Ch 5-7 Flashcards
GET AN A ON THIS F-ING FINAL (407 cards)
1
Q
What is another word for skin
A
Integument
2
Q
what is androgen
A
Generic term for an agent (usually a hormone, such as testosterone or androsterone) stimulates development of male characteristics
3
Q
what is a ductule
A
A very small duct
4
Q
what does it mean to synthesize
A
Forming a complex substance by the union of simpler compounds or elements
5
Q
what are the two distinct layers of the skin
A
epidermis
dermis
6
Q
where is the epidermidis thickest
A
On the palms of the hands and the soles of the feet
7
Q
what are the sub layers of the epidermidis called
A
Strata
8
Q
what are the cells of the stratum corneum filled with when they die
A
Keratin
9
Q
in what layer of the epidermidis is melanin produced
A
The basal layer
10
Q
what is another name for the dermis
A
the Corium
11
Q
what is the subcutaneous layer, or hypodermis, primarily made of
A
Loose connective tissue and adipose (fat) tissue interlaced with blood vessels
12
Q
what are the accessory organs of the skin
A
Integumentary glands, hair, and nails
13
Q
what are the two important glands located in the dermis that produce secretions
A
sudoriferous glands (sweat glands)
sebacious glands (oil glands)
14
Q
What do the sudoriferous glands produce
A
sweat
15
Q
what do the sebaceous glands produce
A
oil
16
Q
what are exocrine glands
A
glands that secrete their products through ducts to an outer surface of the body/organ/tissue/vessel rather than directly into the bloodstream
17
Q
what is the name for the visible part of the hair
A
The hair shaft
18
Q
what is the part of hair that is embedded in the dermis
A
The hair root
19
Q
what is the hair follicle
A
The root of the hair together with its coverings
20
Q
what is the papilla of the hair
A
A covering for a loop of capillaries enclosed at the bottom of the hair follicle
21
Q
What does the CF “adip/o” mean
A
fat
22
Q
What are the CFs for “fat”
A
adip/o
lip/o
steat/o
23
Q
What does the CF “lip/o” mean
A
fat
24
Q
What does the CF “steat/o” mean
A
fat
25
What does the CF "cutane/o" mean
skin
26
What are the CFs for "skin"
cutane/o
dermat/o
derm/o
27
What does the CF "dermat/o" mean
skin
28
What does the CF "derm/o" mean
skin
29
What does the CF "hidr/o" mean
sweat
30
What are the CFs for "sweat"
hidr/o
sudor/o
31
What does the CF "sudor/o" mean
sweat
32
What does the CF "ichthy/o" mean
dry, scaly
33
What is the CF for "dry/scaly"
ichthy/o
34
What does the CF "kerat/o" mean
horny tissue; hard; cornea
35
What is the CF for "horny tissue/hard/cornea"
kerat/o
36
What does the CF "myc/o" mean
fungus (plural, fungi)
37
What is the CF for "fungus"
myc/o
38
What does the CF "onych/o" mean
nail
39
What are the CFs for "nail"
onych/o
ungu/o
40
What does the CF "ungu/o" mean
nail
41
What does the CF "pil/o" mean
hair
42
What are the CFs for "hair"
pil/o
trich/o
43
What does the CF "trich/o" mean
hair
44
What does the CF "scler/o" mean
hardening; sclera (white of eye)
45
What is the CF for "hardening/sclera (white of eye)"
scler/o
46
What does the CF "seb/o" mean
sebum, sebaceous
47
What is the CF for "sebum/sebaceous"
seb/o
48
What does the CF "squam/o" mean
scale
49
What is the CF for "scale"
squam/o
50
What does the CF "xen/o" mean
foreign, strange
51
What is the CF for "foreign/strange"
xen/o
52
What does the CF "xer/o" mean
dry
53
What is the CF for "dry"
xer/o
54
What does the suffix -derma mean
skin
55
What is the suffix for "skin"
-derma
56
what is dermatology
The medical specialty concerned with diseases that directly affect the skin and systemic diseases that manifest their effects on the skin
57
What are skin lesions
Areas of tissue that have been pathologically altered by injury, wound, or infection
58
What does it mean for a lesion to be localized
The lesion affects tissue over an area of a definite size
59
what does it mean for a lesion to be a systemic
The lesion affects tissue that is widely spread throughout the body
60
what are the two types of skin lesions
Primary skin lesion
secondary skin lesion
61
What are the qualities of primary skin lesions
They are the initial reaction to pathologically altered tissue and may be flat or elevated
62
what are the qualities of secondary skin lesions
They are changes that take place in the primary lesion as a result of infection, scratching, trauma, or various stages of a disease
63
what are the three levels of burns with their common names
First- degree (superficial) burns
second-degree (partial thickness) burns
third- degree (full thickness) burns
64
what layers of skin do first-degree burns effect
The epidermidis
65
what layers of skin do second-degree burns effect
The epidermidis and part of the dermis
66
what layers of skin do third-degree burns effect
the epidermidis and the dermis as well as some of the underlying connective tissue
67
what are characteristics of first-degree burns
Skin redness
acute sensitivity to touch, heat, or cold
generally without blisters
68
what are characteristics of second-degree burns
Skin redness
acute sensitivity to touch, heat, or cold
fluid filled blisters form
69
What are characteristics of third-degree burns
Waxy skin
charred skin
insensitivity to touch
70
What are neoplasms
Abnormal growth of new tissue that are classified as benign or malignant
71
what are benign neoplasms
Non-cancerous growths composed of the same type of cells as the tissue in which they are growing
72
what are malignant neoplasms
Cancerous cells that tend to become invasive and spread to remote regions of the body (metastasis)
73
what do pathologist do in regards to cancer
Grade and stage tumors to help and diagnosis and treatment planning, provide a possible prognosis, and aid comparison of treatment results when different treatment methods are used
74
how are tumors graded
Cells from the tumor or a valuated to determine how closely they resemble normal tissue; the greater the difference means the greater the seriousness of the cancer
75
what does TNM grading stand for
T - size and invasiveness of the primary tumor
N - area lymph nodes involved
M - invasiveness (metastasis) of the primary tumor
76
What is basal cell carcinoma
A malignancy of the basal layer of the epidermis, or hair follicles
77
What is squamous cell carcinoma
Malignancy that arises from skin undergoes pathological hardening (keratinizing) of epidermal cells
78
what is malignant melanomas
A malignant growth of melanocytes
79
What is an abscess
Localized collection of pus at the site of an infection (characteristically a staphylococcal infection)
80
What is acne
Inflammatory disease of the sebaceous glands and hair follicles of the skin with characteristic lesions that include blackheads (comedos), inflammatory papules, pustules, nodules, and cysts and are usually associated with seborrhea; also called Acme vulgaris
81
What is alopecia
Partial or complete loss of hair resulting from normal aging, and endocrine disorder, drug reaction, anti-cancer medication, or a skin disease; commonly called baldness
82
what is Bowen disease
Very early form of skin cancer, which is easily curable and characterized by a red, scaly patch on the skin; also called squamous cell carcinoma in situ
83
what is cellulitis
Diffuse (widespread), acute infection of the skin and subcutaneous tissue
84
what is chloasma
Pigmentary skin discoloration usually occurring and yellowish-brown patches on spots
85
what is comedo
Typical small skin lesion of acne vulgaris caused by accumulation of keratin, bacteria, and dried sebum plugging in excretory duct of the skin
86
what is a decubitus ulcer
Inflammation, sore, or skin deterioration caused by prolonged pressure from lying in one position that prevents blood flow to the tissues, usually an elderly bedridden person; also known as a pressure ulcer
87
what is Ecchymosis
Skin discoloration consisting of large, and regularly formed hemorrhagic areas with colors changing from bluish black to greenish brown or yellow; commonly called a bruise
88
what is eczema
Chronic inflammatory skin condition that is characterized by erythema, papules, vesicles, pustules, scales, crust, and scabs and accompanied by intense itching (pruritus); also called atopic dermatitis
89
what is erythema
Redness of the skin caused by swelling of the capillaries
90
what is eschar
dead matter that is sloughed off from the surface of the skin, especially after a burn
91
What is impetigo
Bacterial skin infection characterized by isolated pustules and become crusted and rupture
92
what is keratosis
thickened area of the epidermidis or any horny growth on the skin (such as a callus or wart)
93
what is lentigo
Small brown macules, especially on the face and arms, brought on by sun exposure, usually in middle age or older person
94
what is pallor
Unnatural paleness or absence of color in skin
95
what is pediculosis
Infestation with lice, transmitted by personal contact or common use of brushes, combs, or headgear
96
what is petechia
Minute, pinpoint hemorrhage under the skin
97
what is pruritus
Intense itching
98
what is psoriasis
Chronic skin disease characterized by itchy red patches covered by thick, dry, silvery scales and caused by excessive development of the basal layer of the epidermidis
99
What is purpura
Any of several bleeding disorders characterized by hemorrhage into the tissues, particularly beneath the skin or mucous membranes, producing Ecchymosis or petechiae
100
What is scabies
Contagious skin disease transmitted by the inch mite, commonly through sexual contact
101
What is tinea
Fungal skin infection whose name commonly indicates the body part affected; also called ringworm
102
what is urticaria
Allergic reaction of the skin characterized by the eruption of pale red elevated patches called wheals or hives
103
what is verruca
Epidermal growth caused by a virus; also known as warts
104
what is vitiligo
Localized loss of skin pigmentation characterized by milk-white patches
105
what is an allergy skin test
Any test in which a suspected allergen or sensitizer is applied to or injected into the skin to determine the patient's sensitivity to it
106
what is an intradermal allergy skin test
Skin test that identify suspected allergens by subcutaneously injecting small amounts of extracts of the suspected allergens and observing the skin for a subsequent reaction
107
What is a patch allergy skin test
