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Network+ > Chap 3 - Network Operations > Flashcards

Chap 3 - Network Operations Flashcards

1
Q

MIB

A

Management Information Base

  • database that stores all reosurces to be monitored
  • data is hierarcical
  • resources are atrrtibuted an ID, OID, object identifier
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2
Q

SNMP

A

Simple Network Management Protocol

  • SNMPv1 (1988): Initial version, basic features for network management. Cleartext string authenication
  • SNMPv2: added better security, but not backwards compatible with v1
  • SNMPv2c: Minor tweaks to SNMPv1, improving efficiency, uses community strings for authenitcation, which are cleartext for backwards compatibility with v1
  • SNMPv3: Adds encryption, robust authentication, and enhanced device management features.
  • Communication: Uses UDP ports 161 (agent) and 162 (NMS aka traps)
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3
Q

3-1: After starting work as the network admin of Wingtip toys, you discovery that all of the switches in the company’s datacenter have support for remote management with built-in SNMP agents in each port. Which of the following tasks must you perform to be able to gather informaiton from the agents on those switches and display it on the central console? (Choose all that apply)

  • Install the network management software on a network computer
  • Install a MIB on each of the switches
  • Install an agent on the console computer
  • Install an MIB on the console computer
  • Purchase a network management product
A
  • Install the network management software on a network computer
  • Purchase a network management product
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4
Q

Three items in an SNMP based network management system

A
  1. a management console software product installed on a network computer
  2. agents installed on the devices you want to manage
  3. MIBs for each of the agents

Note: if a switch already has built-in support for SNMP, it means that they already have the agents and MIBs installed

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5
Q

3-2: Which version of SNMP do not include any security protection other than a cleartext community string? (Choose all that apply)

SNMPv1
SNMPv2
SNMPv2c
SNMPv3

A

SNMPv1

SNMPv2c

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6
Q

3-3: Which of the following statements about SNMP are not true? (Choose all that apply)

  • To effectively monitor a network using SNMP, you must be sure that all of the equipment you purchase when designing and building your network supports the protocol
  • SNMP is not only the name of a protocol, its also the name of a network management product
  • SNMPv1 and SNMPv2 rely on a community string as their only means of security
  • Most of the network management products on the market today support SNMPv1
A
  • SNMP is not only the name of a protocol, its also the name of a network management product
  • SNMPv1 and SNMPv2 rely on a community string as their only means of security
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7
Q

Syslog

A
  • Syslog Server: Collects messages from multiple devices across a network.
  • Listening Port: Uses UDP port 514 for logging messages from clients.
  • Log Reviews: Supports analysis of traffic logs and audit logs.
  • Message Tagging: Can automatically categorize messages by severity levels, ranging from 0 (Emergency) to 7 (Debug).
  • Telcos: Use TCP port 601 for syslog, though this is less common in general IT contexts
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8
Q

3-6: You are the network admin of your company’s network. Your company wants to peform a baseline anaylsis of network related traffic and statisitics. They want to track broadcasts, Cyclical Redundancy Check (CRC) and collision for all traffic transversing a switched network. In addition, they want to provide historical and daily reports for management. They also want to keep track of software distribution and metering. What type of network software product best meets their needs?

SNMP management
Protocol analyzer
Performance monitor
Network traffic monitor

A

SNMP management

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9
Q

3-8: SIEM products combine the capabilities of which of the following (Choose all that apply)

Syslog
SNMP
SEM
SIM

A

SEM
SIM

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10
Q

SEM

A

SEM (Security Event Management)

involves real-time monitoring of security events across the entire enterprise, often through edge devices, and centralizing security and event logs for analysis

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11
Q

SIM

A

Security Information Management (SIM)

This pertains to the practice of collecting, monitoring, and analyzing security-related data from computer logs and various network sources to identify security threats or incidents.

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12
Q

3-10: Which of the following statements best describes a baseline?

