Final (Exam 3) Flashcards
(117 cards)
1
Q
What type of tissue includes the GI tract, salivary glands, lacrimal glands (tear ducts), mammary glands, and the genito-urinary tract?
A
mucosal tissues
2
Q
What lines the mucosa throughout the body?
A
lymphatic tissue and epithelial tissue
3
Q
What is the largest immunological organ in the body?
A
The intestine
4
Q
What percentage of all lymphocytes are located at mucosal sites?
A
70-80 (75)
5
Q
What are the two important sites within the mucosal immune system?
A
inductive and effector sites
6
Q
Which of the two mucosal immune sites is more organized?
A
the inductive sites
7
Q
What type of mucosal site is associated with the lamina propria, various mucosae, stroma of exocrine glands, and surface epithelia
A
effector site
8
Q
What is the highly vascular layer of connective tissue under the base layer epithelium known as
A
Lamina propria
9
Q
What connects effector sites to inductive sites?
A
mesenteric lymph nodes
10
Q
Which tissue are Peyer’s patches, the appendix, and isolated lymphoid follicles associated with
A
GALT (Gut-Associated Lymphoid Tissue)
11
Q
What tissue is not regularly found in non-immunocompromised adults and usually requires induction by exogenous stimuli
A
BALT (Bronchus-Associated Lymphoid Tissue)
12
Q
What is Waldeyer’s Pharyngeal Ring associated with?
A
NALT (Nasopharynx-Associated Lymphoid Tissue)
13
Q
How are pathogens entering the body if NALT is responding?
A
Ingesting or inhaling
14
Q
What four tonsillar structures make up the pharynx
A
Adenoids, lingual and palatine tonsils, and adjacent submucosal lymphatics (pharynx)
15
Q
What is
1. a key site for tolerance induction to food proteins
2. a firewall to prevent live commensal intestinal bacteria from penetrating systemic immune system
3. provides source of memory B & T Cells
4. has precursor sources for intestinal IgA-producing plasma cells
A
mesenteric lymph nodes
16
Q
What is the constitutive mucosal tissue adjacent to major airways and is it normally found in humans?
A
BALT, no
17
Q
What are small clusters of lymphoid cells located at the bottom of intestinal crypts, which develop into ILF by recruiting B cells
A
Cryptopatches
18
Q
what are inductive sites for mucosal b and t cells in GALT
A
isolated lymphoid follicles
19
Q
What are lymphatic tissues throughout the ileum region of the small intestine known as
1. between GALT and luminal microenvironment
2. home to many B cells with germinal centers
A
Peyer’s patches
20
Q
Most gene defects for primary immunodeficiencies are caused by mutations in genes on what chromosome? who is affected more?
A
X chromosome; men
21
Q
What are HIV, cancer, steroids, and malnutrition responsible for causing?
A
secondary immunodeficiencies
22
Q
- Bruton’s gammaglobulinemia (XLA – X-linked agammaglobulinemia)
- common variable immunodeficiency (CVID – hypogammaglobulinemia)
- X-linked hyper IgM syndrome
- IgA deficiency
These are all what type of deficiency?