Skin test that identifies allergic contact derma Titus by applying a suspected allergy into a patch, which is then taped onto the skin, usually the forearm, and observing the area 24 hours later for a response
107
What is a scratch allergy skin test
Skin test that identify suspected allergen by placing a small quantity of the suspected allergen on a lightly scratched area of the skin; also called puncture test or prick test
107
What is a culture and sensitivity (C&S) test
Laboratory test to determine the presence of pathogens in patients with suspected wound infection and identify the appropriate drug therapy to which the organism responds (sensitivity)
108
What is a biopsy (Bx, bx)
Representative tissue sample removed from a body site for microscopic examination
109
what is a frozen section (FS) biopsy
Ultra thin slice of tissue from a frozen specimen for immediate pathological examination
110
what is a needle biopsy
Removal of a small tissue sample for examination using a hollow needle, usually attached to a syringe
111
what is a punch biopsy
Removal of a small quart of tissue using a hollow punch
112
what is a shave biopsy
Removal of elevated lesions using a surgical blade
113
what is a Mohs procedure
Procedure that involves progressive removal and examination of layers of cancer containing skin until only cancer free tissue remains; also called micrographic surgery
114
what is a skin graft
transplantation of healthy tissue to an injured site
115
what is an allograft skin graft
Transplantation of healthy tissue from one person to another person; also called homograft
116
what is an autograft skin graft
Transplantation of healthy tissue from one side to another site in the same individual
117
what is a synthetic skin graft
Transplantation of artificial skin produced from collagen fibers arranged in a lattice pattern
118
what is a xenograft skin graft
Transplantation Durmaz only from a foreign donor (usually a pig) and transferred to a human; also called heterograft
119
What is a chemical peel
Chemical removal of the outer layers of skin to treat acne scarring in general keratosis; also called chemabrazing
120
what is cryosurgery
Use of subfreezing temperature (commonly liquid nitrogen) to destroy or eliminate abnormal tissue, such as tumors, warts, and unwanted, cancerous, or infected tissue
121
what is debridement
Removal of necrotized tissue from a wound by surgical excision, enzymes, or chemical agents
122
what is dermabrasion
Rubbing (abrasion) using wire brushes or sandpaper to mechanically scrape away (abrade) the epidermis
123
what is fulguration
Tissue destruction by means of high frequency electric current; also called electrodesiccation
124
what is photodynamic therapy
Procedure in which cells selectively treated with an agent called a photosensitizer are exposed to light to produce a reaction that destroys the cells
125
what do antiacne agents do
Reduce acne through varying mechanisms
126
what do antifungals do
Alter the cell wall or fungi or disrupt enzyme activity, resulting in cell death
127
what do antihistamines do
Inhibit allergic reactions of inflammation, redness, and itching caused by the release of histamine
128
what do anti-parasitics do
kill insect parasite, such as mites and lice
129
what do antiseptics do
inhibit growth of bacteria, thus preventing infections in cuts, scratches, and surgical incisions
130
What do corticosteroids do
Decrease inflammation and itching by suppressing immune system's inflammatory response to tissue damage
131
what do keratolytics do
Destroy and soften the outer layer of skin so that it is sloughed off or shed
132
what do protectives do
Cover, cool, dry, or soothe inflamed skin
133
what do topical anesthetics do
Blocks sensation of pain by numbing the skin layers and mucous membranes
134
what is the primary function of the digestive system (or gastrointestinal system)
To break down food, prepare it for absorption, and eliminate waste
135
what is bilirubin
Orange-yellow pigment formed during destruction of erythrocytes that is taken up by the liver cells and eventually excreted in the feces
136
what is a bolus
Mass of masticated food ready for swallowing
137
what is a sphincter
Circular band of muscle fibers that constricts a passage or closes a natural opening of the body
138
what are triglycerides
Organic compounds, a true fat, that are made of one glycerol and three fatty acids
139
what is mastication
Mechanically breaking down food into smaller pieces
140
what are the three layers of the tooth
Hard enamel (outer shell)
Dentin (structure)
the pulp (nerves & blood vessels)
141
Another word for swallowing
Deglutition
142
what are the two structures that form the roof of the mouth
The hard and soft palate
143
which palette is anterior to the other
Hard palate
144
which palate is posterior to the other
soft palate
145
what is the pathway of food through the digestive system
Mouth
pharynx
esophagus
stomach
small intestine
large intestine
anus
146
What are the three parts of the small intestine in order
duodenum
jejunum
ileum
147
which part of the small intestine is the shortest
duodenum - 10 in.
148
What part of the small intestine is the longest
Ileum - 12 ft.
149
how long is the large intestine
5 ft.
