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Smith LA Medicine > Ch 48 Biologics in Infectious Disease Prevention > Flashcards

Ch 48 Biologics in Infectious Disease Prevention Flashcards

1
Q

When killed vaccines are administered, when is optimal protection achieved?

A

2-3 weeks after the primary series, or 1+ weeks after the booster

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2
Q

What is the optimal timing sequence for a 3-part vaccine course?

A
  1. Initial dose
  2. 3-4 weeks later, dose #2
  3. 3-5 months later, dose #3
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3
Q

What is the preferred vaccine type and general timing for broomare vaccination?

A

Parenterally administered vaccines > intranasal.
Give during the last 2 months of gestation, consistently giving to mares 4-8 weeks before foaling

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4
Q

What vaccines are routinely given to pregnant mares?

A

Tetanus toxoid, EEE/WEE, Flu, EHV-4, Strep equi. (less common is VEE, N. risticci, rabies)

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5
Q

What diseases are high risk to young foals?

A

Rotavirus, type B botulism

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6
Q

What diseases are high risk ot weanling foals?

A

EHV 4, EHV 1, strangles, influenza, tetanus, EEE, WNV

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7
Q

What diseases are low risk to most foals?

A

Rabies, PHF, WEE, EVA

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8
Q

What are the core vaccines for horses in N America? For all broodmares? For horses in crowded barns?

A

EEE/VEE/WEE, Rabies, Tetanus, WNV.
+ EHV1
+ Equine influenza

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9
Q

Which equine vaccines are administered as subunits?

A

Tetanus, botulism, Strangles

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10
Q

What type of vaccine are each of the equine core vax? When should they be given?

A

Tetanus toxoid: toxoid, annually, 2 doses 4-6 wk apart

EE/WEE: Inactivated, annually in spring, 2 doses 4-6 wk apart.

WNV: Inactivated or live recombinant. Annually in spring. The chimera type is 1 dose. Others are 2 doses 4 wk apart

Rabies: Inactivated, annually, 1 dose primary series

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11
Q

How should mares, stallions and exported animals be vaccinated for EVA?

A
  1. Serologic testing to confirm neg for antibodies, shortly before vax, for studs and exports
  2. Vaccinate stallions/teasers 3-4 wks before start of breeding season
  3. First-time vax’d studs are isolated 3 weeks before breeding, after vax
  4. Vaccinate mares when open
  5. Modified live, annual booster
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12
Q

When should foals of vaccinated mares first receive core vaccines? Of non-vaccinated mares?

A

Vxd mares: 4-6 months old.

Non-vaxd mares: 3-4 months old
*Tetanus: can start at 1-4 mo old

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13
Q

How long does tetanus antitoxin take to confer protection, and how long does it last? When might you see signs of serum hepatitis?

A

Immediately, for 3 weeks or less.

Takes weeks to develop

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14
Q

If a horse develops strangles, how long does immunity persist afterwards?

A

About 5 years

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15
Q

Which aspect of the immune response in horses is most important for conferring immunity to S. equi equi?

Which S equi component stimulates the acquired immune response?

A

Serum immunity is NOT the most important. Mucosal immunity is likely responsible for clearing the pathogen.
Cell wall M protein of S equi – horses produce local antibodies in the nasopharynx and circulating opsonophagocytic antibodies (IgGb and IgGa, IgA, the latter two predominate in nasopharyngeal secretions). But IgGb mediates foal immunity via milk

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16
Q

For how long after infection with H3N8 influenza (of the same strain) does immunity persist? What type(s) of immunity?

A

About 1 year. Involves local and systemic humoral and cellular mechanisms

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17
Q

For how long after natural infection with N. risticci is immunity conferred? What type of immune response is involved?

A

20 months, cell mediated responses

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18
Q

Which serogroups of C. botulinum cause disease in horses, and which types are most common?

A

A, B, C, and D.
B and C are most common

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19
Q

What are the three forms of botulism seen in horses?

A

-Toxicoinfectious (shaker foal)
-Forage poisoning
-Wound botulism

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20
Q

What are the three main indications for vaccination against EVA?

A
  1. Protect stallions from infection
  2. Immunize seronegative mares before breeding
  3. Curtail outbreaks in non breeding populations
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21
Q

What are the clinical signs of EVA in adult horses and foals?

A

Develop 3-7 d post infection
See fever, anorexia, depression, urticaria, peri/supraorbital edema, dependent edema, oronasal secretion, abortion, life-threatening pneumonia and pneumoenteritis of foals. Carrier state

22
Q

What type of virus is Rotavirus, how does it cause diarrhea, and how many serogroups are there?

A

Reoviridae, nonenveloped icosahedral RNA virus. Fecal oral transmission, damages villus tips in the SI causing malabsorption, maldigestion, cell destruction, and d+.
7 serogroups, but we care about group A

23
Q

What specific serotype is contained in the inactivated vaccine against rotavirus A?

A

P12 G3 serotype

24
Q

When should mares receive rotavirus vaccine?

A

At months 8, 9, and 10 of gestation

25
Q

What is the most prominent serovar of leptospirosis in North America? What are the associated clinical signs?

A

Lepto interrogans serovar Pomona type kennewiki.
Cx: Abortion, Eq recurrent uveitis, renal and hepatic disease

26
Q

What causes Pigeon Fever, and what are the forms of the disease?

A

Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis: gram positive, intracellular, facultative anaerobic bacterium.
Transmitted via flies and open wounds
Three forms are
1. External infection
2. Internal infection
3. Ulcerative lymphangitis

27
Q

When should ewes and does receive a CD&T vaccine? Is this an optional or required vaccine for sm ruminants?

