Ch: 2, 6, 10, 11, 14, & App. 3 Flashcards

(236 cards)

1
Q

Severe and sudden onset

A

Acute

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Gradual onset or ongoing condition

A

Chronic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Commission on accreditation of allied health education programs; the national accreditation granting body for sonography education

A

CAAHEP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

A fluid-filled structure; presents no echoes; black on ultrasound

A

Anechoic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Produces many echoes; very bright on ultrasound image

A

Echogenic/ hyperechoic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Structure with both fluid and solid components; therefore, it presents a mixed echogenicity

A

Complex structure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

The principal that health care workers have a duty to take reasonable steps to keep personal medical information confidential consistent with the person’s medical preferences

A

HIPAA

Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Differing in composition; “patchy” with inconsistent echogenicity

A

Heterogeneous

Ex) liver with multiple masses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Uniform in composition; “smooth” with consistent echogenicity

A

Homogeneous

Ex) healthy liver, healthy/ normal spleen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Same echogenicity (used as a comparative term)

A

Isoechoic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

The amount of sound beam passing through a structure - seen posterior to fluid-filled structures

A

Through transmission

Ex) cysts, bladder, blood vessels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

The process of gaining permission before a medical procedure is conducted

A

Informed consent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

The narrowing of an artery

A

Arterial stenosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Stocked with necessities needed to resuscitate a patient experiencing cardiac arrest

A

Crash cart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Written order by physician directing healthcare workers not to perform lifesaving measures

A

DNR

DO NOT RESUSCITATE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Difficulty swallowing

A

Dysphasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Painful or difficulty urinating

A

Dysuria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Blood clot/ thrombus located within a pulmonary artery - often results in deep vein thrombosis

A

Pulmonary embolus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Fainting

A

Syncope

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Common cause of fainting brought in by involuntary stimulation of nerve, resulting in decreased blood flow to the brain

A

Vasovagal reaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Drop in maternal blood pressure secondary to the fetus compressing the maternal ivc

A

Supine hypotensive syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

How can hypotensive syndrome be relieved?

A

Place the patient right lateral decubitus or left lateral decubitus to relieve the pressure on the ivc and aorta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the patient preparation for a transvaginal sonogram?

A

No patient preparation needed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What term relates to increased vascularity in an organ or structure?

