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Network+ > Chap 1 - Network Fundamentals - Part 1 > Flashcards

Chap 1 - Network Fundamentals - Part 1 Flashcards

1
Q

1-1: At which of the following layers of the OSI model do the protocols on a typical LAN use MAC addresses to identify computers on the network?

Physical
Data link
Network
Transport

A

Data link

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2
Q

1-2: Which of the following organizations developed the OSI model?

International Telecommunication Union (ITU-T)
Comite Consultatif International Trelgraphique et Telephonique (CCITT)
American National Standards Institute (ANSI)
Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE)
International Organization for Standadizations (ISO)

A

International Organization for Standadizations (ISO)

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3
Q

1-3: Which layer of the OSI model is responsible for the logical addressing of end systems and routing of datagrams on a network?

Physical
Data link
Network
Transport
Session
Presentation
Application

A

Network

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4
Q

1-4: On a TCP/IP network, which layers of the OSI model contain protocols that are responsible for encapsulating the data generated by an application, creating the payload for a packet that will be transmitted over a network? (Choose all that apply)

Physical
Data link
Network
Transport
Session
Presentation
Application

A

Data link
Network
Transport

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5
Q

1-5: Which layer of the OSI model is responsible for translating and formatting information?

Physical
Data link
Network
Transport
Session
Presentation
Application

A

Presentation

note: only the presentation layer does this

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6
Q

1-6: Which of the following devices typically operates at the network layer of the OSI model?

Proxy Server
Hub
Network Interface Adapter
Router

A

Router

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7
Q

1-7: Which layer of the OSI model provies an entrance point to the protocol stack for applications?

Physical
Data link
Network
Transport
Session
Presentation
Application

A

Application

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8
Q

1-8: Which layer of the OSI model is responsible for dialogue control between two communicating end systems?

Physical
Data link
Network
Transport
Session
Presentation
Application

A

Session

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9
Q

1-9: Some switches can pefrom functions associated with two layers of the OSI model. Which two of the following layers are often associated with network switching? (choose two)

Physical
Data link
Network
Transport

A

Data link
Network

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10
Q

1-10: At which later of the OSI model are there TCP/IP protocols that can provide either connectionless or connection-orientated services to applications?

Physical
Data link
Network
Transport
Session
Presentation
Application

A

Transport

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11
Q

1-11: Which of the following layers of the OSI model typically have dedicated physical hardware devices associated with them? (Choose all that apply)

Physical
Data link
Network
Transport
Session
Presentation
Application

A

Physical
* hubs
* cables
* network interface adapters

Data link
* bridges
* switches

Network
* routers

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12
Q

1-12: At which layer of the OSI model is there a protocol that adds both a header and a footer to the information that is passed down from an upper layer, thus creating a frame?

Physical
Data link
Network
Transport
Session
Presentation
Application

A

Data link

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13
Q

1-13: Identify the layer of the OSI model that controls the addressing, transmission, and reception of Ethernet frames, and also identify the media access control method that Ethernet uses.

Physical layer; Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Detection (CSMA/CD)
Physical layer; Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Avoidance (CSMA/CA)
Data link layer; CSMA/CD
Data link layer; CSMA/CA

A

Data link layer; CSMA/CD

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14
Q

What media access control method does Ethernet use?

A

Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Detection (CSMA/CD)

CSMA/CD stands for Carrier-Sense Multiple Access with Collision Detection. It is an obsolete access method that was used in wired LAN (Local Area Network) technologies, particularly Ethernet systems. This method allowed frames of data to flow through the network to their intended destination addresses. In a CSMA/CD network, hosts would first listen to the network to determine if any data was currently being transmitted. If the network was clear, the hosts would proceed to send out their data. However, if a collision occurred—meaning that two hosts attempted to send data at the same time—both hosts would then wait for a randomly determined time period before attempting to retransmit their data. The development and adoption of full-duplex Ethernet, which allows for simultaneous bidirectional data transmission, rendered CSMA/CD obsolete

Ethernet uses the Carrier-Sense Multiple Access with Collision Detection (CSMA/CD) method for media access control. This system allows devices on a network to share the same cable and determines which machine should send data at any given time. Before sending a data frame, each node on the network checks the cable to see if another machine is already using it. If the cable is in use, the node waits a few milliseconds and checks again. If no traffic is detected, the node sends out its frame. This method ensures that all machines have equal access to the wire on a first-come, first-served basis. CSMA/CD was mapped to the IEEE 802.3 standard for Ethernet networks, although it is disabled in modern full-duplex networks

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15
Q

1-14: At which layer of the OSI model do you find the protocol reponsible for the delivery of data to its ultimate destination?

Data link
Network
Session
Application

A

Network

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16
Q

1-15: Which of the following is not a protocol operating at the network layer of the OSI model?

IP
ICMP
IGMP
IMAP

A

IMAP

IMAP (Internet Message Access Protocol) is the protocol among the options provided that does not operate at the network layer of the OSI model. IMAP is used for email retrieval and operates at the application layer. The other protocols mentioned, IP (Internet Protocol), ICMP (Internet Control Message Protocol), and IGMP (Internet Group Management Protocol), all operate at the network layer.

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17
Q

IGMP

A

Internet Group Management Protocol

  • protocol in IP networking that enables the management of multicast group memberships
  • Longer: is a protocol used by routers to communicate with hosts to determine group membership for multicasting purposes. It helps identify which computers wish to receive a multicast. Once a multicast has begun, IGMP is responsible for maintaining the multicast and also for terminating it upon completion
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18
Q

1-16: Ed is a software developer who has been given the task of creating an application that requires guaranteed delivery of information between end systems. At which layer of the OSI model does the protocol that provides guaranteed delivery run, and what type of protocol must Ed use?

Data link layer; connectionless
Network layer; connection-orientated
Transport layer; connection-orientated
Application layer; connectionless

A

Transport layer; connection-orientated

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19
Q

1-17: Which of the following devices operates only at the physical layer of the OSI model?

Hub
Bridge
Switch
Router

A

Hub

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20
Q

1-19: Which layers of the OSI model do not have protocols in the TCP/IP suite which exclusively dedicated to them? (choose all that apply)

Physical
Data link
Network
Transport
Session
Presentation
Application

A

Session
Presentation

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21
Q

1-20: The protocols at which layer of the OSI model use port numbers to identify the applications that are the source and the desitnation of the data in the packets?

Application
Presentation
Transport
Network

A

Transport

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22
Q

1-22: At which of the OSI model layers do switches and bridges perform their basic functions?

Physical
Data link
Network
Transport

A

Data link

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23
Q

1-23: On a TCP/IP Network flow control is a function implemented in protocols operating at which layer of the OSI model?

Presentation
Sessions
Transport
Network

A

Transport

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24
Q

1-25: Which of the OSI model layers is responsible for syntax translation and compression or encryption?

Data link
Network
Session
Presentation
Application

A

Presentation

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25
Q

Flow Control

A
  • transport layer (layer 4)
  • manages the pace of data transmission between two devices to prevent a fast sender from overwhelming a slow receiver
  • allows a receiving device to control the amount of data sent by a sender, ensuring that the buffer of the receiving device does not overflow, leading to loss of data.
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26
Q

1-27: Specify the layer of the OSI model at which the Internet Protocol (IP) operates and whether it is connection-orientated or connectionless

Network; connection-orientated
Network; connectionless
Transport; connection-orientated
Transport; connectionless

A

Network; connectionless

There are no connection orientated protocols on the Network Layer

TCP: Transport Layer, Connection-orientated
UDP: Transport Layer, Connectionless

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27
Q

1-29: Which of the following protocols operate at the application layer of the OSI model? (choose all that apply)

HTTP
SNMP
ICMP
IGMP
UDP

A

HTTP

SNMP

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28
Q

What layer of the OSI model does ICMP operate at?

What does it stand for and what does it do?

A
  • Network Layer (Layer 3)
  • Internet Control Message Protocol
  • used by network devices, including routers, to send error messages and operational information indicating the status of the network

ICMP is used for diagnostics and troubleshooting purposes, to report issues back to the source when a device does not reach its intended destination

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29
Q

What layer of the OSI model does IGMP operate at?

What does it stand for and what does it do?

A
  • Network Layer (Layer 3)
  • Internet Group Management Protocol (IGMP)
  • IGMP plays a crucial role in managing multicast IP traffic across networks

It allows routers to communicate effectively with hosts and switches to establish and maintain group memberships for multicast distribution. In essence, IGMP helps in determining which hosts are interested in receiving multicast traffic and which are not.

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30
Q

What layer of the OSI model does UDP operate at?

What does it stand for and what does it do?

A
  • Transport Layer (Layer 4)
  • User Datagram Protocol
  • used for programs that require a simple, connectionless communication model where the delivery of data is not guaranteed

UDP is part of the Internet Protocol Suite, which is used for programs that require a simple, connectionless communication model where the delivery of data is not guaranteed. UDP is often referred to as a “fire and forget” protocol because it sends data (datagrams) without establishing a connection between the communication partners and does not provide any guarantee that the data sent will be received by the target. This makes UDP faster and more efficient for certain types of applications, where speed is critical and occasional data loss is acceptable

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31
Q

1-30: Which layer of the OSI model would be responsible for converting a text file encoded using EBCDIC on the sending system into ASCII code, when required by the receiving system?

Application
Presentation
Session
Physical

A

Presentation

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32
Q

1-31: Which of the follwoing protocols operates at the Network Layer of the OSI model, but does not encapsulate data generated by an upper layer protocol for transmission over the network?

IP
UDP
ARP
ICMP
TCP

A

ICMP

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33
Q

What layer of the OSI model does ARP operate at?

What does it stand for and what does it do?

A

Data link Layer (Layer 2)

Address Resolution Protocol

The Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) operates in IPv4 environments to translate IP addresses to the corresponding physical MAC (Media Access Control) addresses, facilitating communication within a network

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34
Q

What layer of the OSI model does TCP operate at?

What does it stand for and what does it do?

A

Transport Layer (Layer 4)

Transport Control Protocol

TCP is a core protocol of the Internet Protocol Suite. It operates at the transport layer and is used to provide reliable, ordered, and error-checked delivery of a stream of bytes between applications running on hosts communicating via an IP network

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35
Q

1-32: A client on a TCP/IP Network is attempting to establish a session with a server. Which of the following correctly lists the order of the TCP flags raised in TCP session establishment messages?

SYN, ACK, SYN, ACK
SYN, SYN, ACK, ACK
SYN/ACK, SYN,ACK
SYN, SYN/ACK, ACK

A

SYN, SYN/ACK, ACK

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36
Q

What is the MTU size for Ethernet?

A

1500 bytes

actually 1518, 18 bytes are used for header and footer data

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37
Q

MTU

A

Maximum Transmission Unit

The Maximum Transmission Unit (MTU) refers to the largest size of a data unit that can be transmitted in a communications protocol, such as Ethernet. This value is crucial because it determines the maximum size of packets or frames that can be sent over the network without requiring fragmentation

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38
Q

1-34: Which of the following TCP control bits is set to 1 to intiate the termination of a session?

SYN
URG
FIN
END
PSH

A

FIN

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39
Q

SYN packet

A

The ‘SYN’ is the first packet sent from a client to a server; it literally asks a server to open a connection with it.

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40
Q

URG packet

A

The URG (Urgent) flag is used to signal “urgent” data that should be prioritized over non-urgent data. This is used to send so-called “out-of-band data,” which is treated in a special way by the operating system and usually signals some kind of exception in the application protocol.

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41
Q

PSH packet

A

The PSH (push) flags instruct the operating system to send (for the sending side) and receive (for the receiving side) the data immediately.

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42
Q

FIN packet

A

A FIN packet is typically associated with the TCP/IP protocol suite and is used to terminate an established TCP connection. It’s part of the process of gracefully closing a TCP connection between two endpoints.

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43
Q

1-35: An electrician installing a new light fixture accidential servers one of the LAN cables running through the dropped ceiling space. With which topology would the severed cable cause the greatest amount of disturbance to the network?

Bus
Star
Logical Ring
Mesh

A

Bus

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44
Q

Bus

A

A bus network topology uses a single bus cable to connect all the computers in a line. In this topology, networks must be terminated at both ends to prevent signal reflection. It’s important to note that true bus topologies are no longer commonly used in modern network designs..

Requires the installation of terminating resistors at two locations

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45
Q

Star

A
  • also referred to as a hub-and-spoke topology
  • involves a central connection point (like a hub or switch) to which all the computers and devices on the network are connected directly.

longer:
This setup offers significant fault tolerance advantages over other topologies such as bus and ring networks. In a star topology, if one of the cables connecting a device to the central hub fails, only that particular device is affected, and the rest of the network continues to function normally. This resilience to failures made star topologies a popular choice despite the initial challenges in transitioning from older network designs

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46
Q

Logical Ring

A
  • Logical ring networks form a circular data flow, managed to resemble a ring structure despite physical variations.
  • Token Ring networks utilize token-passing, pioneered by IBM, for orderly data transmission among devices.
  • Logical ring networks prioritize efficient data flow but face disruption risks from single node failures without failover mechanisms.
  • Today, logical ring networks are less common, with networks favoring more resilient topologies like star or mesh configurations.
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47
Q

Mesh

A
  • A type of network topology where every device (or node) is interconnected with one another, allowing for data to be transmitted across multiple paths
  • Types: Partially Meshed: In a partially meshed network, not all devices are directly connected to each other. At least two devices have redundant connections, creating multiple paths for data transmission but not necessarily a direct link between every pair of devices in the network.
  • Fully Meshed: In a fully meshed network, every device is directly connected to every other device. This allows for the most redundancy and reliability, as there are multiple paths for data to travel between any two points in the network. If one path fails, data can be rerouted through another path
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48
Q

Hybrid Topology

A

A network that uses two or more basic topologies, connected together so that each workstation can communicate with all other workstations.

Example: 4 switches connected via bus topology, this combines four star networks in such a way that all workstations are inconnected

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49
Q

1-40: Which of the following topologies requires the installation of terminating resistors at two locations?

Bus
Star
Ring
Mesh

A

Bus

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50
Q

Hierarchical Star

A

A hierarchical star network, often referred to in the context of hybrid topologies, combines elements of both star and another topology (like ring or bus) to form a network structure that leverages the benefits of a star topology while maintaining the characteristics of the secondary topology in terms of data flow or signal transmission.

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51
Q

SDWAN

A

Software Defined Wide Area Network

automates the configuration of WAN routers based on the current mix of traffic

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52
Q

Z-Wave

A
  • proprietary wireless communications protocol designed specifically for home automation
  • operates in a mesh network of low-powered devices
  • allowes for the integration and control of appliances, lighting, HVAC systems, and security systems, among others.
  • Supports a network of up to 232 devices and operates at the 908- and 916-MHz frequency bands.
  • This protocol is known for its reliability, low power consumption, and ease of integration, making it a popular choice for smart home ecosystems
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53
Q

Ad-Hoc Wifi Topology

A

devices communicate directly with each other

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54
Q

Infrastucture Wifi Topology

A

wireless devices connect to an access point

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55
Q

1-45: Which of the following cabling topologies was used by the first Ethernet networks?

Bus
Ring
Star
Mesh

A

Bus

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56
Q

1-46: On an Ethernet network using the star topology, which of the following devices that can function as the cabling nexus that forms the figurative center of the star? (choose all that apply)

Hub
Router
Switch
Access Point

A

Hub

Switch

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57
Q

1-50: Dense Wave Division Multiplexing (DWDM) is a signaling technology that has become a popular choice in the construction of which of the following types of provider links?

DSL
Metro-optical
Satellite
Cable

A

Metro-optical

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58
Q

1-51: Which of the following statements is true about the differences between peer-to-peer network and client-server network?

Peer-to-peer networks are inherently less secure than client-server networks
Peer-to-peer networks are illegal, which client-server networks are legal
On peer-to-peer networks, every workstation is capable of authenticating users
On a peer-to-peer network, all workstations must share their resources

A

On peer-to-peer networks, every workstation is capable of authenticating users

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59
Q

1-54: Which of the following WAN technologies uses broadband signalling?

Digital Subcriber Line (DSL)
Synchronous Optical Network (SONET)
Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN)
Cable TV (CATV)

A

Cable TV (CATV)

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60
Q

SONET

A

Synchronous Optical Network

physical layer standard that defines fiber optic connections

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61
Q

What is the speed of a T-3 dedicated lease line?

A

44.735 Mbps

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62
Q

PSTN

A

Public Switched Telephone Network

analog circuit switched network

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63
Q

1-59: What are the two main factors that affect DSL transmission rates? (Choose all that apply)

Signal termination
Distance to the nearest central office
Line Conditions
Line Reflection

A

Distance to the nearest central office

Line Conditions

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64
Q

1-60: Which of the following best describes the function of a decmarcation point or demarc?

  • The vertical cross-connect that links horizontal networks together
  • The place where an outside service enters the building
  • A switch or hub that connects computers in a particular work are together, forming a horizontal network
  • The place in a telecommunications room where a patch panel is located
A

The place where an outside service enters the building

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65
Q

1-62: Which of the following hardware components is typically found at the demarcation point (demarc) of a leased line, such as a T-1, or a T-3?

Terminator
Punchdown Block
110 block
Smartjack
CSU/DSU

A

Smartjack

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66
Q

110 Block

A

A 110 block is a connection gridwork used to link UTP (Unshielded Twisted Pair) and STP (Shielded Twisted Pair) cables behind an RJ-45 jack or patch panel. It is also known as a 110-punchdown block

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67
Q

Smartjack

A

network interface device at a demarcation point (demarc) of a leased line which can provide:

  • signal conversion
  • diagnostic testing
  • and other capabilities

Used instead of a place RJ-45 jack

68
Q

CSU/DSU

A
  • CSU/DSU (Channel Service Unit/Data Service Unit)
  • converts a digital data frame from local area network (LAN) communication technology into a frame appropriate for a wide area network (WAN) and vice versa.
  • a hardware device about the size of a modem
69
Q

What does 100 Base-T mean?

A

100 mbps network running over Twisted pair

70
Q

What is the speed, number of separate channels and number of equivalent T-1 connections for a T-3 leased line?

A
  • T-3: speed: 44.736 Mbps
  • indivudual T-1: 1.544 Mbps
  • T-3 phone lines: 672
  • individual T-1: 24 phone lines (channels)
  • T-1 connections: 28
  • channels: 672 = 28 T-1 connections x 24 channels per connection
71
Q

1-68: Which of the following is a wide area networking mechanism that assigns labels to packets and forwards them based on those labels rather than addresses?

Frame relay
MPLS
ATM
PPPoE
SDWAN

A

MPLS - Multiprotocol Label Switching

71
Q

SONET base speed

A
  • 51.84 Mbps or could be called OC-1
  • to get OC-3: 51.84 * 3 = 155.52
  • OC-12 = 51.84 * 12 = 622.08, etc….
72
Q

MPLS

A

MPLS - Multiprotocol Label Switching: wide area networking mechanism that assigns labels to packets and forwards them based on those labels rather than addresses

73
Q

Frame Relay

A
  • defines how frames are routed through a fast-packet network based on the address field in the frame
  • takes advantage of the reliability of data communications networks to minimize the error checking done by the network nodes

Another way to say it:

Frame relay is packet switching service that uses a single leased line to replace multiple leased lines by mulitplexing traffic through a cloud. The service can create virtual circuits connecting the subscriber’s network to multiple destinations, elminating the need for a dedicated leased line to each remote site

74
Q

ATM

A

Asynchronous Transfer mode

A wide-area network (WAN) technology, asynchronous transfer mode (ATM) is a transfer mode for switching and transmission that efficiently and flexibly organizes information into cells; it is asynchronous in the sense that the recurrence of cells depends on the required or instantaneous bit rate.

75
Q

PPPoE

A
  • Point-to-Point Protocol over Ethernet
  • a network protocol that facilitates communication between network endpoints.
  • encapsulates Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP) frames inside Ethernet frames, offering the same benefits as PPP, while providing connectivity across Ethernet networks.
76
Q

PPP

A
  • Point-to-Point Protocol
  • Data link layer protocol
  • communication protocol between two routers directly without any host or any other networking in between
  • used for transporting multi-protocol datagrams over P-2-P links
77
Q

1-69: Which two of the following contructs provide roughly the same function (Choose two)

SIP trunk
CSU/DSU
VoIP Gateway
Smartjack
VPN concentrator

A

SIP trunk

VoIP Gateway

78
Q

SIP Trunk

A

Session Initiation Protocol Trunk

provides a connection between public and private domains of a unified communications network

79
Q

VoIP Gateway

A

provides a connection between an IP network and a PSTN

80
Q

SDH

A

Sychronous Digital Hierarchy

European version of SONET

81
Q

E-3

A

European version of a T-3

82
Q

QSFP/QSFP+

A

Quad Small Formfactor Pluggable

a standard type of modular transceiver, often used on fibre-optic installations.

83
Q

What is a B Channel?

A

part of an ISDN network

84
Q

1-73: MPLS (Multiprotocol Label Switching) is sometimes said to operate between two layers of the OSI model. Between which two layers does it operate?

Physical and Data link
Data link and Network
Network and Transport
Transport and Session

A

Data link and Network

85
Q

1-77: Which of the following types of WAN connections commonly use Point-to-Point Protocol over Ethernet (PPPoE)? (Choose all that apply)

Leased Lines
SONET
Cable Broadband
Digital Subscriber Line (DSL)

A

Cable Broadband

Digital Subscriber Line (DSL)

86
Q

1-76: Which of the follwing are types of circuits offered by frame relay services? (choose all that apply)

SRV
PVC
SVC
UPC

A

PVC - permanent virtual circuits
SVC - switched virtual circuits

87
Q

SRV

A

Service record: resource record type in DNS

used to define location (i.e.: hostname and port number) of servers for specified services

88
Q

UPC

A

ultra physical contact

type of fibre optic connector

89
Q

1-79: Which of the following WAN services typically uses a switched fabric that was called a cloud long before the term came into general use?

ATM
Fractional T-1
SONET
Frame relay

A

Frame relay

90
Q

What type of network topology do all coaxial based Ethernet networks (including Thin Ethernet) use?

A

Bus

91
Q

What type of network topology do all UTP (untwisted pair) based Gigabit Ethernet networks use?

A

Star

92
Q

1-87: In which of the following ways does a vSwitch (virtual switch) differ from a physical switch?

  • vSwitches have an unlimited number of ports, whereas physical switches have a specific number
  • Physical switches typically support the creation of VLANS whereas vSwitches do not
  • vSwitches cannot forward traffic to the host server running them, whereas physical switches can forward traffic to all connected computers
  • Physical switches always include Layer 3 functionality, whereas vSwitches do not
A

vSwitches have an unlimited number of ports, whereas physical switches have a specific number

93
Q

1-88: In which oif the following components can a virtual firewall be implemented?

