospheric pressure

153
Q

the effect of training and the valsalva maneuver can result in….which….

A

training adaptations to breathing muscles which helps to perserve pulmonary function with training

154
Q

T/F it is not necessary to specifically train the muscles of respiration except following surgery or prolonged bed rest

A

true

155
Q

pulmonary ventilation (breathing) at rest requires approximately—— of total energy expended by the body

A

3-5%

156
Q

during heavy exercise, as much as —— of body energy expenditure is required

A

8-15%

157
Q

the simple, random movement of 02 from alveoli in to pulmonary blood and C02 from pulmonary blood in to alveoli

A

diffusion

158
Q

the energy for diffusion is provided by…

A

the kinetic motion of the 02 and C02 molecules themselves

159
Q

net diffusion of gasses in the lungs occurs from…

A

the region of high concentration to the region of low concentration

160
Q

the process of gas exchange in the lungs is so rapid, it is thought to be…

A

instantaneous

161
Q

draw the respiratory anatomy including:

trachea

bronchi

bornchioles

alveoli

A
162
Q

the bracketing technique is an example of what kind of training?

A

acceleration training

163
Q

what is the bracketing technique?

A

an athlete performes a sport movement with less than normal and greater than normal resistance

164
Q

one potential problem of the bracketing technique is…

A

change in weight can change the technique of the movement

165
Q

friction def

A

the resistive force encountered when one attempts to move an object while it is pressed against another object

166
Q

it takes more force to —-a movement between two surfaces than it does to —-that movement

A

initiate, maintain

167
Q

power output increases with….

A

speed

168
Q

fluid resistance def

A

the resistive force encountered by an object moving through a fluid (liquid or gas) or by a fluid moving around or past an object

169
Q

sports that encounter fluid resistance

A

swimming

rowing

discus (air)

baseball

sprinting

170
Q

hydraulic exercise machines

A

liquid resistance

171
Q

pneumatic exercise machines

A

gas resistance

172
Q

what are the two sources of fluid resistance

A

surface drag

form drag

173
Q

surface drag results from…

A

the friction of a fluid passing along the surface of an object

174
Q

form drag results from

A

the way in which a fluid presses against the front or rear of an object passing through it

175
Q

Exercies devices that use elasticity

A

springs

bands

bows

rods

176
Q

the problem with elastic resistance

A

low resistance at beginning, higher resistance at end of movement

177
Q

force capability of musle is greatest at

A

the beginning of a movement

178
Q

resistance training injury rate

A

4 per 1000 hours of participation

179
Q

3 areas of the body to focus on in avoiding resistance training injuries

A

back

shoulders

knees

180
Q

85-90% of all disk herniations occur at

A

L4-5

and

L5-S1

181
Q
A
182
Q

what is a “fluid ball”?

A

the abdominal fluids and tissue kept under pressure by tensing the deep abdominal and diaphragm muscles is described as a fluid ball

183
Q

the valsalva maneuver —– for generation of intra-abdominal pressure

A

not necessary

184
Q

in the valsalva maneuver

A

the glottis is closed, thus keeping air from escaping the lungs

185
Q

an advantage of the valsalva maneuver is that it

A

increases the regidity of the entire torso, making it easier to support heavy loads

186
Q

undesireable side effects of the valsalva maneuver

A

compressive force on the heart, making it more difficult for blood to return to the heart

transient raise in blood pressure to slightly elevated levels

187
Q

is it safer to use the valsalva maneuver or not?

A

not the safest option, best option is to contract the abdominal muscles and diaphragm

188
Q

the valsalva maneuver should —– be used with most resistance training

A

not

189
Q

weightlifitn belts increase…

A

intra abdominal pressure

190
Q

if an athlete performs all of the exercises with a lifting belt, then…

A

they may not get enough training through the abdominal muscles to develop properly

191
Q

a weight belt is not needed for exercises that…

A

do not directly affect the lower back

192
Q

for exercises directly stressing the lower back, an individual should refrain from wearing a belt during…

A

lighter sets, but may wear one for near maximal sets

193
Q

individuals may reasonably choose never to wear lifting belts if they…

A

build up the strength of their back muscles and the muscles that generate intra-abdominal pressure in a gradual manner

194
Q

forces generated during resistance training can lead to these problems in the shoulder

A

tearing of ligaments, muscles, tendons

impingement

tendinitis

195
Q

the knee is prone to injury because of…

A

its position between two long levers

196
Q

during resistance training, the part of the knee that is most susceptible to forces

A

patella and surrounding tissue

197
Q

the main function of the patella is

A

to hold the patellar tendon away from the knee’s axis of rotation, increasing the moment arm of the quadriceps and increasing the quadriceps mechanical advantage

198
Q

the main risk to the knee when training

A

patellar tendonitis due to innapropriate volume and intensity

199
Q

T/F there is evidence knee wraps help prevent injury

A

false

use of knee wraps should be limited, or if used at all, should be limited to the sets with the heaviest loads

200
Q

primary concerns with elobw and wrist injuries in strength and conditioning comes from

A

overhead lifts, however, the risk is small

201
Q

avoiding resistance training before physeal closure of epiphyseal plates is…

A

not necessary

CSCS TEST (3 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions