Chapter 1 Flashcards
(127 cards)
1
Q
Which cell stains pink, has two round lumps (bilobed), and is looks as if it is full of granules
A
Eosinophil; Antiparasite (Eosin is the pink stain and it makes up 1-3% white blood cells)
2
Q
Which cell has background that stains colorless with long chain of lobes in center
A
Neutrophil; Antibacterial/Fungal (spray peroxide, explode themselves, make up 50-70% of wbcs)
3
Q
Large cells with one long purple nucleus; divides into dendritic cells or macrophages
A
Monocytes
4
Q
Blue or purple cytoplasm (bilobed); parasite killer
A
Basophil; less than 1%
5
Q
Very little cytoplasm, not metabolically active, round with mostly pink in center (round nucleus)
A
Lymphocyte (20-40% wbcs)
6
Q
Where do monocytes originate from and what stem cell do all leukocytes originate from?
A
Blood; Hematopoietic Stem Cell
7
Q
Where do B lymphocytes originate in birds?
A
Bursa of Fabricius
8
Q
Clusters of several clones from monoclonal antibodies that recognize individual proteins on the surface of white blood cells
A
Cluster of differentiation (CD molecules)
9
Q
What protein is used to present lipids to NK T cells
A
CD1
10
Q
What protein is found on all helper T Cells
A
CD4
11
Q
What protein is found on all killer T cells
A
CD8
12
Q
List the colors of the fluorescent antibody proteins for flow cytometry
A
green - CD4
red - CD8
no color - other cells
13
Q
What cells are unstained in flow cytometry
A
B cells and CD8- CD4- cells
14
Q
Which type of cells are NK, Innate Lymphoid Cells (ILCs), CD4 TCR, CD8 TCR, NK T, and gamma-delta T cells
A
Lymphocytes
15
Q
Which lymphocytes are part of the innate system
A
NK and ILCs, B1 cells (IgM only)
16
Q
Which lymphocytes are part of the adaptive immune system
A
B2 Cells (Class Switch), and T Cells – classic
17
Q
Which lymphocytes are in between innate and adaptive
A
NK T and gamma-delta T
18
Q
Where are T cells “educated” to not recognize self
A
Thymus
19
Q
Where are B cells educated in humans and birds
A
Bone marrow; bursa of fabricus
20
Q
What are the following considered: lymph nodes, spleen, GALT, MALT, SALT
A
Peripheral lymphoid organs
21
Q
Starting from the thoracic duct, list how travels to heart
A
thoracic duct –> left subclavian vein –> heart
22
Q
Starting from right lymphatic vessel, list how travels to heart
A
right lymphatic vessel –> right subclavian vein –> heart
23
Q
Where does the afferent lymphatic vessel drain
A
lymph node
24
Q
Where does the lymph node drain
A
efferent lymphatic vessel
25
In the spleen what type of cells are found in the primary follicle
B cells
26
In the spleen, what type of cells are found in the marginal zone and what do they secrete
B cells; IgM
27
In the spleen, the periarterial lymphatic sheath (PALS) has what type of cells
T cells
28
What three structures make up the white pulp in the spleen
Primary follicle, PALS, and marginal zone
29
What do M cells do in the gut
Sample bacteria in lumen of gut
30
What is the rule for where most activated cells act
If activated in skin, return to skin, etc.
31
Which cells are considered granulocytes
Eosinophils, Basophils, and Neutrophils
32
Where are mast cells only found
tissue only/embryo
33
What are natural killer T cells good at attacking
High lipid content things (mycobacteria)
34
What does a macrophage secrete
Chemokines and cytokines
35
What two cells are the first to respond to macrophages
Neutrophils and monocytes
36
What do cytokines cause
Blood vessels to open
37
What do chemokines cause
monocytes and neutrophils to "follow the smell"
38
Where do the efferent lymphatic vessels eventually drain
subclavian vein
39
Where do subclavian veins drain
heart
40
Which cells recognize MHC Ib
gamma-delta T, NK and NKT
41
What are major histocompatibility complexes called in humans (for tissue typing)
HLA (human leukocyte antigens)
42
What kind of surface are goblet cells and cilia found on
Mucosal
43
Which enzyme chews through the outer layers of bacteria
lysozyme
44
Which sugar is found on the surface of terminal residues in yeasts
mannose
45
Why is attacking membrane of mycobacteria so difficult?
They have waxy outer layer -- like crayons
46
how are zymogens (alpha-defensins, beta-defensins, cathelicidins, and lectidins) activated
proteases cut them
47
Which type of leukocytes mainly release defensins
neutrophils
48
When defensins are cut, what is released
An amphipathic antimicrobial peptide
49
What two things bring the defensin into the lipid bilayer
electrostatic attraction and transmembrane electric field (stick together when enough build up and form a pore)
50
Where are defensins kept before released
granules
51
Which complement pathway is described? Sugars on pathogen surface, MAPSs (proteases) and MBL/ficolins bind, C4 and C2 are cut
Lectin Pathway
52
Which complement pathway is described? C1q/C1r/C1s interacts with pathogen surface/antibodies bound to surface, C4 and C2 are cut
Classical pathway
53
Which complement pathway is described? C3 undergoes spontaneous hydrolysis; factor D, B
Alternative pathway
54
What step do all complement pathways have in common
C3 --> C3a + C3b
55
What in the complement cascade acts as chemokines to promote chemotaxis
C3a and C5a
56
What do phagocytes bind to in the complement cascade
C3b receptors bind to C3b
57
What do C5b,C6,C7,C8,and C9 form in the complement cascade
The membrane attack complex
58
What does ILC1 target
viruses (along with NKs)
59
What does ILC2 target
anti-bacteria/antiparasite
60
What does ILC3 target
anti-bacteria/parasite
61
Which two receptors must be found in appropriate amounts to avoid being killed by NK
MHC I and MicA/MicB (MHC1b)
62
A lytic virus is within an endothelial cell, what happens
pieces are presented on MHC 1, killed by both cytotoxic and NK because there is more MicA/MicB than MHC 1
63
The herpes virus pulls down its MHC 1 presenters, what happens
Killed by NK because MicA/MicB are more
64
A metabolically active precancerous cell is stressed out
Killed by NK
65
Which cells are considered farmers of the epithelium
Gamma delta T cells (they recognize self and pathogen lipids, kill infected or cancerous cells
66
Which regions determine where a gamma-delta T cell will end up
The variable region
67
What recognizes pathogen associated molecular patterns (PAMPs)
Toll-like receptors (look like hooks)
68
What is the process of recognizing PAMPs
Toll-like receptors (TLRs) bind RNA, kinase signal to produce IRF and NFkB, turn on interferon genes/antiviral protein genes
69
STING, RIG-1, and TLRs can recognize what
viral RNA
70
What are interferons
proinflammatory cytokines
71
What are interleukin (IL), tumor necrosis factor (TNF) and IFN
interferons
72
What is a type 1 response considered
antiviral/targets intracellular bacteria
73
What cytokines are produced in a type 1 response
IL-12 and IFNs (activates NK, CD4 cell differentiation)
74
What makes up the proinflammatory triad
IL-1B (opens blood vessels, activates lymphocytes, local tissue destruction), TNF, IL-6 --> all lead to fever
75
What is CXCL8
chemokine --> used for chemotaxis to recruit neutrophils, basophils, and T cells to site of infection
76
What type of interferons are only made by immune cells
Type 2
77
What is a type III response
anti-bacterial/anti-yeast/parasite
78
What does IL-17 cause
activates endothelial cells, increased CXCL8
79
Describe how rolling Leukocyte L-Selectin works
1. Leukocyte sugar binds to selectin on endothelial cell
2. Receptor for CXC binds to CXCL8
3. Integrin on leukocyte binds to ICAM1
4. Crawls/squeezes through junction (PECAM)
80
What are the three major kinds of cell adhesion molecules
selectins, integrins, and CAMs
81
What do selectins bind
sugars (initiate the interaction between leukocytes and endothelium)
82
What do integrins bind
CAMs
83
What are the steps of phagocytosis
1. binding of the pathogen through phagocytic receptors
2. Engulfment
3. Digestion
4. Activation of PAMP receptors/Presentation of antigens on MHC II, degraulation, cytokine/chemokine production
84
Which of the following is the most destructive? Neutrophils, macrophages, or dendritic cells
Neutrophils (DCs are the weakest, less acidic, and have chunks of particles)
85
Where do monoclonal antibodies come from?