A

Hyperemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What is the surgical connection btw two structures?
Anastomosis
26
The formation of a blood clot is termed ___.
Thrombosis
27
What is the name for areas located outside of the uterus posterior to the broad ligaments?
Adnexas
28
What is the medical term for twisting?
Torsion
29
Why should you do if you observe a crack in a transducer before a sonographic exam?
Tell someone in charge immediately
30
What is the term for abnormal lymph nodes?
Lymphadenopathy
31
What is the first measurement of the embryo called in the first trimester?
Crown-rump length
32
The splitting of one vessel into two vessels is termed a(n) ____.
Bifurcation
33
What is a valuable trait to have as a sonography student?
Assertiveness
34
Believing in yourself and your abilities is
Self confidence
35
Term defined as to achieve for the sake of achieving
Motivation
36
Having the ability to recognize the emotions of self and others and the capacity to use those emotions in the decision-making process
Emotional intelligence
37
What is not a reason why one should identify his or her personality type?
To make appropriate personality changes based on circumstances
38
Defined as the pleasure one gains from being able to help others
Compassion satisfaction
39
The form of reasoning by which one makes an educated guess based on facts
Inductive reasoning
40
An educated guess based on clinical history findings
Clinical hypothesis
41
The strength of mind that allows someone to face difficult circumstances
Fortitude
42
Without echoes
Anechoic
43
Having few echoes
Hypoechoic
44
Work-related condition in which one experiences physical and emotional exhaustion
Burnout
45
What is the correct sequence of the sonographic reasoning process?
``` Clinical history Clinical hypothesis Investigative imaging Sonographic findings Clinical correlation ```
46
What is not provided on sonographer report?
At least three differential diagnoses
47
What is one thing that would be least likely to disrupt your work relationship with a sonographer?
Being chronically early
48
What is the least helpful technique for acquiring extra scan time?
Being erratic with protocol images needed for examination
49
Means same echogenicity
Isoechoic
50
A set of values based on hard work and diligence
Work ethic
51
What is not considered one of the first-rate standards in sonography?
Playing by your own rules
52
Process we use to make choices based on our moral principles and personal values
Ethical decision making
53
Accepted rules of conduct
Moral principles
54
Ethical theory may also be referred to as consequentialism?
Teleological theory
55
Application of our moral principles with others in the medical profession, including our coworkers, patients, and community
Medical ethics
56
Medical ethics principle that relates to honesty in all aspects of life
Principle of veracity
57
Group held beliefs that are agreed upon by individuals or groups of individuals
Norms
58
Medical with is principle that relates to never making promises that you cannot keep
Principle of fidelity
59
When a patient refuses to have a sonographic procedure, you should
Not perform the procedure
60
Medical ethics principle that relates to treating all patients equally, no matter what economic, physical, or mental condition
Principle of justice
61
If a pregnant patient asked you if she should have an abortion, you should
Tell her to seek professional medical guidance concerning abortion
62
Regarding keepsake sonography, the American institute of ultrasound in medicine states that
The procedure is inappropriate if it is not medically indicated and ordered by a physician
63
Actions aimed at increasing the welfare of others
Altruism
64
Not a principle of professionalism according to board of internal medicine Altruism Duty Humanism Atheism
Atheism
65
The everyday practice of good manners and being agreeable within the exercise of one’s occupation
Professional etiquette
66
What is not appropriate professional etiquette?
Referring to patient by their first name
67
Demanding your very best
Excellence
68
Who makes final decisions about a patient’s care?
The patient
69
“Do to others what you would have them do to you”
The golden rule
70
Which is an appropriate topic to discuss at work? Politics Religion Movies Career aspirations
Movies
71
Most common way to obtain a pulse in an adult
Radial artery
72
Refers to rapid heart rate
Tachycardia
73
A common nosocomial infection
UTI
74
A urinary catheter should always be located
Below the patient’s bladder
75
Term for difficult breathing
Dyspnea
76
What would not typically result in increased respiration’s?
Hypothermia
77
The body’s ability to maintain internal equilibrium
Homeostasis
78
Typical oxygen therapy ranges between
1 and 15 LPM
79
The normal range for adult respirations is
12-20 breaths a minute
80
The normal blood pressure for an adult is
120/80 mm Hg
81
What would typically not lead to decreased respiratory rate?
Fever
82
What would be least likely to affect blood pressure?
Drowsiness
83
Which is not a cause of bradycardia?
Exercise
84
Typical pulse rate for an adult
Btw 60 and 100 bpm
85
Which is not a means of monitoring pulse? Sphygmomanometer Arterial line Electrocardiogram Pulse oximeter
Sphygmomanometer
86
What is the pulse site in the neck?
Carotid pulse
87
Term for abnormal rhythm of the pulse
Arrhythmia
88
Normal average body temp
98.6
89
What is pulse obtained on the medial side of the ankle?
Posterior tibial pulse
90
What is typically the first step for the sonographer in most emergency situations in the hospital system?
Alert the emergency response team
91
Also referred to as a mini stroke
Transient ischemic attack
92
What type of shock results from the loss of blood or other bodily fluids?
Hypovolemic shock
93
Type of shock that results in peripheral vasodilation due to nervous system dysfunction
