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BS453: Physiology > Chapter 1: Cellular Physiology > Flashcards

Chapter 1: Cellular Physiology Flashcards

1
Q

boundary between ECF and ICF

A

cell membrane

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2
Q

components of ECF

A

plasma, interstitial fluid (ISF), other body fluids (e.g. synovial fluid)

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3
Q

boundary between plasms and ISF

A

capillary wall

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4
Q

Gibss-Donnan ratio for anions

A

[in plasma]/[in ISF]

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5
Q

Gibbs-Donnan ratio for cations

A

[in ISF]/[in plasma]

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6
Q

major ions in ECF

A

Na+, Cl-

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7
Q

major ions in ICF

A

K+, phosphates, negative charge from proteins

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8
Q

type of membrane proteins that is embedded into the membrane via hydrophobic interactions

A

integral membrane proteins

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9
Q

type of membrane protein that is loosely attached to the membrane via ionic interactions

A

peripheral proteins

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10
Q

secondary active transport uses ()

A

Na+ gradient

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11
Q

simple diffusion occurs via the membrane ()

A

lipids

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12
Q

facilitated diffusion occurs via the membrane ()

A

proteins

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13
Q

specialized aquaporins are found in the kidney to prevent ()

A

too much water loss via urine

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14
Q

lipophilic membrane proteins that make the charges on opposite sides of the membrane equal

A

ionophore

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15
Q

ionophore that is used to kill fungi by transporting K+ and disrupting RMP

A

myostatin

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16
Q

ionophore that is used to kill bacteria by transporting K+ and disrupting RMP

A

valinomycin

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17
Q

membrane protein that transports D-glucose into skeletal muscle and adipose cells

A

GLUT

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18
Q

Ca2+ can come from ECF via (1) or interior of sarcoplasmic reticulum (SR)/ER via ()

A
  1. plasma membrane Ca2+ ATPase (PMCA)
    2.SR and endoplasmic reticulum Ca2+ ATPase (SERCA)
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19
Q

examples of cardiac glycosides

A

digoxin, digitoxin; collectively digitalis

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20
Q

channels gated by a change in membrane potential

A

voltage-gated channels

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21
Q

channels gated by the binding of extracellular or intracellular ligands

A

ligand-gated channels

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22
Q

channels gated by mechanical stimuli (e.g. stretch)

A

mechanically-gated channels

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23
Q

the K+ - ATP channel is inhibited by ()

A

increase in ATP

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24
Q

upstroke of AP is sensitive to (1) or (2)

A
  1. tetrodotoxin (TTX)
  2. lidocaine
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25
Q

repolarization of AP is sensitive to ()

A

tetraethylammonium (TEA)

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26
Q

another AP cannot be initiated no matter how strong the stimulus

A

absolute refractory period

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27
Q

what causes the absolute refractory period

A

inactivation of Na+ channels

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28
Q

an AP can be initiated only if greater stimuli are applied

A

relative refractory period

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29
Q

to initiate an AP during the relative refractory period, the stimulus must overcome the ()

A

repolarization due to efflux of K+

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30
Q

ACh is synthesized from (1) and (2) via the (3)

A
  1. acetyl coenzyme A (acetyl-CoA)
  2. choline
  3. choline acetyltransferase
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31
Q

ACh is broken down into (1) and (2) via the (3)

A
  1. choline
  2. acetate
  3. acetylcholinesterase
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32
Q

agent that blocks ACh release from presynaptic terminals

A

botulinus toxin

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33
Q

agent that competes with ACh for receptors on motor end plate

A

Curare

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34
Q

example of AChE inhibitor

A

neostigmine

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35
Q

agent the blocks reuptake of choline into presynaptic terminals

A

hemicholinium

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36
Q

narrow tubules that are continuous with the sarcolemma

A

transverse tubules (T tubules)

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37
Q

plasma membrane of muscle cells

A

sarcolemma

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38
Q

cytoplasm of muscle cells

A

sarcoplasm

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39
Q

endoplasmic reticulum of other cells; main function is to store Ca2+

A

sarcoplasmic reticulum (SR)

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40
Q

a bundle of thick and thin filaments

A

myofibril

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41
Q

a triad in a skeletal muscle fiber consists of:

A

a T tubule surrounded by a pair of terminal cisternae (enlarged areas of the sarcoplasm)

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42
Q

the dark A band in sarcomeres consists of

A
  1. M line
  2. zone of overlap
  3. bare zone
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43
Q

the light I band of sarcomeres consists of:

A
  1. Z disk
  2. Titin
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44
Q

myosin heads interact with thin filaments

A

cross-bridges

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45
Q

describe the structure of the thick filament in skeletal muscle

A

1 pair of heavy chains and 2 pairs of light chains

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46
Q

myosin head functions as (1) which is an enzyme that can break down (2) to (3)