  • A baseline is an estimation of expected performance levels, based on manufacturer’s specifications
  • A baseline is a record of performance levels captured under actual workload conditions
  • A baseline is a record of performance levels captured under simulated workload conditions
  • A baseline is a record of performance levels captured before the system is actually in use
A

A baseline is a record of performance levels captured under actual workload conditions

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13
Q

Syslog codes

A
  • 0 (emergency) -7 (debug)
  • code 0 means the system is unusable
  • code 1 is an alert message meaning immediate action is needed
  • code 2 is a critical condition alert
  • code 3 is an error condition
  • code 4 is a warning
  • code 6 is information
  • code 7 is debug (lots of info)
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14
Q

3-18: Which of the following are reasons contributing to the number of packet drops displayed by an interface montior? (Choose all that apply)

Resets
Discards
Errors
Overflows

A

Discards
Errors

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15
Q

Discards

A

the process where a router discards a packet when its Time to Live (TTL) number decreases to zero at each hop

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16
Q

Overflows

A

where a system or a buffer cannot handle more data than it is designed to hold, leading to data loss or system malfunctions

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17
Q

3-20: Log management typically consists of which of the following tasks? (Choose all that apply)

Rollback
Utilization
Security
Cycling

A

Security
Cycling

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18
Q

Cycling

A

technique for managing log size by configuring it to delete the oldest record each time a new one is added

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19
Q

3-21: Which of the following SIEM processes performs searches for specific critieria, during specific timeframes, in logs located on different computers?

Data aggregration
Forensic analysis
Correlation
Retention

A

Forensic analysis

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20
Q

3-22: Which of the following terms best describes the SIEM process of consolidating log information from multiple sources?

Data aggregration
Forensic analysis
Correlation
Retention

A

Data aggregration

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21
Q

Jitter

A

connectivity problem on wired networks that is caused by individual packets that are delayed due to network congestion, different routing, or queuing problems

affects VoIP and streaming media mostly

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22
Q

3-23: Which of the following terms best describes a connectivity problem on wired networks that is caused by individual packets that are delayed due to network congestion, different routing, or queuing problems?

Latency
Attenuation
Jitter
Bottleneck

A

Jitter

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23
Q

3-24: Which of the following network interface occurences are considered to be malfunctions on a full-duplex Ethernet network? (Choose all that apply)

Runts
Giants
Collisions
Late Collisions

A

Runts
Giants
Collisions
Late Collisions

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24
Q

Runts

A

packets smaller than the 64-byte minimum allowable length

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25
Q

Giants

A

packets larger than the 1518-byte maximum allowable length

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26
Q

3-39 (apprebreviated as its too damn long in the book): Which of the following is not an environment factor that would need to be monitored in a data center adhering to the Tier III standard (99.9% uptime)?

Flood
Humidity
Radon
Static electricity
Temperature

A

Radon

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27
Q

3-40: Routers using link states and Dijkstra’s algorithm to calculate the lowest cost route to a specific destination can conceivably be running which of the following interior gateway routing protocols? (Choose all that apply)

OSPF
RIP
EIGRP
IS-IS
BGP

A

OSPF

IS-IS

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28
Q

IS-IS

A

Intermediate System - Intermediate System

  • interior routing protocol
  • link state protocol
  • uses Dijkstra’s algorithm
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29
Q

3-41: Which of the following is the term usually applied to a representation of network devices, automatically complied, and containing information such as IP addresses and connection speeds?

Network map
Network diagram
Cable diagram
Management information base

A

Network map

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30
Q

Network Map

A

a representation of network devices, automatically complied, and containing information such as IP addresses and connection speeds

diagram the relationships between devices, and provide information about the links that connect them

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31
Q

3-42: Which of the following types of network documentation is often overlaid on an architectural drawing or blueprint?

Network map
Network diagram
Cable diagram
Management information base

A

Cable diagram

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32
Q

Network Diagram

A

document containing pictograms of network devices with lines representing the connections between them

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33
Q

Cable Diagram

A
  • precise depiction of the cable that is installed at a site
  • often drawn on an architect’s floor plan or blueprint
  • enables network admins to locate specific cables and troubleshoot issues
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34
Q

3-43: Which of the following is not one of the typical heights for devices mounted inn IT equipment racks?

1 unit
2 units
3 units
4 units

A

3 units

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35
Q

3-44: The cable plant for your company network was installed several years ago by an outside contractor. Now, some of the paper labels have fallen off your patch panels, and you do not know which wall plate is connected to each port. Assuming that you are working on a properly maintained and documented network installation, which of the following is the easiest way to determine which port is connected to which wall plate?

  • Consult the cable diagram provided by the cabling contractor at the time of installation
  • Call the cable installation contractor and she if he/she can remember which ports go to which wall plates
  • Attach a tone generator to a patch panel port and then test each wall plate with a locator until you find the correct one. Repeat this for each port that needs labeling
  • Use a cable certifier to locate the patch panel associated with each wall plate port
A

Consult the cable diagram provided by the cabling contractor at the time of installation

Nick: key to this answer is in the question: “Assuming that you are working on a properly maintained and documented network installation,” however this is NEVER the case….

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36
Q

ISO-19770 standards

A

family of IT asset management (ITAM) standards that defines for procedures and technology for the management of software and related assets in a corporate infrastructure

  • ISO 19970-1: compliance with corporate governance
  • ISO 19970-2: focused on SWID tags, XML files with management and ID information about a specific software product
  • ISO 19970-3: manage software entitlements, to simplify license compliance
  • ISO 19970-4: resource utilization measurement
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37
Q

3-46: Which of the following are places where network wiring connections are found? (Choose all that apply)

MDF
MTBF
IDF
RDP

A

MDF

IDF

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38
Q

MDF

A

Main Distribution Frame

the room in a building that houses the demarcation point, telephone cross-connects, and LAN cross-connects

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39
Q

IDF

A

Intermediate Distribution Frame

a room where all the horizontal cabling from different areas of a building, such as workstations, converges. It serves as a central point for connecting and managing these cables

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40
Q

4-47: A rack diagram is typically ruled vertically using which of the following statements?

Inches
Centimeters
Units
Grids

A

Units

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41
Q

Unit

A

Vertical measurement for rack diagrams. Written as: 1U, 2U, 4U

1U = 1.75 inches or 44.5mm

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42
Q

3-49: Which of the following statements are true about the differences between a diagram of a patch panelt installation organized physically and one that is organized logically? (Choose all that apply)

  • a phyiscal diagram is organized according to the floors and rooms where the cable drops are located
  • a phyiscal diagram is precisely scanned to represent the actual patch panel hardware
  • A logical diagram is organized according to the divisions within the company, such as departments and workgroups
  • A logical diagram uses an organization that represents company divisions but does not physically resemble the actual patch panels
A
  • a phyiscal diagram is organized according to the floors and rooms where the cable drops are located
  • A logical diagram is organized according to the divisions within the company, such as departments and workgroups
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43
Q

3-52: At what point in the installation process should patch panel ports and wall plates be label?

When the patch panels and wall plates are installed
When a length of cable is cut from the spool
When the cables are attached to connectors
When the cable runs are tested, immediately after their installation

A

When the cables are attached to connectors

Nick: confusing question as this answer sounds similar to the last answer, and what is installation defined as in this case? Stupid CompTIA…

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44
Q

3-54: Your department is experiencing frequent delays as users wait for images to render using their outdated graphics software package. As a result, you are planning to submit a change request for a new software product at the monthly meeting of the company’s change management team. Which of the following types of information are likely to be included in your request? (Choose all that apply)

  • The possibility of rolling back to the previous software, if necessary
  • The procedure for installing and configuring the new software
  • An estimate of the productivity increase realizable with the new software
  • A list of software and hardware upgrades or modifications needed to run the new software
A
  • The possibility of rolling back to the previous software, if necessary
  • The procedure for installing and configuring the new software
  • An estimate of the productivity increase realizable with the new software
  • A list of software and hardware upgrades or modifications needed to run the new software
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45
Q

3-56: The change request for new graphics software that you submitted to your company’s change management team has been approved. Now it is time ot implement the change. Which of the following administrative tasks wil most likely be the change management team’s responsibility during the implementation process? (Choose all that apply)

Authorizing downtime
Notifying users
Designating a maintanence window
Documenting all modifications made

A

Authorizing downtime

Designating a maintanence window

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46
Q

ISO-19770-5

A

overview of functions provided by the standards and their benefits to an IT infrastructure, aka ITAM - IT Asset Management

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47
Q

Wiring Schematic

A

indicates where cables are located in walls and ceilings, including complete route of every internal cable run from wall plate to patch panel

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48
Q

Physical Network Diagram

A

identifies all of the physical (hardware) devices and how they are connected together

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49
Q

Logical Network Diagram

A
  • contains IP addresses
  • firewall configurations
  • ACLs
  • and other logical elements of network configuration
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50
Q

3-63: What is the width of a standard equipment rack in a datacenter?