A
B cell deficiencies
23
Q
- A child is healthy for the first 1-6 months of life
- Frequent strep and enterovirus infections
- Require stem cell transplantation or IV Ig therapy for their severe antibody deficiency
- B cell arrested in the pre-B cell stage
A
XLA
24
Q
- decreased IgG, IgM, and IgA
- diagnosed 10-20 yrs
- Iv IG replacement therapy treatment
- autosomal recessive pattern
- involved in survival and maturation of B cells
A
CVID
25
- high levels of IgM
- problem with isotype switching/plasma cell development
- noticeable after baby is 6 months to 1 yr
- frequent pneumonia, sinus infections, and ear infections
X-linked hyper IgM syndrome
26
- low or no levels of IgA
- most common primary immunodeficiency
- most often asymptomatic but susceptible if there is also an IgG2 deficiency
- increased incidence of allergy and autoimmune diseases
IgA deficiency
27
DiGeorge syndrome, Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome, and BLS are what type of immunodeficiencies
T Cell Deficiencies (SCID)
28
- autosomal dominant
- defect in chromosome 22 (CATCH 22)
- cardiac abnormalities, abnormal facies, thymic abnormalities, cleft palate, blue fingers
- cognitive impairments
- profound T cell deficiencies
DiGeorge Syndrome
29
- reduced T cell numbers
- defective NK cell cytotoxicity
- failure of antibody responses
- reduced ability to form blood clots
- mutations in was gene (WASP protein) involved in actin rearrangement
- only IgM antibodies produced
- rash on face
Wiskott-Aldrich Syndrome
30
- Failure to express MHC class
- type I if MHC class I or type 2 if MHC class II
- type one involved with open ulcers on skin, face, arms, and legs
- defection in maturation in thymus, poor activation in periphery
BLS
31
- x linked recessive
- mutations in IL2RG gene (for normal immune system function)
- lack immune cells, recurrent and persistent infections
- common decrease in recruitment/cytokine release
X-linked SCID
32
- accumulation of toxic purine metabolites in cell synthesizing DNA
- block in T cell maturation
- either gene replacement therapy or stem cell transplant
Adenosine deaminase (ADA) purine nucleotide phosphorylase (PNP) deficiencies
33
- mutation in gene responsible for skin, hair, nails, and immune system
- problem with formation of thymus
- causes T cell immunodeficiency
- congenital alopecia
Nude (FOXN1 gene mutation)
34
- virtually no immune system
- impaired AIRE
- problems activating RAG genes
Omenn's syndrome
35
What form of protection do live attenuated or killed bacteria vaccines provide
- Antibody response
- Cell-mediated immune response
36
What form of protection do live attenuated viruses provide?
- Antibody response
- Cell-mediated immune response
37
What form of protection do subunit (protein) vaccines provide?
- Antibody response
38
What form of protection do conjugate vaccines provide?
- T helper cell dependent response
- Antibody response to polysaccharide
39
What form of protection do synthetic vaccines provide?
- Antibody response
- Cytotoxic killer T
40
What form of protection do viral vectored vaccines provide?
- Antibody response
- CTL
41
What form of protection do DNA vaccines provide?
- Humoral response
- Cell-mediated response
42
What phase involves testing in small groups of people (20-80) for the first time and can take months
Phase 1
43
What phase involves larger groups (100-300) that studies effectiveness as well as safety and can take months to years
Phase 2
44
What phase involves larger groups (1000-3000) that confirms effectiveness, monitors side effects, compares to standard treatments, and can take years to decades
Phase 3
45
What phase involves making a vaccine available to the public, involves tracking safety, and is ongoing
Phase 4
46
What phase occurs during a primary immune response where effector cells decline after first exposure and there is an appearance of memory cells
contraction phase
47
What types of vaccines induce strong antibody responses
conjugate vaccines
48
What type of cells provide B cell help through CD40L, IL10, and IL21
Th follicular cells
49
What reaches the marginal zone of the spleen/nodes and binds to B cells without T cell help
polysaccharide antigens
50
Alum (aluminum hydroxide) is effective against what type of response?