A
  1. ATPase
  2. ATP
  3. ADP and inorganic phosphate (Pi)
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47
Q

the 2 types of actin in thin filaments are

A
  1. G actin
  2. F actin
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48
Q

the components of thin filaments are

A
  1. actin
  2. tropomyosin
  3. troponin
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49
Q

cover the active sites on G-actin; prevents actin-myosin interaction

A

tropomyosin

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50
Q

binds tropomyosin, G-actin, and Ca2+

A

troponin

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51
Q

voltage sensor and L-type Ca2+ channel on the terminal cisternae

A

dihydropyridine receptor (DHPR)

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52
Q

Ca2+ release channel on SR; opened via physical interaction with DHPRs

A

ryanodine receptors (RyR)

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53
Q

Ca2+ pump on the SR

A

SR and endoplasmic reticulum Ca2+ ATPase (SERCA)

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54
Q

Ca2+ binding protein in the SR

A

calsequestrin

55
Q

a single stimulus-contraction-relaxation sequence in a muscle fiber

A

twitch

56
Q

the () must contract moderately rapidly to provide sufficient velocity of limb movement for running and jumping

A

gastrocnemius muscle

57
Q

the () is concerned principally with slow contraction for continual, long-term support of the body against gravity

A

soleus muscle

58
Q

refers to the staircase effect in the maximum tension of muscle during repeated stimulation

A

treppe

59
Q

the stepwise rise in max. muscle tension during repeated stimulation is thought to result from a () in the sarcoplasm

A

gradual increase in Ca2+

60
Q

the gradual increase in Ca2+ in the sarcoplasm during repeated stimulation results from () between contractions

A

the SERCA not having enough time to pump sarcoplasmic Ca2+ back into SR

61
Q

characteristics of sarcomere at maximum tension

A
  1. zone of overlap is large
  2. thin filaments don’t extend across the sarcomere’s center (M line)
62
Q
  • measuring tension of muscle at a fixed length of muscle
  • muscle as a whole is not changed from a present length
  • tension produced never exceeds the load
A

isometric contraction

63
Q

preset length of muscle before contraction

A

preload

64
Q

tension developed by simply stretching a muscle to different lengths

A

passive tension

65
Q

tension developed when a muscle is stimulated to contract at different preloads

A

total tension

66
Q

total tension is the sum of active tension developed by () and the ()

A
  1. cross-bridge cycling in the sarcomeres
  2. passive tension caused by stretching the muscle
67
Q

represents the active force developed during cross-bridge cycling

A

active tension

68
Q

active tension is determined by subtracting (1) from (2)

A
  1. passive tension
  2. total tension
69
Q

tension rises to meet the resistance and remains constant as skeletal muscle length changes

A

isotonic contraction

70
Q

type of isotonic contraction where muscle tension exceeds the load and muscle shortens

A

concentric contraction

71
Q

type of isotonic contraction where the peak tension developed by muscle is less than the load; muscle elongates due to the contraction of another muscle or the pull of gravity

A

eccentric contraction

72
Q

in smooth muscle, SR forms ()

A

loose network

73
Q

due to absence of myofibrils, sarcomeres, and T tubules, smooth muscle is described as ()

A

non-striated

74
Q

organization of thick and thin filaments in smooth muscle

A
  1. thick filaments are scattered throughout sarcoplasm
  2. thin filaments are attached to dense bodies
75
Q

analog to troponin-C in smooth muscle thin filaments

A

calmodulin bound to Ca2+

76
Q

what can stop increases of intracellular Ca2+ concentration in smooth muscle

A
  1. repolarization/hyperpolarization that causes inhibition of voltage-gated Ca2+ channels
  2. inhibition of IP3 production
77
Q

myosin arrangement in skeletal muscle

A

bipolar arrangement

78
Q

myosin arrangement in smooth muscle

A

side polar arrangement

79
Q

the 3 different ways that Ca2+ is removed from the cytoplasm of smooth muscle cells

A
  1. SERCA
  2. PMCA
  3. Na+ - Ca2+ exchanger
80
Q

upper motor neurons of the somatic NS are located in the () of the brain

A

primary motor cortex

81
Q

the somatic NS is in charge of (1) motor movement and thus is under (2)

A
  1. voluntary
  2. conscious control
82
Q

collection of neuron cell bodies in the peripheral NS; serve as synaptic relay stations between neurons

A

ganglia

83
Q

the autonomic NS controls (1) movement; it also controls and modulates the functions of primarily (2)

A
  1. involuntary
  2. visceral organs
84
Q

2 main types of neurons in the ANS

A
  1. preganglionic neurons
  2. postganglionic neurons
85
Q

all autonomic preganglionic neurons release (1), and are thus classified as (2)

A
  1. acetylcholine (ACh)
  2. cholinergic
86
Q

the cell bodies (somas) of preganglionic neurons are found in the () nervous system

A

central

87
Q

somas of postganglionic neurons are found in ()

A

autonomic ganglia

88
Q

sites of neurotransmitter synthesis, storage, and release in postgangionic neuron innervations at effector organs