12 in
16 in
19 in
24 in

A

19 in

racks are approx 6ft tall

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51
Q

Horizontal Cabling

A

Horizontal cabling refers to the segment of cabling that runs more or less horizontally from work areas to the telecommunications room within a structured cabling network

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52
Q

Rack Diagram

A

a depcition of one of more racks, ruled out in standnardized 1.752 in rack units (racks are ~6ft tall), and showing the exact location of each piece of equipment mounted in the rack

53
Q

3-65: The precise location of devices in a datacenter are typically documented in which of the following documents?

Rack Diagram
Network map
Wiring schematic
Logical Diagram
Business Continuity Plan
Audit and assessment report

A

Rack Diagram

54
Q

3-66: Which of the following statements about network maps are true?

Network maps are typically drawn to scale
Network maps typically contain more information than network diagrams
Network maps must be read/write accessible to all personnel working on the network
Network maps diagram only the locations of cable runs and endpoints

A

Network maps typically contain more information than network diagrams

55
Q

MSDS

A

Material Safety Data Sheet

document created by manufacturers of chemical, electrical, and mechanical products specifying the potential dangers and risk associated with them, particularly in regard to exposure or fire

56
Q

3-68: After being hired for a job as an IT admin, you have been assigned two user accounts, one which is intended for general use, and the other for admin tasks. You are also required to sign an agreement that outlines the restrictions for your account use. Specifically you are not permitted to use the admin account for anything other than admin tasks, including browsing the internet and accessing data for which you are not authorized. Which of the following is the best name for this type of agreement?

Remote Access Policies
Service Level Agreement
Acceptable Use Policy
Privileged User Agreement

A

Privileged User Agreement

57
Q

3-69: You are working for a company with numerous branch offices scattered around the country, and you are required to travel to these offices frequently. Each branch office has some means of accessing the network at the company HQ. Some use frame relay, some use VPNs, and a few even use dial-up access. During one trip, you mention to a branch manager that you intend to connect to the HQ network that night from your hotel room. The manager warns you that this is against company policy, but you are not so sure. Where in the company documentation should you look to confirm this?

Remote Access Policies
Service Level Agreement
Acceptable Use Policy
Privileged User Agreement

A

Remote Access Policies

58
Q

Frame Relay

A
  • Frame relay uses temporary virtual circuits to send packets over the network through frame relay switches instead of sending them directly over the network’s physical interfaces
  • a packet-switching telecommunications service for data transmission for intermittent traffic between LANs and across WANs; can be used for remote access
  • Operates at the data link layer (layer 2) of the OSI model.
  • Efficient, cost-effective, and low latency.
  • Does not perform error correction, leaving it to endpoints.
  • Uses virtual circuits to connect LANs.
  • Not ideal for voice or video transmissions requiring steady data flow.
  • Been replaced by newer tech, like MPLS
59
Q

MPLS

A

Multiprotocol Label Switching

  • Protocol-agnostic packet-forwarding technology.
  • Uses labels for faster data transmission.
  • Enables traffic engineering and QoS.
  • Commonly used for VPNs and network scalability.
60
Q

3-75: Which of the following are settings typically included in an account lockout policy? (Choose all that apply)

Account lockout duration
Time allowed between attempts
Account lockout threshold
Reset account lockout threshold timer

A
  • Account lockout duration
  • Account lockout threshold
  • Reset account lockout threshold timer
61
Q

Which of the following are NOT terms used in association with DLP and data in various stages?

Data in use
Data in process
Data at rest
Data at transit
Data online
Data in motion
Data on disk

A

Data online

Data on disk

Data in process

62
Q

3-83: Which of the following is most likely to be the last step in a change management procedure?