150
What are the 4 portions of the colon (in order)
Ascending
transverse
descending
sigmoid
151
What does the liver weigh
approx. 3 to 4 pounds
152
What are the important functions of the liver
Producing bile
removing glucose from the blood to synthesize glycogen
releasing bilirubin
storing vitamins
153
What are the main functions of the pancreas
secreting insulin
producing enzymes
154
what is the main function of the gallbladder
Storing bile
155
What does the CF "gloss/o" mean
tongue
156
What are the CFs for "tongue"
gloss/o
lingu/o
157
What does the CF "lingu/o" mean
tongue
158
What does the CF "bucc/o" mean
cheek
159
What is the CF for "cheek"
bucc/o
160
What does the CF "cheil/o" mean
lip
161
What are the CFs for "lip"
cheil/o
labi/o
162
what does the CF "labi/o" mean
lip
163
What does the CF "gingiv/o" mean
gum(s)
164
What is the CF for "gum(s)"
gingiv/o
165
What does the CF "sial/o" mean
saliva, salivary gland
166
What is the CF for "saliva/salivary gland"
sial/o
167
What does the CF "esophag/o" mean
esophagus
168
What is the CF for "esophagus"
esophag/o
169
What does the CF "pharyng/o" mean
pharynx
170
What is the CF for "pharynx"
pharyng/o
171
What does the CF "pylor/o" mean
pylorus
172
What is the CF for "pylorus"
pylor/o
173
What does the CF "duoden/o" mean
duodenum (first part of the small intestine)
174
What is the CF for "duodenum"
duoden/o
175
What does the CF "enter/o" mean
intestine (usually small intestine)
176
What is the CF for "intestine"
enter/o
177
What does the CF "jejun/o" mean
jejunum (second part of small intestine)
178
What is the CF for "jejunum"
jejun/o
179
What does the CF "ile/o" mean
ileum (third part of small intestine)
180
What is the CF for "ileum"
ile/o
181
What does the CF "append/o" mean
appendix
182
What are the CFs for "appendix"
append/o
appendic/o
183
What does the CF "appendic/o" mean
appendix
184
What does the CF "col/o" mean
colon
185
What are the CFs for "colon"
col/o
colon/o
186
What does the CF "colon/o" mean
colon
187
What does the CF "sigmoid/o" mean
sigmoid colon
188
What is the CF for "sigmoid colon"
sigmoid/o
189
What does the CF "rect/o" mean
rectum
190
What is the CF for "rectum"
rect/o
191
What does the CF "proct/o" mean
anus, rectum
192
What is the CF for "anus/rectum"
proct/o
193
What does the CF "an/o" mean
anus
194
What is the CF for "anus"
an/o
195
What does the CF "cholangi/o" mean
bile vessel
196
What is the CF for "bile vessel"
cholangi/o
197
What does the CF "chol/e" mean
bile, gall
198
What is the CF for "bile/gall"
chol/e
199
What does the CF "choledoch/o" mean
bile duct
200
What is the CF for "bile duct"
choledoch/o
201
What does the suffix -orexia mean
appetite
202
What is the suffix for "appetite"
-orexia
203
What does the suffix -pepsia mean
digestion
204
What is the suffix for "digestion"
-pepsia
205
What does the suffix -phagia mean
swallowing, eating
206
What is the suffix for "swallowing/eating"
-phagia
207
What does the suffix -prandial mean
meal
208
What is the suffix for "meal"
-prandial
209
what is the branch of medicine concerned with digestive diseases
gastroenterology
210
what is peptic ulcer disease
Circumscribed open sores primarily in the stomach or duodenum that cause bleeding or even leakage depending on depth
211
what is hepatitis
inflammatory condition of the liver
212
what is diverticulosis
small, blisterlike pockets (diverticula) develop in the inner lining of the large intestine and may balloon through the intestinal wall
213
(T/F) Colorectal cancer is one of the least common types of intestinal cancer in the US
FALSE - it is one of the most common
214
what is anorexia
lack or loss of appetite, resulting in the inability to eat
215
what is appendicitis
Inflammation of the appendix, usually caused by obstruction or infection
216
What are ascites
Abnormal accumulation of fluid in the abdominal cavity, usually as a result of chronic liver disease, neoplasm, or an inflammatory disorder in the abdomen
217
What is borborygmus
Rumbling or gurgling noises that are audible at a distance and caused by passage of gas through the liquid contents of the intestine
218
what is cachexia
Physical wasting that includes lots of weight and muscle mass and is commonly associated with acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS) and cancer; also called wasting syndrome
219
what is cholelithiasis
Presence or formation of gallstones in the gallbladder
220
what is cirrhosis
Scarring and dysfunction of the liver caused by liver disease
221
what is Crohn's disease
Warm of inflammatory bowel disease (IBD), usually of the ileum but possibly affecting any portion of the intestinal tract; also called regional enteritis
222
what is dysentery
Inflammation of the intestine, especially the colon, that may be caused by ingesting water or food containing chemical irritant, bacteria, protozoa, or parasites and results and bloody diarrhea
223
what is flatus
Gas in the G.I. tract; expelling of air from a body orifice, especially the anus
224
what is Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)
Backflow of gastric contents into the esophagus as a result of a malfunction of the sphinctor muscle at the inferior portion of the esophagus
225
what is halitosis
Foul smelling breath
226
what is hematemesis
Vomiting of blood from bleeding in the stomach or esophagus
227
what are hemorrhoids
Swollen varicose veins in the anorectal region categorized as external or internal