On a host OS
On a guest OS
In a dedicated VM
In a vSwitch
All of the Above

A

All of the Above

94
Q

1-89: Which of the following technologies can replace leased lines such as T-1s, by multiplexing signals as packets switched through virtual circuits in a cloud?

E-1s
Frame relay
ATM
PPP

A

Frame relay

95
Q

Multiplexing

A

Multiplexing is the process of combining two or more information channels into a single transmission medium.

96
Q

MGRE

A

Multipoint GRE (mGRE)
* a variation of the Generic Routing Encapsulation (GRE) protocol
* used to facilitate the creation of dynamic VPN networks over the internet.

Unlike traditional GRE, which establishes point-to-point tunnel connections, mGRE allows a single GRE interface to support multiple tunnels. This is particularly useful for networks that need to connect multiple branches or remote locations without having to configure a separate GRE tunnel for each connection.

97
Q

1-91: Which of the following is not one of the primary components of Network Function Virtualization (NFV) framework?

VNF
NFV ISG
NFVI
NFV-MANO

A

NFV ISG

98
Q

NFV

A

Network Function Virtualization (NFV) framework

Published by the European Telecommunications Standards Institute (ETSI) has three main components:

  • Virtualized Network Functions (VNF)
  • Network Functions Virtualization Infrastructure (NFVI)
  • Network Functions Virtualization Management and Orchestration (NFV-MANO) framework
99
Q

VNF

A

Virtualized Network Functions (VNF)

software based implementations of standard network services such as firewalls, and load balancers

100
Q

NFVI

A

Network Functions Virtualization Infrastructure (NFVI)

hardware/software environment that hosts VNF

101
Q

NFV- MANO

A

Network Functions Virtualization Management and Orchestration (NFV-MANO) framework

elements required to deploy and administer NFVI and VNF

102
Q

NFV ISG

A

Network Functions Virtualization Industry Specification Group

group within the European Telecommunications Standards Institute (ETSI) that develops NFV standards

103
Q

1-94: Identify the organizations that developed the general cable type standards for voice and data communications that are currently in use and identify the document name.

ANSI/TVA - document C568
TWA/ANSI/EIA - document T530-A
EIA/ANSI/TWA - document 802.2
TDA/EIA/TIA - document 802.11
ANSI/TIA/EIA - document T568b

A

ANSI/TIA/EIA - document T568b

104
Q

TIA

A

Telecommunications Industry Association

105
Q

EIA

A

Electronics Industry Association

106
Q

1-95: Which of the following cable types and connectors are used to attach a television set to a cable television (CATV) network?

a fiber-optic cable and a Straight Tip (ST) connector
a coaxial cable and a Bayonet-Neill-Concelman (BNC) connector
A twisted pair cable and an RJ-45 connector
a coaxial cable and a F-type connector
A AUI cable and a vampire tap connector
A twinaxial cable and a Bayonet-Neill-Concelman (BNC) connector

A

a coaxial cable and a F-type connector

107
Q

RG-8

A

50-ohm cable type used for thick ethernet
uses BNC, N or UHF connectors depending on use

108
Q

RG-58

A
  • 50-omh coaxial cable
  • used for thin ethernet
  • 0.195in
  • uses BNC connectors
109
Q

66 block

A

type of punchdown block used for telephone systems in 1962. Replaced by the 110 block and by 2000 no more 66 blocks were being installed

110
Q

Krone LSA-Plus

A

proprietary telecommunications connector type commonly used in European installations

111
Q

BIX

A

Building Industry Cross Connect

proprietary US telecommunications connection system

112
Q

RG-6

A

75 ohm coaxials cable used for television and similar signals

113
Q

RG-59

A

75 ohm coaxials cable used for television and similar signals

114
Q

1-101: Which of the follwoing statements about the differences between fibre-optic Angled Physical Contact (APC) and Ultra-Physical Contact (UPC) connectors are true? (Choose all that apply)

APCs should only be joined to other APCs
APCs generate more insertion loss than UPCs
UPCs generate more return loss than APCs
UPCs use a green connector boot or body

A
  • APCs should only be joined to other APCs
  • APCs generate more insertion loss than UPCs
  • UPCs generate more return loss than APCs
115
Q

APC

A

Angled Physical Contact (APC)

type of fibre connector

116
Q

1-102: Which of the following is not a type of fibre-optic connector?

SC
MTRJ
ST
BNC

A

BNC

117
Q

MTRJ

A

Mechnical Transfer Registered Jack

type of fiber optic connector

118
Q

1-103: Which of the following physical layer transceiver module standard is the oldest and therefore the most obselete?

SFP
SFP+
GBIC
QSFP
QSFP+

A

GBIC

119
Q

GBIC

A

Gigabit interface converter

published in 1995, defines maximum transfer rate of 1.25 Gbps

120
Q

SFP/SFP+

A

Small Form Factor pluggable

introduced in 2001, runs at 1.25 Gbps but smaller than GBIC

121
Q

1-107: Which of the following combinations of attributes describes the cable used for a Thin Ethernet network?

RJ-45, 50-ohm, 0.270-inch, coaxial cable with BNC connectors
RG-59, 75-ohm, 0.242-inch, coaxial cable with F connectors
RG-58, 50-ohm, 0.195-inch, coaxial cable with BNC connectors
RG-8, 50-ohm, 0.405-inch, coaxial cable with N connectors
RJ-6, 75-ohm, 0.242-inch, coaxial cable with BNC connectors

A

RG-58, 50-ohm, 0.195-inch, coaxial cable with BNC connectors

122
Q

1-108: Which of the following connector types are associated with Ethernet networks? (Choose all that apply)

F-type
BNC
RJ-45
DB-9
N-Type

A
  • BNC - for thin ethernet
  • RJ-45 - all unshielded twisted pair (UTP) ethernet
  • N-Type - for thick ethernet
123
Q

D-subminiture connectors

A

DB-9: commonly used for serial port connections
DB-9: analoge used for printers and sometimes communications

both are considered obselete

124
Q

1-109: Which of the following connector types was typically associated with a T-connector attached to the computer?