Th2, ineffective for Th1 cell mediated immunity
51
What is a liposome based adjuvant that works off of Lipid A, causing increased activation of APGS
AS01
52
What type of cells are targeted by the MF59 adjuvant, inducing Th1 and Th2 immune response
Monocytes, macrophages, and granulocytes
53
What do nanoparticle delivery systems specifically elicit
Th1 immune response
54
What cytokine is associated with viruses
IFN
55
What receptor do mRNA vaccines trigger, what cells to they have a high capacity to elicit a response from, and what cytokines are released
TLR7
Cytolytic CD8+ T Cells
IFN, pro-inflammatory cytokines
56
What is the stringent double barrier making up the blood brain barrier known as
the neurovascular unit
57
LPS and IFNgamma will trigger microglia to differentiate into what and release what
M1 microglia; IFN and TNFalpha (pro-inflammatory)
58
IL-4 and IL-13 will trigger microglia to differentiate into what and release what
M2 microglia; IL-10 (anti-inflammatory)
59
The perivascular space of parenchymal post-capillary vessels, meninges, and choroid plexus are all what
compartments where antigen-experienced T cells in CNS are reactivated
60
After viral infection in CNS, what self-renewing populations are generated
tissue-resident memory CD8+ T cells
61
How are DC-like cells recruited to the CNS under inflammatory conditions
CCR2-debendent manner (by CCL2 expressed by microglia and astrocytes)
62
What cells make up the majority of MHC class II cells in CNS that favors Th1 response of Th17
B cells
63
Where do meningal developing B cells come from
Stem cells in brain
64
Which cells in the CNS are attacked by cytotoxic CD8+ lymphocytes in a classic manner
parenchymal cells
65
In CNS linings, how are virus-infected cells eliminated
Independently of MHC class I expression
66
What is neuroinflammation caused by
reactive astrocytes (through NFFbeta)
67
What is the development of a new blood supply to cancerous cells
angiogenesis
68
when cancer spreads to other parts of the body what is it known as
metastasis
69
what develops from mutations during the oncogenic process that lead to the generation of new protein or peptide sequences
neoantigens
70
Presentation, bound to MHC class I, and projection toward the TCR results in what
T cell recognition of neoantigens
71
What tumor phase occurs when the immune system recognizes and destroys potential tumor cells
Elimination phase
72
What tumor phase occurs when the cells undergo mutations that aid in their survival due to selection pressure imposed by the immune system (the rate of eliminated cells is equal to the number of escaping cells)
equilibrium phase
73
what tumor phase occurs when the tumor cells elude the immune system and grow to become clinically detectable
escape phase
74
What are three immune escape mechanisms in cancer
- loss of antigenicity
- loss of immunogenicity
- creating an immunosuppressive microenvironment (Treg)
75
What type of tumor therapy takes T cells from the tumor, expands them in vitro using IL-2, and activates CD8+ T cells in pro-inflammatory microenvironment
Tumor-infiltrating lymphocytes (TIL) therapy
76
What type of tumor therapy involves modification of a patient's own T cells to express CAR specific for tumor antigen --> re-infusion
- not great for solid tumors bc of surface area
Chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) T cell therapy
77
Blocking which what receptors and ligands helps CD8+ T cells respond appropriately to tumors
PD1 and PDL1
78
Other than PD1 and PDL1 what do other monoclonal antibodies bind to?
CTLA4 B7
79
What type of tolerance occurs in the thymus and bone marrow
central
80
When antigen-specific lymphocytes do not react, ignoring the presence of antigen
Immunological ignorance (clonal ignorance)
81
Which cells can regulate intrinsic and extrinsic immune responses, limiting the size and duration of responses along with activated T cells and antigen presenting cells
Regulatory T Cells
82
What cells are programmed in the thymus to express the transcription factor FoxP3 in response to self antigens
Natural Treg cells
83
Which cells act on self-reactive cells to prevent their function or differentiation into effector cells
Natural Treg Cells
84
In response to antigens recognized in the presence of TGFbeta and absence of pro-inflammatory cytokines, express FoxP3 and develop in the peripheral immune tissue
Induced Treg Cells
85
What type of signal results from recognition of self-antigen in central tolerance
negative signal cascade
86
What transcription factor turns on tissue restricted antigens in the thymus
AIRE
87
where does the main process by which T lymphocytes acquire the ability to distinguish between self from non self occur
fetal thymus
88
TGFbeta and IL10 allow self reactive cells to be suppressed in the periphery by what type of cells
Treg
89
How can B cells bearing antigen receptor for self protein escape clonal deletion
receptor editing
90
Central tolerance eliminates how many self-reactive b cells (percentage)
90%
91
What is the first B cell tolerance checkpoint in the periphery and how many of the remaining B cells does it eliminate
Transitional B Cell tolerance; 2/3
92
What is the interplay between BCR-mediated signals and B cell survival factor
B cell activating factor (BAFF) signal
93
What type of autoimmune diseases are AHA, Grave's Disease, and Myasthenia Gravis?