Neurogenic shock
94
Bluish discoloration of the skin
Cyanosis
95
What type of occurrence can result from a patient’s apprehension about an invasive procedure?
Vasovagal reaction
96
What stage of shock continuum results in lactic acidosis?
Progressive
97
What medical emergency consists of the heart abruptly stopping its function and the loss of consciousness?
Cardiac arrest
98
Not considered a typical symptom of diabetes mellitus
Polymenorrhea
99
Typical cause of pulmonary embolism?
Deep vein thrombosis
100
You are performing sonogram on patient with history of epilepsy. Suddenly, the patient becomes rigid, her eyes stretch wide open, and she begins to jerk. What most likely is happening?
Seizure
101
An increased depth of breath
Hyperpnea
102
Heart dysfunction as the result of pressure cause by fluid around the heart
Cardiac tamponade
103
Low pressure caused by rapid change in position is referred to as
Orthostatic hypotension
104
What type of shock is associated with an invasion of bacteria and the body’s subsequent reaction?
Septic shock
105
What term is defined as profuse perspiration?
Diaphoresis
106
What would cause an obstetric patient who is at 32 weeks’ gestation to experience syncope symptoms during an obstetric sonogram?
Supine hypotensive syndrome
107
Which type of diabetes is diagnosed most often when patients are younger than 30 years old?
Type 1
108
What should the sonographer do in the case of a patient who has a DNR?
Follow protocol for DNR orders for your institution
109
What type of shock is associated with an extreme allergic reaction?
Anaphylactic shock
110
Enlargement of an organ or structure
Hypertrophy
111
Test used to evaluate for peripheral artery disease that establishes a ratio of the blood pressure in the lower legs to the blood pressure in the arms
Ankle brachial index
112
What is the patient preparation for a transvaginal exam?
No prep required
113
In the first trimester of pregnancy, the fetal neck may be examined with sonography and a measurement obtained. What is the measurement called?
Nuchal translucency
114
What contrast solution is typically used in sonohysterography?
Saline
115
Increased vascularity in an organ or structure
Hyperemia
116
Surgical connection between two structures
Anastomosis
117
The formation of a blood clot
Thrombosis
118
Another word for perpendicular
Orthogonal
119
What is the name for areas located outside of the uterus posterior to the broad ligaments?
Adnexas
120
What evaluates tissue stiffness?
Elastography
121
___ would most likely employ the valsalva technique.
Lower venous sonography
122
Which quality assurance phantom would be most likely used to evaluate the transducers effectiveness at identifying liver masses?
Doppler phantom
123
The FAST exam would most likely be used in what setting?
Emergency room
124
Medical term for twisting
Torsion
125
What should you do if you observe a crack in a transducer before a sonographic examination?
Tell someone in charge immediately
126
Abnormal lymph nod s
Lymphadenopathy
127
What is the first measurement of the embryo called in the first trimester?
Crown-rump length
128
The splitting of one vessel into two vessels
Bifurcation
129
If you roll the ultrasound machine over the transducer wire and notice damage, what should you do?
Report damage immediately and do not use transducer
130
Based upon findings, different possibilities of what it could be
Differential diagnoses
131
Reason for exam
Indication
132
Basic assessment of patient:
Alert Confused Drowsy Unresponsiveness
133
ACDU scale is
Basic assessment
134
Types of shock:
``` Hypovolemic Cardiogenic Neurogenic Septic Anaphylactic ```
135
Shock where there is bacteria in the body
Septic
136
Shock where there is dysfunction of nervous system
Neurogenic shock
137
Medicine injected into patient and lights up differently on ultrasound (makes things easier to see)
Contrast agent *must be attentive as the patient may have an allergic reaction
138
What is syncope?
Fainting/ loss of consciousness
139
When a patient isn’t getting enough blood supply to the brain due to hunger, trauma, or emotional distress, they may experience ____
Synecope
140
Symptom of synecope
``` Palor (paleness) Dizziness Nausea Hypernea (fast breathing) Tachycardia (rapid heart rate) ```
141
When a patient is experiencing supine hypotensive syndrome, you should ___
Turn them over on LEFT side
142
What is SIMS position?
Left side, right knee up
143
Blood clot that has traveled and now obstructs blood flow to the lungs
Pulmonary embolism (PE)
144
Deep vein thrombosis may lead to ___
Pulmonary embolism
145
Cerebrovascular accident is
A stroke (CVA)
146
Mini stroke that can be an indicator of an imminent, more severe stroke
Transient ischemic attack (TIA)
147
If a patient may have experienced a stroke, you should think ____ and ask yourself ___
``` -FAST Face Arm Speech Time ``` -does face look uneven? One arm hanging down? Slurred speech?
148
Name 3 symptoms of diabetes
Polyuria- extreme urination Polydipsia- extreme thirst Polyphagia- extreme hunger
149
Diabetes where the pt is insulin dependent and diagnosed before age 30
Type 1 diabetes
150
Diabetes where symptoms are gradual onset and diagnosed over the age of 40
Type 2 diabetes
151
Diabetes that forms while woman is pregnant
Gestational diabetes | Type 3
152
Hypoglycemia is
Low blood sugar
153
Diabetic ketoacidosis is
body poisoned from acid
154
If exam requires fasting, pt should be scheduled __
Early to prevent diabetic emergency
155
Tests machines, transducers, image quality (every year someone does this)
Quality assurance
156
ALARA stands for
As low as reasonably achievable | -minimal exposure of US to patient especially in 1st trimester OB (less exposure to baby)
157
3 lobes of liver
Right (largest) Caudate (smallest) Left
158
Painful gallbladder when pressure applied in the area