RJ-45
MT-RJ
8P8C
BNC
F

A

BNC

Used in thin ethernet. Each NIC has a T-connector attached with a male BNC connector on either end

125
Q

8P8C

A

8P8C stands for “8-position, 8-contact” and refers to a type of modular connector commonly used in networking and telecommunications. It is often mistaken as an “RJ-45” connector, but that term is more specific to the wiring standard used for Ethernet connections.

126
Q

Vampire tap

A

A vampire tap, also known as a vampire clamp or vampire connector, is a type of electrical connector used to tap into or splice into a coaxial cable, typically for the purpose of creating a connection for television or networking purposes.

The name “vampire” comes from the idea that the connector pierces the outer insulation of the coaxial cable to make contact with the inner conductor without the need for cutting or stripping the cable.

127
Q

1-111: Which of the following types of cable when installed, sometimes employed a device called a vampire tap?

Unshielded Twisted Pair
Shielded Twisted Pair
Multimode fiber optic
Single-model fiber optic
Coaxial

A

Coaxial

128
Q

1-113: Which of the following statements about single-mode and multimode fiber-optic cables are true? (Choose all that apply)

Single-mode cables can span longer distances than multimode cables
Single-mode cables are more resistant to EMI than multimode cables
Single-mode cables are more difficult to install than multimode cables
Single-mode cables have a much larger core diameter than multimode cables

A
  • Single-mode cables can span longer distances than multimode cables
  • Single-mode cables are more difficult to install than multimode cables
129
Q

1-114: Which of the following components are typically used only foir telephone cable installation and not for data networking? (Choose all that apply)

66 blocks
110 blocks
25 pair UTP cables
100 pair UTP cables

A
    1. 66 blocks
    1. 25 pair UTP cables
    1. 100 pair UTP cables
130
Q

1-115: Which of the following statements about single-mode fiber optic cables are true? (Choose all that apply)

  • Single-mode cables use an LED light source as multimode cables use a laser
  • Single-mode cables can span longer distances than multimode cables
  • Single-mode cables have a smaller core filament than multimode cables
  • Single-mode cables have a smaller bend radius than multimode cables, making them eaiser to install
  • Single-mode cables require a ground, whereas multimode cables do not
A
  • Single-mode cables can span longer distances than multimode cables
  • Single-mode cables have a smaller core filament than multimode cables
131
Q

1-117: Ralph has been hired by a client to install cabling to connect two existing networks. The two networks are in different buildings approximately 1000 feet apart. The cable type must supprot Gigabit Ethernet data rates of 1000 megabits per second (Mbps) and provide a high level of resistance to EMI. The client wants the most economical cabling solution that meets their needs. Which of the following cable types best meets the needs of the client?

Multimode fiber
Shielded Twisted Pair (STP)
Unshielded Twisted Pair (UTP)
Thin coaxial cable
Single-mode fiber

A

Multimode fiber

  • covers distance requirement
  • covers speed requirement
  • resistant to EMI
  • cheaper than Single-mode fiber
132
Q

1-119: Alice has been hired by a corporation to design the cabling for their network. The corporation just moved into two different floors of an older building: a retail space on the ground floor and an office space on the 43rd floor. The building has an existing Cat5 UTP cable. Alice’s client wants two separate LANs, one on each of the two floors, with a backbone network connecting them. They want a 1Gbps data rate for each LAN, but plan on migrating to 10 Gbps in the future. The two networks are approximately 200 meters apart. Which of the following solutions best meets the needs of the client?

  • Install Cat6 or Cat6a UTP cable for the LAN. These cables run at 1 Gbps and provide a migration path to 10Gbps. Use UTP for the backbone network
  • Use the existing Cat5 cabling for the LANs, since CAT5 runs at 1Gbps. Use thick coaxial cable for the backbone network
  • Install Cat 6 or Cat 6a UTP cable for the LANs. These cables run at 1 Gbps and provide a migration path to 10 Gbps. Use multimode fiber for the backbone network
  • Install Cat 6 or Cat 6a UTP cable for the LANs. These cables run at 1 Gbps and provide a migration path to 10 Gbps. Use the existing Cat5 cable for the backbone network
A

Install Cat 6 or Cat 6a UTP cable for the LANs. These cables run at 1 Gbps and provide a migration path to 10 Gbps. Use multimode fiber for the backbone network

133
Q

Transmission speeds and distances for:
* Cat3
* Cat5
* Cat5e
* Cat6
* Cat6a
* Cat7

A

Cat3
* 10 Mbps
* 100m/328ft

Cat5
* 100 Mbps (can go up to gigabit in some scenarios but is not recommended)
* 100m/328ft

Cat5e
* 100 Mbps - 1Gbps
* 100m/328ft

Cat 6
* 1 - 10 Gpbs
* 100m/328ft, 55m for 10 Gpbs

Cat 6e
* 1 - 10 Gbps
* 100m/328ft

Cat 7 (and later not endorsed by CompTIA)
* 10 Gbps - 40 Gbps
* 100m/328ft, 40 Gpbs at 50m

Cat 8
* 25 - 40 Gbps
* 30m

134
Q

1-120: A maintenance worker accidently severs a network cable in a drop ceiling. The tenants use a variety of LAN tech throughout the structure, on that particular floor there are three LANs:
* 10-node thin ethernet using coaxial cable in bus topology
* 25-node Gigabit ethernet using TP in star topology
* 5-node Fiber Distributed Data Interface (FDDI) using multimode fiber in double ring topology
Without knowing which of the LANs the severed cable belongs to, what is the maximum number of computers that could be directly affected by the cable breaks?