Documentation
Notification
Approval
Scheduling

A

Documentation

63
Q

Which of the following ARE terms used in association with DLP and data in various stages?

Data in use
Data in process
Data at rest
Data at transit
Data online
Data in motion
Data on disk

A

Data in use

Data at rest

Data at transit

Data in motion

64
Q

Standard Change Management policy steps

A

RASPND

  1. Request
  2. Approval
  3. Scheduling
  4. Perform
  5. Notify
  6. Document
65
Q

3-84: Which of the following US organizations are capable of imposing international export restrictions on software products? (Choose all that apply)

The company that created the software
Department of State
Department of Commerce
Department of the Treasury

A
  • Department of State
  • Department of Commerce
  • Department of the Treasury
66
Q

3-85: Which of the following is the primary result of an organization’s security incident response policies?

To know how to respond to a particular incident
To prevent an incident from occuring again
To identify the cause of an incident
To document the procedures leading up to an incident

A

To prevent an incident from occuring again

67
Q

Primary Function of Incident Response Policy

A

To ensure the same incident does not happen again

68
Q

3-88: You are starting a new job, Congratz! and the company’s HR department has asked you to sing an AUP regarding computer and network use. The document includes a privacy clause. WHich of the following are specifications you can expect to find in this clause? (Choose all that apply)

  • Any emails you send or receive can be monitored by the company at any time
  • All files and data that you store on company computers must be accessible to the company for scanning and monitoring
  • All work that you perform for the company becomes the sole property of the company including copyrights and patents
  • ALl hardware, software and any propretiary data stored on the company’s computers remainds the property of the company
A
  • Any emails you send or receive can be monitored by the company at any time
  • All files and data that you store on company computers must be accessible to the company for scanning and monitoring

The privacy clause commonly explains that the company has the right to access and monitor anything stored on its computers

69
Q

3-89: Which of the following tasks is not considered to be part of an IT department’s incident response plan?

Stopping an ongoing incident
Containing the damage caused by an incident
Repairing the damage caused by an incident
Rebuilding the infrastructure destroyed by an incident

A

Rebuilding the infrastructure destroyed by an incident

Incident Response Policy typically deals with stopping, containing and remediating an incident. When something is partially or completely destroyed, this is covered by a Disaster Recovery Plan

70
Q

3-90: Which of the following are occurences that are typically addressed by an IT department’s incident response policies? (Choose all that apply)

DoS Attack
Hard disk failure
Electricial fire
Server outage

A
  • DoS Attack
  • Hard disk failure
  • Server outage
71
Q

In-Band

A
  • refers to controlling network devices through the primary network connection used for regular data traffic.
  • Both software installed on client and the remote system to enable direct control over resources.
72
Q

Out-of-Band

A
  • Refers to managing network devices from a separate, dedicated channel that is not used for normal network traffic
  • Used to enhance security and ensure that management access is available even if the primary network is down
73
Q

Datacenter Fail Closed policy

A

Specifies that any open doors should lock themselves in the event of an emergency

To support this, datacenters will have a self-contained fire spression system, and devices to support it, e.g.: fire detectors, oxygen-displacing gas system, etc…

74
Q

3-93: You are the first responder to an incident of computer crime at your company. The datacenter’s security has been pentrated, a server accessed, and sensitive company data stolen. The company’s incident response plan lists the specific tasks that you are responsible for. Which of the following are most likely to be among those tasks? (Choose all that apply)

Turn off the server
Secure the area
Document the scene
Collect evidence
Cooporate with the authorities

A
  • Secure the area
  • Document the scene
  • Collect evidence
  • Cooporate with the authorities
75
Q

3-97: Which of the following types of password policies are designed to prevent brute-force attacks? (Choose all that apply)

Password length policies
Account lockout policies
Password history policies
Complex password policies

A
  • Password length policies
  • Account lockout policies
  • Complex password policies
76
Q

3-98: Which of the following is not likely to be a procedural element of an IT asset disposal policy?