Antibody-mediated
94
When antibodies react with self RBCs, which activated the complement cascade, opsonizes the RBCs via antibody and C3b, and results in severe anemia
Autoimmune Hemolytic Anemia (AHA)
95
When thyroid stimulating immunoglobulins bind to and activate thyrotropin receptors and they grow, causing an overactive thyroid (hyperthyroidism)
Grave's Disease
96
When the acetocholine or neuromuscular junctions are blocked by antibody, so nerve impulses are not received (reduced muscle impulses/movement issues/muscle weakness)
Myasthenia Gravis
97
Systemic Lupus Erythematosus is what type of immunodeficiency
Immune Complex-Mediated
98
When autoantibodies are formed against DNA, histones, nucleolar proteins, and other components of the cell nucleus (antibodies against double-stranded DNA)
- primarily women
- HLA DR2/3 genes predisposed
Lupus (SLE)
99
What type of immunodeficiencies are Hashimoto's Thyroiditis, Multiple Sclerosis, Rheumatoid Arthritis, and Type 1 Insulin Dependent Diabetes Mellitus (IDDM)
T-Cell Mediated
100
- Most common cause of hypothyroidism
- organ specific
- targets hormone produced by the thyroid
Hashimoto's Thyroiditis
101
- Destructive immune response on CNS myelin antigens, MBP, PLP, and MOG
- alpha4beta1 integrin binds to VCAM on activated endothelium
- inflammation causes vascular permeability and infiltrated with Th17/Th1 cells
Multiple sclerosis
102
- chronically inflamed synovium is densely crowded with lymphocytes
- results in the destruction of cartilage and bone
- B cells producing anti-IgG antibodies are called rheumatoid factor (RF)
- Auto-reactive Th17 cells are activated during early phase of the disease
Rheumatoid Arthritis
103
- Insulin-producing B cells are selectively destroyed by cytotoxic T cells
- Abnormally high blood sugar levels
- Very little or no insulin produced
Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus (IDDM)
104
What are microfold cells directly exposed to microorganisms and particles in the gut lumen
- lack glycocalyx
- transport antigen to peyers patches
- associated with intestinal GALT, airway BALT, and upper airway NALT
- NOT antigen presenting cells
M cells
105
Which cells provide host defense against microbes in small intestine, functioning like neutrophils to secrete alpha defensins, lysozyme, and PLA2
- located next to stem cells and may play a role in epithelial cell renewal
Paneth cells
106
Which cells are in the respiratory and intestinal tracts, secrete mucins to create a barrier of mucus using
- low expression at basal levels
- stimulated secretion in response to external stimuli
goblet cells
107
What are CCR7, CCL21, and CCL19 involved in
homing of T cell subpopulations and APC DC to lymph node
108
Do activated or inactivated lymphocytes lose CCR7 and CD62L
activated
109
CR9+ T cells are associated with what
inflammatory bowel disease lesions
110
CD11b+ DCs are protective in what kind of infections and produce what cytokine in peyers patches to timulate protective effector T cells
effector DC; intestinal; IL-23
111
CD103+ DCs stimulate what, induces what, and amplifies development of what
Treg and RA; expression of gut-homing receptors (alpha4beta7 and CCR9); TGFB mediated Foxp3+ Treg cells
112
What type of receptor recognizes flagellin, leading to increased antiapoptotic genes
TLR5
113
What receptor maintains the integrity of the intestinal epithelial barrier
TLR2
114
Non-like receptors lead to the expression of what kind of factors
pro-inflammatory
115
what type of macrophages are found in the gut, mature in the lamina propria, and are constantly replenished
resident
116
what macrophages follow epithelial damage or invasion
inflammatory
117
Where are natural killer cells mainly found in and what do they express that is concentrated in cryptopatches and ILFs
lamina propria; retinoic acid orphan receptor