0
1
5
10
25
40

A

10

  • FDDI is in double ring, so 1 cable break doesn’t affect
  • 25-node in star will at most affect 1
135
Q

What is the punchdown process for UTP?

A
  1. Strip some of the sheath off the cable end to expose wires
  2. Separate the twisted wire pairs at the end
  3. Strip a small amopunt of insulation off each wire
  4. Insert the wires into the appropriate contacts in the jack
  5. Press the bare wire down between two metal contacts and hold it in place
  6. Cut off the excess wire that protrudes past the contacts

repeat for both ends of internal cable runs

136
Q

1-127: Which of the following cable types are typically used in newly constructed LAN installations? (Choose all that apply)

Single-mode fiber
Multimode fiber
Coaxaial
UTP

A

Multimode fiber

UTP

137
Q

1-128: Which of the following statements about coaxial cabling are true? (Choose all that apply)

Coaxial cable has three conductors within the same sheath
Coaxial cable has two conductors within the same sheath
Coaxial cable has a copper core that carries light pulse signals
Coaxial cable has a copper core that carries electrical signals
Coaxial cable has an insulating outer sheath made of braided strands
Coaxial cable has an insulating outer sheath made of PVC or Teflon

A

Coaxial cable has two conductors within the same sheath

Coaxial cable has a copper core that carries electrical signals

Coaxial cable has an insulating outer sheath made of PVC or Teflon

138
Q

1-129: Which of the following twisted pair cable types is rated for 1000 Mbps Gigabit Ethernet using two pairs? (Choose all that apply)

Cat3
Cat5
Cat5e
Cat6
Cat6a
None of the above

A

None of the above

four pairs are required for gigabit speeds

139
Q

1-130: Which of the following twisted pair cable types supports both 10 Mbps and 100 Mbps data rates using only two pairs (Choose all that apply)?

Cat3
Cat5
Cat5e
Cat6

A

Cat5
Cat5e
Cat6

140
Q

Single-Mode Fiber light source

A

Laser

141
Q

Multimode fiber light source

A

LED

142
Q

1-132: Which of the following are characteristics of an internal cable installation? (Choose all that apply)

  • An internal cable installation uses only bulk spools of cabling with no connectors attached for most cable runs
  • An internal cable installation uses only prefabricated cabls with connectors attached for all cable runs
  • An internal cable installation uses solid wire conductors for all cable runs, regardless of distance
  • An internal cable installation uses stranded wire conductors for short cable runs and solid core for longer cable runs
  • In an internal cable installation, cables are typically not run through walls or ceilings
  • In an internal cable installation, cables are typically run through walls or ceilings
A
  • An internal cable installation uses only bulk spools of cabling with no connectors attached for most cable runs
  • An internal cable installation uses stranded wire conductors for short cable runs and solid core for longer cable runs
  • In an internal cable installation, cables are typically run through walls or ceilings
143
Q

1-137: In the 100Base-TX specification, which of the following are the functions of the Fast Link Pulse (FLP) signals exchanged by switches and network interface adapters? (Choose all that apply)

  • The FLP signals verify the integrity of the connection (or link) between the devices
  • The FLP signals enable the devices to negitoate the speed of the link between them
  • The FLP signals indicate when a collosion has occured
  • The devices use FLP signals to detect back frames
A
  • The FLP signals verify the integrity of the connection (or link) between the devices
  • The FLP signals enable the devices to negitoate the speed of the link between them
144
Q

FLP

A

Fast Light Pulse

Fast Link Pulse is a configuration item that is only applicable to Twisted Pair ports. When set to autonegotiate , the converter sends Fast Link Pulses on its twisted pair port, thereby participating in autonegotiation of duplex between the converter’s twisted pair port and that of the connected station.

145
Q

1-138: Which of the following 10 Gigabit Ethernet specificiations calls for the use of copper cable?

10GBase-LR
10GBase-CX4
10GBase-ER
10GBase-LX4
10GBase-SR

A

10GBase-CX4: copper cable

Fiber optic cable:
* 10GBase-LR
* 10GBase-ER
* 10GBase-LX4
* 10GBase-SR

146
Q

1-139: Alice is a networking consultant who has been contracted to upgrade an existing Ethernet network to Gigabit ethernet. The network consists of 20 workstations with integrated 10Base-T/100Base-TX/1000Base-T Network interface adapters. The network cabling is Cat5 UTP, installed when the building was constructed. All of the workstations are connected to a single 100Base-TX switch. Which of the following options would Alice find to be a valid upgrade path?

  • Replace the Cat5 cable with at least Cat5e or Cat6, and leave the existing network interface adapters and switch in place
  • Install a 1000Base-T NIC in each computer and leave the existing cables and switch in place
  • Replace the Cat5 cable with at least Cat5e or Cat6, and replace the 100Base-T switch with a 1000Base-T swtich
  • Replace the 100Base-T switch with a 1000Base-T switch, and leave the existing cables and Network interface adapters in place
A

Replace the 100Base-T switch witha 1000Base-T switch, and leave the existing cables and Network interface adapters in place

Book Justification (which I think is bullshit and no one would do this, unless the question said cost was an issue)

147
Q

Whats the fastest specification that can run on Cat5 cable?

A

1000Base-T

148
Q

1000Base-LX

A

1000BASE-LX is a gigabit Ethernet standard over fiber optic. It is for operating on single mode fiber (SMF) or multimode fiber (MMF), with a long wavelength of 1270 to 1355 nanometers (typically 1310nm). The “LX” stands for long reach. 1000BASE-LX supports 10km over single mode fiber.