Data deletion
Recycling
Data preservation
Inventory

A

Data preservation

77
Q

3-102: The tech support clause in an SLA will typically include which of the following elements? (Choose all that apply)

  • Whether the provider will provide on-site, telephone or online support
  • The time service for responses to support calls, which specifies how quickly the provider must respond to requests for support
  • The percentage of time that the service is guaranteed to be available
  • The amount of support that will be provided and the costs for additional support
A
  • Whether the provider will provide on-site, telephone or online support
  • The time service for responses to support calls, which specifies how quickly the provider must respond to requests for support
  • The amount of support that will be provided and the costs for additional support
78
Q

3-104: A server with dual power suuplies must be running in which of the following modes for the system to be fault tolerant?

Combined mode
Redundant mode
Individual mode
Hot backup mode

A

Redundant mode

79
Q

Combined Mode

A

Mode for a server with a dual power supply

both PSUs are needed to provide the server’s power needs. If one fails, the server will go down

80
Q

Redundant Mode

A

Mode for a server with a dual power supply

both PSUs are capable of providing 100% of power needed by server

81
Q

Modes for a server with a dual power supply

A

Redundant mode

Combined mode

82
Q

3-105: Redundant power circuits can enable a server to continuing running in spite of which of following events?

A citywide power outage
A server power supoply failure
An uncorrected building circuit failure
A failure of the server’s UPS

A

An uncorrected building circuit failure

83
Q

RAID levels to know for Network+

A

RAID 0 - striped
RAID 1 - mirror
RAID 5 - stripped with parity
RAID 10 (aka RAID 1+0) - striped and mirrored

84
Q

3-106: Which of the following media types is Windows Server Backup unable to use to store backed-up data?

Local hard disks
Local optical disks
Magnetic tape drives
Remote shared folders

A

Magnetic tape drives

85
Q

3-112: Which of the following mechanism for load balancing web servers is able to read the incoming HTTP and HTTPS requests and perform advanced functions based on the information they contain?

Content switches
Multilayer switches
Failover clustering
DNS Round Robin

A

Content switches

86
Q

Content switches

A

Application Layer (layer 7) device that is capable of reading incoming HTTP and HTTPS messages

87
Q

3-113: Which of the following statements about the differences between online and standby UPSes are correct? (Choose all that apply)

  • A standby UPS runs devices using battery power all the time
  • An online UPS provides no gap in the power supply to the devices during a main power failure
  • An online UPS switches devices to battery power only during a main power failure
  • A standby UPS provides only enough power for an orderly shutdown of the devices
A
  • An online UPS provides no gap in the power supply to the devices during a main power failure
  • A standby UPS provides only enough power for an orderly shutdown of the devices
88
Q

3-114: Which of the following are valid reasons why online UPSs are more expensive than standby UPSs?

  • Online UPS enable devices to run longer when a main power failure occurs
  • Online UPS enable devices to run continuously when a main power failure occurs
  • Online UPS are managed devices that can generate alerts
  • Online UPS provide greater protection against power spikes and sags
A

Online UPS enable devices to run continuously when a main power failure occurs

89
Q

3-115: Which of the following are equivalent terms for the process of combining bandwidth of two or more network adapters to increase overall speed of the connection and provide fault tolerance? (Choose all that apply)

Bonding
Link aggregration
Clustering
Port aggregration
NIC teaming

A
  • Bonding
  • Link aggregration
  • Port aggregration
  • NIC teaming
90
Q

3-116: A network load balancing cluster is made up of multiple computers that function as a single entity. Which of the following terms is used to describe an individual computer in a load balancing cluster?

Node
Host
Server
Box

A

Host

91
Q

3-119: Which of the following networking concepts frequently use virtual IP addresses to provide high availability? (Choose all that apply)

Clustering
Load Balancing
NAT
NIC teaming

A

Clustering
Load Balancing

92
Q

3-121: Which of the following disaster recovery mechanisms is the least expensive to implement?