A single B cell clone; mouse cells fuse to immortal cells to form hybridoma
86
What types of bonds hold immunoglobulin domains together
disulfide bridges (between cysteine molecules)
87
Which two antibodies have multiple forms and what are they
IgM -- pentameric
IgA -- dimeric
88
How many transmembrane portions do MHC I and MHC II have
1;2
89
Provide the structure of a TCR
One alpha chain, one beta chain, each has a variable and constant region (both are attached to the membrane)
90
What are the exceptions to cells that have MHC II
interstitial macrophages/microglia
91
Do red blood cells have MHC I or MHC II
Neither
92
Describe the structure of MHC I
Three alpha, one beta2 microglobulin (only one transmembrane region)
93
Describe the structure of MHC II
Two alpha, two beta, two transmembrane regions
94
How many anchor residue regions are found in MHC I
2; usually hydrophobic
95
How many anchor residue regions are found in MHC II
4; usually hydrophobic
96
How many domains does CD4 have and what does it dock onto
4; MHC II
97
What is CD8 and what does it dock onto
an alpha and a beta subunit; MHC I
98
What type of cell does class switching, somatic hypermutation, and RNA splicing
B cells
99
What is the leader sequence usually in VDJ arrangement
hydrophobic
100
In B cell light chain, what regions are present
L (leader), V (variable), J (joining), C (constant)
101
In B cell heavy chain, what regions are present
L (Leader), V (variable), D (diversity), J (joining), and C (consant)
102
Are the constant regions longer in heavy chains or light chains
heavy chains
103
Which are the two options for the light chain locus (greek) B cells
lamda or kappa
104
Which antibody heavy chains have four constant regions
IgM and IgE (rest have three constant chain domains)
105
Which region has the most options for light chain and heavy chain gene segments
Variable
106
What does TdT do
randomly adds nucleotides in after the DNA is cut (wants mutation)
107
What is an RSS and how many base pair spacers are there
Recombination signal sequence (23 base pair spacer has adjacent 12 base pair spacer)
108
RSS bind Rag-1 Domains and generates what
DNA hairpin at coding ends, helping join the V, D, and J regions of the antibody
109
Which nucleotides are added by TdT
n-nucleotides
110
If there are variable regions _____ and there is a mistake, there can be potential recombination
upstream
111
Which option for light chain locus and heavy chain locus T cells (greek)
alpha, beta
112
Which cells have limited diversity for recombination
gamma delta T cells
113
What do gamma delta TCR control
location of thymocytes (why there is limited diversity)
114
TdT must add a what # bp
total of 3 (or multiples of 3 so reading frame does not shift)
115
When a b cell undergoes random single point mutations in the variable regions
somatic hypermutation
116
when large chunks of genes are mutated in variable regions of b cells
gene conversion
117
when there is a constant region switch in b cells
class switching
118
IgM and IgD are coexpressed on cells how?
RNA splicing of transcripts
119
How are transmembrane IgM and secreted IgM coexpressed
RNA splicing of transcripts
120
Endogenous is shown on what and shown to what
MHC I, shown to CD8 killer T cells
121
Exogenous is shown on what to what
MHC II, shown to CD4 helper
122
Which MHC needs chaperones for beta2 microglobulin to bind
MHC 1
123
Which complex binds to TAP, which delivers peptides to the endoplasmic reticulum
MHC 1
124
Which pathway involves CLIP bound to which MHC shown to who
Exogenous; MHC II, show to helper T
125
In order to have tissue compatibility, which parts of which molecules must be matching
All aloha of MHC I, beta of MHC II
126
What is the main concept behind a superantigen
There is nonspecific activation (binds to helper T cell)
127
What can superantigens be
Transmembrane (viral) or secreted toxins (bacterial)