228
what is an intestinal obstruction
Mechanical or functional blockage of the intestines that occurs when the contents of the intestine cannot move forward through the intestinal tract because of a partial or complete blockage of the bowel
229
what is irritable bowel syndrome (IBS)
Symptom complex marked by an abdominal pain and altered bowel function (typically constipation, diarrhea, or alternating constipation and diarrhea) for which no organic causing me determine; also called spastic colon
230
what is malabsorption syndrome
Symptom complex of the small intestine characterized by the impaired passage of nutrients, minerals, or fluids through the intestinal villi into the blood or lymph
231
what is melena
Dark, tar like feces that contain digested blood from bleeding in the esophagus or stomach
232
what is obesity
Excessive accumulation of fat that exceeds the body skeletal and physical standards, usually an increase of 20% or more above ideal body weight
233
what is morbid obesity
Obesity in which a body mass index (BMI) is greater than 40, and generally 100 pounds or more over ideal body weight
234
what is obstipation
Severe constipation, which may be caused by an intestinal obstruction
235
what is oral leukoplakia
Formation of white spots are patches on the mucous membrane of the tongue, lips, or cheek caused primarily by irritation
236
what is pancreatitis
Inflammation of the pancreas
237
what is pyloric stenosis
Stricture or narrowing of the pyloric sphincter (circular muscle of the pylorus) at the outlet of the stomach, causing an obstruction that block the flow of food into the small intestine
238
what is regurgitation
A backward flow, as in the return of solids or fluids to the mouth from the stomach
239
what is ulcerative colitis
Chronic inflammatory disease of the colon, commonly beginning in the rectum or sigmoid colon and extending upward into the entire colon
240
what is a gastrointestinal endoscopy
visual examination of the gastrointestinal tract using a flexible fiber optic instrument with a magnifying lens and the light source (endoscope) to identify abnormalities, including bleeding, alterations, and tumors
241
what is a hepatitis panel
Not a blood test that identify the specific virus -hepatitis A (HAV), hepatitis B (HBV), or hepatitis C (HCV)- that is causing hepatitis by testing serum using antibodies to each of these antigens
242
what are liver function tests (LFTs)
Blood test that evaluate liver injury, liver function, and conditions commonly associated with a biliary tract
243
what is serum bilirubin
Measurement of the level of bilirubin in the blood
244
what is a stool culture
Test to identify microorganisms or parasites present in the feces that are causing a gastrointestinal infection
245
what is a stool guaiac
Test applies a substance called quiet to a stool sample to detect the presence of occult (hidden) blood in the feces; also called hemoccult (tradename a modified quiet test)
246
what is a lower gastrointestinal series
Radiographic images of the rectum and colon following administration of barium into the rectum; also called lower G.I. series or barium enema
247
what is an oral cholecystography (OCG)
Radiographic images taken of the gallbladder after administration of contrast material containing iodine, usually in the form of a tablet
248
what is an abdominal ultrasound
ultrasound visualization of the abdominal aorta, liver, gallbladder, bile ducts, pancreas, kidneys, ureters, and bladder
249
what is an endoscopic ultrasound
Combination of endoscopy and ultrasound examined and obtain images of athe digestive tract and the surrounding tissues and organs
250
what is an upper gastrointestinal series (UGIS)
Radiographic images of the esophagus, stomach, and small intestine following oral administration of barium; also called barium swallow
251
what is an ileorectal anastomosis
Surgical connection of the ileum and rectum after total colostomy, as is sometimes performed in the treatment of ulcerative colitis
252
what is an intestinal anastomosis
Surgical connection of two portions of the intestine
253
what is an appendectomy
Excision of a diseased appendix using an open or laparoscopic procedure
254
what is an open appendectomy
Excision of a diseased appendix through a 2 to 3 inch incision in the right lower quadrant of the abdomen
255
What is a laparoscopic appendectomy
Minimally invasive appendectomy using three small abdominal incisions while monitoring and enlarged image of the surgical site projected onto a monitor
256
What are bariatric surgeries
Group of procedures that treat morbid obesity, a condition that arises from severe accumulation of excess weight as fatty tissue, and the resultant health problems
257
what is a vertical banded gastroplasty
Bariatric surgery that involves vertical stapling on the upper stomach near the esophagus to reduce it to a small pouch and insertion of a band that restricts food conception and delays it's passage from the power causing a feeling of fullness
258
what is a Roux-en-Y gastric bypass (RGB)
Bariatric surgery that involve stapling the stomach to decrease its side and then shortening the Jejunum and connecting it to the small stomach patch, causing the base of the duodenum leading from the nonfunctioning portion of the stomach to form a wagon figuration, which decreases the pathway of food through the intestine, that's reducing absorption of calories and fat; also called gastric bypass with gastroenterostomy