A cold site
A warm site
A hot site
A cloud site

A

A cloud site

93
Q

MTBF

A

Mean Time Between Failures

a factor typically applied to a hardware component regarding how much time will pass between major failures of that component

94
Q

MTTF

A

Mean Time to Fail

refers to devices that will eventually fail, and once they do, will be discarded rather than repaired

95
Q

MTTR

A

Mean Time to Repair

the estimated amount of time it takes to replace or fix a failed system

96
Q

MDT

A

Mean Down Time

the average time a system is non-operational, encompassing all downtime related to repair, maintenance, and delays, impacting system availability and productivity

97
Q

3-124: If you have a server with dual power supplies, both of which are connected to a single UPS, with a building power circuit connected to a backup generator, which of the following failures can the server survive and keep running indefinitely? (Choose all that apply)

Failure of one server power supply
Failure of the UPS
Failure of the building power circuit
Failure of the building backup generator

A

Failure of one server power supply

Failure of the building backup generator

98
Q

3-125: Which of the following is the primary function of an UPS during a two-hour building power failure?

  • To keep servers running until building power is restored
  • To keep servers running until they can be powered down safely
  • To keep servers from being damaged by power spikes
  • To keep servers runnning in the event of a computer PSU failure
A

To keep servers running until they can be powered down safely

UPSes can usually only run for a few minutes

99
Q

3-126: If you have a server with dual power supplies, one of which is plugged into a single UPS, and the other into a wall socket with a surge protector, and the building’s power circuit is connected to a backup generator, which of the following failures can the server survive and keep running indefinitely? (Choose all that apply)

  • Failure of one server power supply
  • Failure of the UPS
  • Failure of the building power circuit
  • Failure of the building backup generator
A
  • Failure of the UPS
  • Failure of the building power circuit
  • Failure of the building backup generator
100
Q

3-127: If you have a server with dual power supplies, each of which is connected to a separate UPS, with each UPS connected to a separate building power circuit connected to a backup generator, which of the following failures can the server survive and keep running indefinitely? (Choose all that apply)

  • Failure of one server power supply
  • Failure of one UPS
  • Failure of the building power circuit
  • Failure of the building backup generator
A
  • Failure of one server power supply
  • Failure of one UPS
  • Failure of the building power circuit
  • Failure of the building backup generator
101
Q

3-128: Which of the following is the criterion most commonly used to filter files for backup jobs?

Filename
File extension
File attributes
File size

A

File attributes

102
Q

Port Aggregration

A
  • Port aggregation, also known as bonding or link aggregation
  • Allows the use of multiple NICs for a single machine to effectively increase the overall bandwidth of the connection by adding another lane of equal speed
  • It doesn’t necessarily increase the speed of the network connection itself
  • It can provide fault tolerance as well
103
Q

3-130: Which of the following statements about port aggregration is not true?

  • All of the aggregrated ports use the same MAC address
  • Port aggregration can be a fault tolerance mechanism
  • Aggregating ports increases network throughput
  • Port aggregration provides load balancing
A

Port aggregration provides load balancing

104
Q

3-131: Which of the following can be provided by clustering servers?

Fault tolerance
Load Balancing
Failover
All of the Above

A

All of the Above

105
Q

3-132: When you configure NIC teaming with two network adapters in an active/passive configuration,which of the following services is provided?

Load balancing
Fault Tolerance
Server Clustering
Traffic Shaping

A

Fault Tolerance

106
Q

3-136: Which of the following RAID levels provides fault tolerance with the smallest amount of usable disk space? (Choose all that apply)

RAID 0
RAID 1
RAID 5
RAID 10

A

RAID 1

RAID 10

both use mirroring which removes 50% of the usable disk space

107
Q

Disk Duplexing

A

Each disk is connected to a separate disk controller so that the data remains available despite a disk failure or a disk controller failure

108
Q

Incremental backup

A
  • backs up all files that have been changed since the last backup
  • turns off the archive bits after the backup is complete
  • Takes up less space than incremental; needs more backup instances for a restore
109
Q

Differential backup

A

backs up files that have been changed since the last full backup without changing the state of the archive bit

Takes up more space than incremental; needs less backup instances for a restore

110
Q

Supplemental backup

A
  • automatically backs up critical data and stores an encrypted copy at a designated location
  • provides an extra layer of protection beyond regular backup
  • does not usually affect the archive bit
111
Q

Archive bit

A
  • an attribute of a file that indicates whether the file has been backed up since it was last changed
  • it is turned on each time a file is opened, changed, or saved
112
Q

3-142: Which of the following types of backup jobs are supported by the Windows Server Backup program? (Choose all that apply)

Incremental
Differential
Full
Supplemental

A

Incremental

Full

113
Q

3-144: Which of the following storage techniques prevents version skew from occuring during a system backup?