Positive Murphy Sign | * significant pain, not just a little discomfort
159
What scan plane should you be in to view a long pancreas?
Transverse
160
Enlarged lymph nodes
Adenopathy
161
When scanning the spleen, you should compare its echo texture to the
Left kidney | -and check for fluid collections, masses, and pleural effusion in left diaphragm
162
When viewing Howe, you should check for
Wall thickening, dilation, hypertrophy (enlargement of organ), and masses
163
Elastography is used to
Check stiffness and density of mass
164
Trans abdominal/transvesical
Urinary bladder
165
Adnex is
Lateral side of uterus (lateral portion of pelvic area)
166
Vital signs are a
Measure of body function
167
When checking for vital signs, you should check
``` Temp Pulse Respiration Blood pressure Pulse oximetry (Amt of oxygen in blood) ```
168
Number of heart beats per minute
Pulse
169
Interval btw beats
Rhythm
170
Any variation of normal heart rhythm
Arrhythmia
171
Abnormally rapid pulse rates
Tachycardia | >100 bpm
172
Bpm stands for
Beats per minute
173
Abnormally slow pulse rates
Bradycardia | <60 bpm
174
A normal heart rate can range between
60-100 bpm | -bpm is higher for infants and children
175
Pulse is usually found at the
Radial artery
176
Normal adult breathing is __-__ breaths/minute
16-20
177
Number of respirations per minute
Rate
178
Regular rate of breathing
Rhythm
179
Amount of air taken in with each respiration
Depth
180
How to count respirations?
- don’t tell patient your counting - take pulse 30 sec and x2 - then for next 30 secs, watch ride and fall of chest and x2 - any irregularities, count for full minute
181
Dyspnea
Difficult breathing
182
Apnea
Without breathing
183
Hyperventilation
Rapid breathing
184
Respiratory arrest
Not breathing
185
Pallor
Pale/white
186
Pressure extorted on arterial walls by heart
Blood pressure
187
Systole is when
The heart contracts
188
Diastole is when
Heart relaxes and refills
189
Sphygmomanometer is
Blood pressure cuff
190
Optimal adult blood pressure is
120 (systolic) / 80 (diastolic)
191
Hypertension
High blood pressure | -causes damage to inner lining of arteries
192
Hypotension
Low blood pressure - less than 80/50 - low blood volume (hemorrhage can cause bp to drop)
193
Steps of getting blood pressure
- Place cuff on upper portion of arm - arm must be at level of heart - place over brachial artery - must be firmly placed and tight on arm
194
After the pressure of released on BP cuff, the first sound you hear is ___ and then you hear ____
Thumping which is systolic and then change in sound is diastolic
195
% of oxygen measured in arterial blood
Pulse oximetry | Normal range is 95-100%
196
Hypoxia is
Lack of oxygen
197
A Foley catheter ____ and you want to make sure the bag stays ___
Drains urine | Low
198
IV poles keep the patient ___ and keep the bag ___.
Hydrated | High
199
With an IV, the pt should keep arm ___ and IV should be kept ___
Straight | Above the point of needle insertion
200
Tube that feeds the patient , drains fluid, and treat obstructions
Nasogastric tube (NG tube)
201
___ is considered a drug and should be ordered by a physician
Oxygen
202
Venturi mask
Hard plastic mask that administers oxygen
203
Tubing inserted into nostril
Nasal catheter | -Oxygen therapy
204
Most common oxygen therapy that is placed in nose
Nasal cannula
205
You should look at LPM (liters per minute) before ___ and plug into ___
Unplugging oxygen from wall | Portable at the same #
206
Look at ___ to see how much pt has been prescribed before unhooking oxygen.
LPM
207
Opening in colon
Colostomy
208
Opening in ileum
Ileostomy
209
If you are scanning near a colostomy or ileostomy, you should ____
Use sterile gel and a transducer cover
210
Always ask nurse’s approval to remove ____ before you scan.
Wound dressings
211
JCAHO is
Patient safety/ surgery facilities | *accredits hospitals
212
As a student, you should never do a ____ alone.
Portable
213
Ambulatory means
Patient can walk by themself/ able to walk
214
HIPAA stands for
Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act
215
Increased blood flow to an organ or area
Hyperemia
216
How to you prove a CBD?
Add color to the duct - Less than 6mm - add 1mm per decade of life (90 yr old= 9mm CBD)
217
The stomach is ___ to pancreas
Anterior
218
Diaphragm is ___ to spleen
Anterior
219
In SAG, you see ___ to ___ and ___ to ___.
Anterior to posterior Superior to inferior
220
In TRANS view you see ___ to ___ and ___ to ___.
Anterior to posterior | Right to left
221
Thoracic fluid = ___ which needs a ___ procedure
Pleural effusion | Thoracentesis
222
Abdominal fluid= ___ and needs a ___ procedure.
Ascites | Paracentesis
223
Area for fluid build up the right kidney and liver
Morrison’s pouch
224
Narrowing for veins
Stenosis
225
Bulging of a vessel
Aneurysm
226
What steps are taken with abnormal images/pathology?
Measured in 2 planes B mode in 2 planes Color
227
BI-RAD is
Breast Imaging Recording and Database System Scoring system that goes from 0-6 0=best case scenario (def not cancer) 6=worst case scenario (confirmed cancer)
228
Elastography is typically used with ___ and ___ exams
Liver and breast
229
No blood flow in testicles due to twisted vessels
Testicular torsion
230
Normal lymph node should measure
1cm or less Normal- hypoechoic outer edge and hyperechoic inner Abnormal- completely hypoechoic
231
The bladder is ___ to the uterus.
Anterior
232
Full bladder is necessary for trans abdominal exam bc ____
A full bladder can push bowel out of the way, acts as an acoustic window (giving clearer image) and full bladder pushes uterus down to bring uterus into full view
233
Muscular layer of uterus
Myometrium
234
Inner tissue of uterus that sheds each month
Endometrium
235
Pt prep for transvaginal exam
Bladder needs to be EMPTY
236
Pt prep for trans abdominal exam
Bladder needs to be FULL