259
What is a colostomy
Surgical procedure in which a surgeon forms an opening (stoma) by drawing the healthy end of the colon through an incision in the anterior abdominal wall and suturing it into place
260
what is a lithotripsy
Procedure for crushing a stone and eliminating its fragment surgically or using ultrasonic shock waves
261
what is extracorporeal shockwave lithotripsy (ESWL)
Use the shock waves as a non-invasive method to break up stones in the gallbladder or biliary ducts
262
What is paracentesis
Procedure to remove fluid from the abdomen using a long, thin needle inserted through the belly; also called abdominocentesis
263
what is a polypectomy
Excision of a polyp
264
what is nasogastric intubation
Insertion of a nasogastric tube through the nose into the stomach to relieve gastric distention by removing gas, food, or gastric secretion; instill medication, food, or fluids; or obtain a specimen for laboratory analysis
265
What do antacids do
counteract or neutralize acidity, usually in the stomach
266
What do antidiarrheals do
control loose stools and relieve diarrhea by absorbing excess water in the bowel or slowing peristalsis in the intestinal tract
267
What do antiemetics do
Control nausea and vomiting by blocking nerve impulses to the vomiting center of the brain
268
what do histamine-2 (H2) blockers do
Inhibit secretion of stomach acid from the gastric cells by blocking the H2 receptor
269
what do laxatives do
Treat constipation by increasing peristaltic activity in the large intestine or increasing water and electrolyte secretion into the bowel to induce defecation
270
what do proton pump inhibitors do
Suppress basal and stimulated acid production by inhibiting the acid pump in the gastric cells
271
what is the respiratory system responsible for
The exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide within the body
272
what is carbon dioxide
Tasteless, colorless, odorless gas produced by body cells during metabolism
273
what is cartilage
Tough, elastic connective tissue that is more rigid than ligaments but less dense than bone
274
what is cilia
Minute, hair like structures that extend from the surface of the cell
275
what does it mean to defuse
To move or spread out a substance at random, rather than by chemical reaction or application of external forces
276
what is oxygen
Tasteless, odorless, colorless gas essential for human respiration
277
what is pH
Symbol that indicates the degree of acidity or alkalinity of a substance
278
what is a serous membrane
thin layer of tissue that covers internal body cavities and secretes a fluid that keeps the membrane moist; also called serosa
279
what sense are olfactory neurons receptors for
smell
280
what are the three sections of the pharynx in order
Nasopharynx - posterior to the nose
oropharynx - posterior to the mouth
laryngopharynx - superior to the larynx
281
What are the four separate processes of respiration (in order)
Pulmonary ventilation
external respiration
transport of respiratory gases
internal respiration
282
What does the CF "sinus/o" mean
sinus, cavity
283
What is the CF for "sinus/cavity"
sinus/o
284
What does the CF "adenoid/o" mean
adenoids
285
What is the CF for "adenoids"
adenoid/o
286
What does the CF "tonsill/o"
tonsils
287
What is the CF for "tonsils"
tonsill/o
288
What does the CF "epiglott/o" mean
epiglottis
289
What is the CF for "epiglottis"
epiglott/o
290
What does the CF "bronchiol/o" mean
bronchioles
291
What is the CF for "bronchioles"
bronchiol/o
292
What does the CF "alveol/o" mean
alveolus
293
What is the CF for "alveolus"
alveol/o
294
What does the CF "pleur/o" mean
pleura
295
What is the CF for "pleura"
pleur/o
296
What does the CF "pneum/o" mean
air; lung
297
What are the CFs for "air/lung"
pneum/o
pneumon/o
298
What does the CF "pneumon/o" mean
air; lung
299
What does the CF "pulmon/o" mean
lung
300
What does the CF "anthrac/o" mean
coal, coal dust
301
What is the CF for "coal/coal dust"
anthrac/o
302
What does the CF atel/o" mean
incomplete, imperfect
303
What is the CF for "incomplete/imperfect"
atel/o
304
What does the CF coni/o" mean
dust
305
What is the CF for "dust"
coni/o
306
What does the CF "lob/o" mean
lobe
307
What is the CF for "lobe"
lob/o
308
What does the CF "orth/o" mean
straight
309
What is the CF for "straight"
orth/o
310
What does the CF "ox/o" mean
oxygen
311
What is the CF for "oxygen"
ox/o
312
What does the CF "pector/o" mean
chest
313
What are the CFs for "chest"
pector/o
steth/o
thorac/o
314
What does the CF "steth/o" mean
chest
315
What does the CF "thorac/o" mean
chest
316
What does the CF "phren/o" mean
diaphragm; mind
317
What is the CF for "diaphragm/mind"
phren/o
318
What does the CF "spir/o" mean
breathe
319
What is the CF for "breathe"
spir/o
320
What does the suffix -capnia mean
carbon dioxide
321
What is the suffix for "carbon dioxide"
-capnia
322
What does the suffix -osmia mean
smell
323
What is the suffix for "smell"
-osmia
324
What does the suffix -phonia mean
voice
325
What is the suffix for "voice"
-phonia
326
What does the suffix -pnea mean
breathing
327
What is the suffix for "breathing"
-pnea
328
What does the suffix -ptysis mean
spitting
329
What is the suffix for "spitting"
-ptysis
330
What does the suffix -thorax mean
chest
331
What is the suffix for "chest"
-thorax
332
what is the name of the medical specialty concerned with disorders of the respiratory system