149
Q

1000Base-SX

A
  • gigabit Ethernet standard over fiber optic
  • is used for operating on multimode fiber
  • short wavelength of 770 to 860 nanometers (typically 850nm)
  • “SX” stands for short reach over multimode fiber.
150
Q

1-141: Which IEEE standards for Ethernet support 10-megabit-per-second (Mbps) communications, and what are the correct segment limitations for each standard? (Choose all that apply)

10Base2; segment maximum is 100 meters
10Base2; segment maximum is 185 meters
10Base5; segment maximum is 500 meters
100Base5; segment maximum is 500 meters
10Base-T; segment maximum is 100 meters
10Base-T; segment maximum is 328 meters

A
  • 10Base2; segment maximum is 185 meters
  • 10Base5; segment maximum is 500 meters
  • 10Base-T; segment maximum is 100 meters
151
Q

10Base2

A
  • 10BASE2
  • uses thin coaxial cable
  • terminated with BNC connectors
  • Max legenth of 185m
152
Q

Thin Ethernet

A
  • 10BASE2
  • uses thin coaxial cable
  • terminated with BNC connectors
  • Max legenth of 185m
  • also known as cheapernet, thin Ethernet, thinnet, and thinwire
  • During the mid to late 1980s this was the dominant 10 Mbit/s Ethernet standard.
153
Q

10Base5

A
  • Thick Ethernet (or thicknet)
  • first commercially available variant of Ethernet
  • standardized in 1982 as IEEE 802.3.
  • uses a thick and stiff coaxial cable up to 500 meters (1,600 ft) in length.
  • RG-8 connectors
  • Up to 100 stations can be connected to the cable using vampire taps and share a single collision domain with 10 Mbit/s of bandwidth shared among them.
  • The system is difficult to install and maintain
154
Q

Thick Ethernet

A
  • 10BASE5
  • 10 Mbit/s of bandwidth shared
  • share a single collision domain
  • thick and stiff coaxial cable up to 500 meters (1,600 ft) in length
  • Up to 100 stations can be connected to the cable using vampire taps
  • also known as thick Ethernet or thicknet
  • first commercially available variant of Ethernet. The technology was standardized in 1982 as IEEE 802.3
  • The system is difficult to install and maintain.
155
Q

1-142: Which of the following are Ethernet cable types that must be configured in a bus topology? (Choose all that apply)

RG-8
RG-10
RG-14
RG-58

A

RG-8

RG-58

156
Q

T568B pinout standard

A
  • white/orange
  • orange
  • white/green
  • blue
  • white/blue
  • green
  • white/brown
  • brown
157
Q

T568A pinout standard

A
  • white/green
  • green
  • white/orange
  • blue
  • white/blue
  • orange
  • white/brown
  • brown
158
Q

1-147: Whch of the following services enables computers on a private IPv4 network to access the internet using a registered IP address?

DHCP
NAT
DNS
NTP

A

NAT

159
Q

NAT

A

Network Address Translation

  • Operates at Network Layer
  • Network Address Translation (NAT) is a method used to translate a system’s IP address into another IP address before it is sent out to a larger network.
  • Typically managed by a NAT program that runs on a system or a router.
  • NAT systems are provided with private IP addresses.
  • The system running the NAT software is connected to both the internal network and the larger external network through two interfaces.
  • The NAT program processes packets from the client systems that are intended for the external network by translating their internal private IP addresses into the NAT system’s own public IP address.
  • Allows multiple systems within the internal network to share a single public IP address when communicating with the external network
160
Q

1-146: Wavelength Division Multiplexing is a fiber-optic technique for carrying multiple signals on a single network medium. There are several types of this technique, including Coarse Wavelength Division Multiplexing (CWDM), Dense Wavelength Division Multiplexing (DWDM), and Bidirectional Wavelength Division Multiplexing (BWDM). Which of the following is not one of the ways in which these types of multiplexing differ?

They use different wavelength spacings
They carry different numbers of channels on a single medium
They provide different amounts of signal amplification
None of the above

A

None of the above

161
Q

Dual Stack

A

Ip implementation that includes both IPv4 and IPv6 protocol stacks operating simutaneously

162
Q

1-150: Which of the follwoing is the most accurate description of the subnetting process on an IPv4 network?

You extend the IP address by adding bits for a subnet identifer
You borrow bits from the network identifer to create a subnet identifer
You borrow bits from the host identifier to create a subnet identifer
You create a subnet identifer by borrowing half of the bits from the network identifer and half from the host identifer

A

You borrow bits from the host identifier to create a subnet identifer

163
Q

1-151: Which of the following IPv4 addresses are you unable to assign to a network host? (choose all that apply)

1.1.1.1
229.6.87.3
103.256.77.4
9.34.0.1

A
  • 229.6.87.3 - 224-239 are for class D (multicast) networks and cannot be used
  • 103.256.77.4 - 256 cannot be expressed as an 8bit value and therefore this address is invalid
164
Q

1-152: How many bits are allocated to the host identifier in an IPv4 address on the 10.72.0.0/17 network?

8
15
16
17

A

15

17 = network identifier
15 = host identifier

total of 32 = 8bit * 4

165
Q

1-154: Alice has been instructed to create an IPv4 network with 8 subnets and 30 hosts per subnet. She has been assigned a Class C network address. Which of the following subnet masks will she have to use?

255.255.255.128
255.255.255.192
255.255.255.224
255.255.255.240
255.255.255.248
255.255.255.252

A

How to do this:
1. take number of hosts and add 2, 1 for network address and one for broadcast address; in this case its 30 + 2 = 32
2. solve for 2^x >= # number of hosts, or 32. 2^5 = 32, so we need 5 bits for the host portion of the IP address
3. 5 bits for host, leaves 27 (from 32-bits of a IP address, 4 8-bit octets) for the network, so its a /27 network
4. convert this to binary, 11100000, the trailing 5 zeros are for the 5 bits of host address. When converted to decimal, this is 224

So the answer is: 255.255.255.224

166
Q

How do we create subnets?

A

To make smaller networks, called subnetworks, we will borrow bits from the host portion of the mask. For example, the Class C mask only uses the last octet for host addressing (255.255.255.0), we only have 8 bits at our disposal.

Network+ (10 decks)

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