Incrementals
Differentials
Iterations
Snapshots

A

Snapshots

114
Q

Version skew

A

can occur when a data set changes while a system backup is running

115
Q

Autochanger

A

Robotic device containing one or more removable media drives, such as magnetic tape or optical disk drives. It inserts and removes media cartridges automatically so that a backup can span multiple cartridges, increasing capacity

116
Q

3-148: If you back up your network by performing a full backup every Wednesday at 6PM and differential backups in the evening on the other six days of the week, how many jobs would be needed to completely restore a computer with a hard drive that failed on Tuesday at noon?

1
2
6
7

A

2

117
Q

3-149: Why does performning incremental backups to a hard drive, rather than a tape drive, make it possible to restore a server with a single job, rather than multiple jobs?

  • Because hard drives hold more data than tape drives
  • Because hard drives can transfer data faster than tape drives
  • Because hard drives are random access devices and tape drives are not
  • Because hard drives use a different block size than tape drives
A

Because hard drives are random access devices and tape drives are not

118
Q

3-151: Which of the following is the primary difference between the PDUs in data centers and standard power strips used in offices and homes?

More outlets
Larger power input
Larger power output
All of the above

A

Larger power input

119
Q

3-152: Which of the following statements about backing up a firewall’s state and backing up its configuration are true? (Choose all that apply)

  • A backup of a firewall’s state contains more data than a backup of its configuration
  • A backup of a firewall’s configuration cintains more data than a backup of its state
  • A backup of a firewall’s state contains the exact same data as a backup of its configuration
  • A backup of a firewall’s state includes its configuration
  • A backup of a firewall’s configuration includes its state
A
  • A backup of a firewall’s state contains more data than a backup of its configuration
  • A backup of a firewall’s state includes its configuration
120
Q

3-153: Which of the following is the most commonly recommended fire suppression system for a datacenter?

Carbon Dioxide
Water
Foam
HFC-125

A

HFC-125

121
Q

HFC-125

A

Hydroflurocarbon 125

heat absorbing gas that is frequently used for fire suppresion

Used in data centers because its less toxic than Carbon Dioxide and does not damage equipment like water and foam

122
Q

3-154: Concurrent multipath routing (CMR) is a technique that provides which of the following benefits? (Choose all that apply)

Increased bandwidth
Fault tolerance
Data encapsulation
Load Balancing

A
  • Increased bandwidth
  • Fault tolerance
  • Load Balancing
123
Q

CMR

A

Concurrent multipath routing

technique that provides the following benefits:

  • Increased bandwidth
  • Fault tolerance
  • Load Balancing
124
Q

3-158: Installing redundant firewalls in a parallel configuration, as shown in the accompanying graphic, provides which of the following benefits? (Choose all that apply)

Load Balancing
Fault Tolerance
Added Security
Enhanced Performance

A

Load Balancing

Fault Tolerance

Enhanced Performance

125
Q

3-157: Ralph is designing a new network with a redundant switching arrangement. This redundancy enables every node on the network to communicate with any other node even if one of the switches should fail. Which of the following is a potential drawback of this arrangement?

Runt frames
Late collisions
Broadcast storms
Corruptewd switch lookup tables

A

Broadcast storms

126
Q

3-155: A First Hop Redundancy Protocol (FHRP) is designed to dynamically alter which one of the following IP configuration settings on a network host?

IP address
Subnet Mask
Default gateway
DNS server address

A

Default gateway

127
Q

3-156: Which of the following is not a FHRP?

CARP
VRRP
HSRP
RARP

A

RARP

this is Reserve Address Resolution Protocol, used for associating MAC addresses to IP addresses

128
Q

Examples of FHRP?

A

First Hop Redundancy Protocol

  • CARP: Common Address Redundancy Protocol
  • VRRP: Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol
  • HSRP: Hot Standby Router Protocol

Network+ (10 decks)

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