Pulmonology
333
what does chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) include
Respiratory disorders that produce chronic partial obstruction of the air passages
334
what is asthma
Spasms in the bronchial passages that caused dyspnea
335
what are the characteristics of the "at risk, mild" stage of COPD
minor difficulty with airflow
Possible presence of chronic cough with sputum production
Patient possibly unaware of disease
336
what are the characteristics of the "moderate" stage of COPD
apparent limitation in airflow
Possible shortness of breath
Patient possibly seeking medical intervention at this level
337
what are the characteristics of the "severe" stage of COPD
Inadequate airflow
increase and shortness of breath with activity
patient experiencing diminishing quality of life
338
are the characteristics of the "very severe" stage of COPD
severe airflow limitations
significant impairment and quality of life
Possible life-threatening exacerbations
Possible development of complications, such as respiratory or heart failure
339
What is chronic bronchitis
Inflammation of the bronchi caused mainly by smoking or air pollution
340
what is emphysema
Decreased elasticity of the alveoli
341
what is pneumonia
An inflammatory condition affecting the lungs, primarily the microscopic air sacs (Alveoli)
342
What is acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)
A condition in which the lungs no longer function effectively, threatening the life of the patient
343
what is another name for lung cancer
Bronchogenic carcinoma
344
where does lung cancer typically stem from
The epithelium of the bronchial tree
345
(T/F) the prognosis for those with lung cancer is typically poor
True - it is rarely found in the early stages where it is more easily treatable
346
what are abnormal breath sounds
Abnormal sounds or noises heard from the lungs and airwaves, commonly leading to a diagnosis of a respiratory or cardiac condition; also called adventitious breath sounds
347
What are crackle breath sounds
Intermittent sound caused by exudates, spasms, hyperplasia, or when air enters moisture filled alveolar; also called rale
347
What are rhonchus breath sounds
Continuous sound heard during inspiration and expiration caused by secretions in a larger airways and commonly resembling snoring
348
what are stridor breath sounds
High-pitch, harsh sound called by a spasm or swelling of the larynx or an obstruction in the upper airway
349
what are wheeze breath sounds
Whistling or sighing that results from narrowing of the lumen of the respiratory passageway
350
what is acidosis
Excessive acidity of bodily of fluids
351
what is anosmia
Absence of the sense of smell
352
what is apnea
Disorder in which breathing stops repeatedly during sleep, resulting in blood deoxygenation, causing the patient to awaken, gasping for air; also called sleep apnea
353
what is central sleep apnea (CSA)
a form of sleep apnea that occurs when the brain fails to stimulate breathing muscles, causing brief pauses in breathing
354
What is obstructive sleep apnea (OSA)
Most common form of sleep apnea caused by an upper airway blockage that prevents an adequate flow of air to the lungs
355
what is mixed sleep apnea
Type of sleep apnea that occurs when central sleep apnea and obstructive sleep apnea occur simultaneously
356
what is atelectasis
Collapsed or airless state of the lung, which may be acute or chronic and affects all or part of a lung
357
what is coryza
Acute inflammation of the membranes of the nose; also called rhiniti
358
what is croup
Common childhood condition involving information of the larynx, trachea, and bronchial passages and sometimes involving the lungs
359
what is cystic fibrosis
Life-threatening genetic disease causing mucus to become unusually thick and sticky, plugging tubes and ducts, especially in the lungs and pancreas
360
what is a deviated nasal septum
Displacement of the cartilage dividing the nostrils that causes reduce airflow and sometimes causes nose bleed
361
what is an epiglottis
Severe, life-threatening infection of the epiglottis and supraglottic structures that occurs most commonly in children between ages two and 12 years old
362
what is hypoxemia
Oxygen deficiency in arterial blood, which is usually a sign of respiratory impairment and commonly causes hypoxia
363
what is epistaxis
Nasal hemorrhage; also called nose bleed
364
what is hypoxia
Oxygen deficiency in the blood or region of the body that commonly causes cyanosis
365
what is influenza
Acute, contagious viral disorder of the respiratory tract, characterized by weakness, fever, chills, and muscle pain, especially in the back, arms, and legs; also called the flu
366
what is pertussis
Acute, infectious disease characterized by a cough that has a characteristic "whoop" sound; also called whooping cough
367
what is plural effusion
Abnormal accumulation of fluid in the pleural cavity that impairs breathing by limiting the expansion of the lungs
368
what is empyema
Exudative effusion characterized by collection of pus in the pleural cavity, commonly as a result of bacterial pneumonia that spreads from the lungs; also called pyothorax
369
what is a pneumothorax
Presence of air in the pleural cavity, commonly caused by a blunt or penetrating chest injury or as the result of a thoracic surgery
370
what is pleurisy