A

3-4 weeks before parturition.

Required for all small ruminants

28
Q

Which vaccines are highly recommended for use in adult beef cows?

A

IBR, BVD, Lepto hardjo, lepto pomona, Campylobacter

29
Q

Which vaccines are highly recommended for use in adult beef bulls?

A

IBR, BVD, Lepto hardjo, Campylobacter

30
Q

Which vaccines are highly recommended for use in adult dairy cows?

A

IBR, BVD, BRSV, Lepto hardjo, lepto pomona

31
Q

Which vaccines are highly recommended for use in adult dairy bulls?

A

IBR, BVD, lepto hardjo, campylobacter

32
Q

Which vaccines are highly recommended for use in beef calves < 12 months old?

A

IBR, BVD, BRSV, PI-3, lepto hardjo, lepto pomona, Brucellosis

33
Q

Which vaccines are highly recommended for use in stocker cattle?

A

IBR, BVD, BRSV, PI-3, Mannheimia hemolytica, lepto pomona

34
Q

Which vaccines are highly recommended for use in beef replacement heifers?

A

IBR, BVD, lepto hardjo, lepto pomona, campylobacter

35
Q

Which vaccines are highly recommended for use in cattle entering feedlots?

A

Essential = IBR, BVD (mod live both), BRSV
Rec’d: M hemolytica, lepto pomona

36
Q

Which vaccines are highly recommended for use in dairy calves?

A

IBR, BVD, BRSV, PI-3, lepto hardjo, lepto pomona, Brucellosis

37
Q

Which vaccines are highly recommended for use in replacement dairy heifers?

A

IBR, BVD, lepto hardjo, lepto pomona, BRSV

38
Q

Briefly, how are modified live vaccines developed?

A

Living organism is collected and grown in abnormal host cells to change/attenuate the pathogen. With each replication cycle (passage), the changed pathogen loses virulence factors because it can’t cause disease in unnatural host cells. It is tested to see if it causes disease and if it can confer protection.
Risks include possibility of contamination, difficult to develop
Strengths: primary vaccination also stimulates the secondary response without a booster because the virus or bacterium is replicating in the animal

39
Q

Briefly, how are inactivated/killed vaccines developed?

A

Easier to develop. Pathogen is isolated from an outbreak, grown, then killed with chemicals or UV rays. Adjuvant is added for heightening the immune response.
Risks/concerns: loss of important epitopes
Tested for efficacy. Little/no risk of causing disease

40
Q

Briefly, how are genetically engineered vaccines developed?

A

A mutation is induced so that the resultant bacterium or virus has different properties that alter growth or virulence characteristics.
Most are modified live mutants.
Engineered to delete a gene and cause an immune response deficient in antibodies to an epitope.

Strengths: diagnostics can tell between vax and natural exposure antibodies, like with IBR.
A minimum immunizing dose is then established, considering the expiration date

41
Q

There are higher numbers of which specific immune cell in newborns compared to adults?

A

Suppressor T cells

42
Q

What are the types of hypersensitivities seen in response to vaccinations?

A

Type I (immediate) hypersensitivity:
-IgE mediated. Seen in minutes, via shaking or sweating. Give IV epinephrine and monitor all vaccinated animals for 30 minutes after vaccination.

Type III (immune complex) hypersensitivity:
-Complement cascade: mediated by antibody-antigen attachment complex to complement and triggering the cascade
-May be delayed, give IV epinephrine.
-Can be local or systemic

43
Q

When should calves be vaccinated?

A

Branding, weaning, or 30 days before weaning. If vax’d before 6 mo old, they should be re-vaccinated

44
Q

When should breeding cows and heifers be vaccinated?

A

At least 1 month before breeding (yearlings), and if a second dose is needed, give it >1 month before breeding

45
Q

When should stocker and feeder cattle be vaccinated?

A

2-3 weeks before shipment

46
Q

What features should a BVDV vaccination program include?

A
  1. A virus isolation & cull program. At least 1 dose vax to every replacement
  2. Give killed vaccines 2-3x yearly, or MLV vax to open cows 3 weeks before breeding
  3. Use vaccines proven to stimulate protection against BVDV type 1 & 2
47
Q

What are the three advantages of the RB51 Brucella vaccine?

A
  1. It produces antibodies that don’t react with serologic tests
  2. Can sometimes use lower dosages in adult cattle (need permission)
  3. Less post-vax fever and stress than the strain 19 vax
48
Q

Which animals should be vaccinated against brucellosis?

A

Heifers 4-12 months old. Any older and the strain 19 vax can cause false positives on screening tests

49
Q

Briefly, how does enterotoxigenic E coli cause disease in neonatal calves?

A

Usually by hour 72 alive.
Strains producing the F5 fimbrial adhesin mediating adherence to receptors on the brush border of SI villous enterocytes resist normal peristaltic clearance mechanisms and promote bacterial colonization of the intestinal mucosa. Also, the ETEC produces enterotoxins stimulating water and lyte loss into the lumen leading to dehydration and lyte imbalances. Other fimbriae include F41 and F1

50
Q

Why is C. perf. type C mostly seen in neonates?

A

Because colostrum in neonatal intestines inhibits trypsin, and this toxin is VERY sensitive to trypsin. It causes, without trypsin interference, local hemorrhage and necrosis, and systemic effects

51
Q
A

Smith LA Medicine (12 decks)

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