Inflammation of the plural membrane characterized by a stabbing pain that is intensified by coughing or deep breathing; also called pleuritis
371
what is pulmonary edema
Cumulation of extravascular fluid in lungs tissues and alveoli, most commonly caused by heart failure
372
what is a pulmonary embolism
Blockage in an artery of the lungs caused by a mass of undissolved matter (such as blood clot, tissue, air bubbles, and bacteria) that has traveled to lungs from another part of the body
373
what is sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS)
Completely unexpected and unexplained death of an apparently normal, healthy infant, usually less than 812 months; also called crib death
374
what is tuberculosis (TB)
Potentially fatal contagious disease spread through respiratory droplets, affecting any organ of the body but primarily the lungs and causing chest pain, hemoptysis, weight loss, fatigue, and night sweats
375
what is a Mantoux test
Tuberculosis screening test and within injection of tuberculin purified protein derivative (PPD) is placed just beneath the surface of the skin to identify a previous exposure to tuberculosis
376
what is oximetry
Noninvasive method of monitoring the percentage of hemoglobin (Hb) saturated with oxygen; also called pulse oximetry
377
what is polysomnography
Test of sleep cycles in stages using electroencephalograms (EEGs), which are continuous readings of brain waves, as well as electrical activity of muscles, eye-movement, respiratory rate, blood pressure, but oxygen saturation, heart rhythm and, sometimes, direct observation of the person during sleep using a video camera
378
What are pulmonary function tests (PFTs)
Series of tests to aid in the diagnosis of lung diseases and evaluate effectiveness treatments
379
what is spirometry
PFT that measures how much and how quickly air moves in and out of the lungs
380
what is a bronchoscopy
Visual examination of the bronchi using an endoscope (flexible fiber optic or rigid) inserted through the mouth and trachea for direct viewing of structures or for projection on a monitor
381
What is a laryngoscopy
Visual examination of the larynx to detect tumors, foreign bodies, nerve or structural injury, or other abnormalities
382
what is a mediastinoscopy
Visual examination of the mediastinal structures, including the heart, trachea, esophagus, bronchus, thymus, and lymph nodes
383
what is an arterial blood gas (ABG) test
test that measures dissolved oxygen and carbon dioxide in arterial blood
384
what is a sputum culture
Microbial test used to identify disease causing organisms of the lower respiratory tract, especially those that caused pneumonias
385
what is a sweat test
Measurement of the amount of salt (sodium chloride) in sweat
386
what is a throat culture
Test used to identify pathogens, especially group a streptococci
387
what is a chest x-ray
Radiographic test that aids in identifying lung conditions such as pneumonia, lung cancer, COPD, and pneumothorax
388
what is a computer tomography pulmonary angiography (CTPA)
Minimally invasive imaging that combines computer tomography scanning an angiography to produce images of the pulmonary arteries
389
what is ventilation-perfusion (V-Q) scan
Nuclear test scan that evaluates airflow (ventilation) and blood flow (perfusion) in the lungs for evidence of a blood clot in the lung; also called V-Q lung scan
390
what is a pleurectomy
Excision of parts of the pleura, usually the parietal pleura
391
what is a pneumonectomy
Excision of a lung or a portion of the lung commonly for treatment of cancer
392
what is a septoplasty
Surgical repair of a deviated nasal septum that is usually performed when the septum is encroaching on the breathing passages or nasal structures
393
what is a thoracentesis
surgical puncture and drainage of the pleural cavity; also called pleurocentesis or thoracocentesis
394
what is a tracheostomy
Surgical procedure in which an opening is made in the neck and into the trachea into with a breathing tube may be inserted
395
what is aerosol therapy
Lung treatment using various techniques to deliver medication in mist form directly to the lungs or air passageways
396
what is an antral lavage
Washing or arrogating of the paranasal sinuses to remove mucopurulent material and an immunosuppressed patient or one with nose sinusitis that has failed to respond to medical management
397
What is endotracheal intubation
Procedure in which a plastic tube is inserted into the trachea to maintain an open airway
398
What is postural drainage
Method of positioning a patient so that gravity aids in the drainage of secretions from the bronchi and lobes of the lungs to make a breathing easier
399
What do antihistamines do
Block histamines from binding with histamine receptor sites in tissues
400
What do antitussives do
Relieve or suppress coughing by blocking the cough reflex in the medulla of the brain
401
what do bronchodilators do
Stimulate bronchial muscles to relax, thereby expanding air passages, resulting in increased airflow
402
What do corticosteroids do
act on the immune system by blocking production of substance of the trigger allergic and inflammatory actions
403
what do decongestants do
Constrict blood vessels of nasal passages and limit blood flow, which causes swollen tissues to shrink so the air can pass more freely through the passageways
404
what do expectorants do
Liquefy respiratory secretions that they are more easily dislodged during coughing episodes