A

varicosities

89
Q

varicosities are analogous to () in neuromuscular junctions

A

presynaptic nerve terminals

90
Q

the sympathetic (aka 1) division of the ANS produces the body’s (2) response

A
  1. thoracolumbar
  2. fight or flight
91
Q

sympathetic preganglionic neurons originate from (1) and (2) segments of the spinal cord

A
  1. thoracic
  2. superior lumbar
92
Q

major locations of sympathetic ganglia

A
  1. sympathetic chain (paravertebral ganglia)
  2. collateral ganglia (prevertebral ganglia)
  3. adrenal medulla
93
Q

the superior cervical ganglion is found in the ()

A

sympathetic chain

94
Q

3 types of collateral ganglia

A
  1. celiac ganglia
  2. superior mesenteric ganglia
  3. inferior mesenteric ganglia
95
Q

the adrenal medulla is a specialized sympathetic ganglion whose preganglionic neurons originate from the () segment of the SC

A

thoracic

96
Q

the adrenal medulla postganglionic neurons release (1) into the (2) of the body

A
  1. catecholamines
  2. general circulation
97
Q

postganglionic axons of the adrenal medulla travel along the () to reach the adrenal gland

A

greater splanchnic nerve

98
Q

what are the catecholamines (and their proportions) released by adrenal medulla postganglionic neurons

A
  1. epinephrine (80%)
  2. norepinephrine (20%)
99
Q

release of norepinephrine by adrenal medulla postganglionic neurons is due to presence of (), which is absent in other sympathetic postganglionic neurons

A

PNMT (phenylethanolamine-N-methyltransferase)

100
Q

the superior cervical ganglia project to the ff. effector organs

A
  1. eyes
  2. salivary gland
101
Q

the celiac ganglia project to the ff. organs

A
  1. stomach
  2. small intestine
102
Q

the superior mesenteric ganglia project to the ff. organs

A
  1. small intestine
  2. (upper) large intestine
103
Q

the inferior mesenteric ganglia project to the ff. organs

A
  1. lower large intestine
  2. anus
  3. bladder
  4. genitalia
104
Q

sympathetic postganglionic fibers originating from the sympathetic chain travel either via:

A
  1. spinal nerves
  2. sympathetic nerves
105
Q

spinal nerves project to:

A
  1. body wall
  2. upper and lower limbs
  3. head and neck
106
Q

sympathetic nerves innvervate:

A
  1. thoracic organs
  2. eyes
  3. salivary glands
107
Q

preganglionic neurons release ACh, which bind to () receptors on postganglionic neurons

A

nicotinic

108
Q

most sympathetic postganglionic neurons release epinephrine, which binds to () on effector organs

A

adrenoreceptors

109
Q

sympathetic postganglionic neurons are cholinergic in () ONLY

A

thermoregulatory sweat glands

110
Q

thermoregulatory sweat glands have () receptors, to which ACh from postganglionic neurons binds

A

muscarinic

111
Q

classical and nonclassical neurotransmitters are released from () located in varicosities

A

small dense-core vesicles

112
Q

the parasympathetic (aka 1) division of the ANS is responsible for the (2) state of the body

A
  1. craniosacral
  2. rest or digest
113
Q

parasympathetic preganglionic fibers originate from the (1) or (2)

A
  1. brain stem (3 regions: midbrain, Pons, medulla)
  2. sacral segments of SC
114
Q

parasympathetic preganglionic fibers travel thru the ff. cranial nerves:

A

CN 3, 7, 9, 10 (vagus nerve)

115
Q

parasympathetic ganglia are located ()

A

near, on, or in effector organs

116
Q

list of parasympathetic ganglia

A
  1. ciliary ganglia
  2. pterygopalatine ganglia
  3. submandibular ganglia
  4. otic ganglia
117
Q

in the parasympathetic NS, both preganglionic and postganglionic neurons are ()

A

cholinergic

118
Q

receptor for parasympathetic preganglionic neurons

A

nicotinic

119
Q

receptor for parasympathetic postganglionic neurons

A

muscarinic

120
Q

adrenergic receptors are () receptors

A

G protein-coupled

121
Q

2 main classes of adrenergic receptors

A
  1. alpha
  2. beta
122
Q

adrenergic receptor that is involved in:
1. vasoconstriction
2. closure of sphincters along digestive and urinary tract

A

alpha1

123
Q

adrenergic receptor that is involved in: inhibiting neuronal activity

A

alpha2

124
Q

alpha1 proteins bind to () proteins

A

Gq

125
Q

alpha2 proteins bind to () proteins

A

Gi

126
Q

beta-adrenergic receptors all bind to () proteins

A

Gs

127
Q

adrenergic receptor involved in: increasing heart rate and (cardiac) muscle contractility

A

beta1

128
Q

adrenergic receptor that is involved in: bronchodilation

A

beta2

129
Q

adrenergic receptor that is involved in: facilitating lipolysis (breaking down triglycerides in adipocytes)

A

beta3

130
Q

2 main types of cholinergic receptors

A
  1. nicotinic
  2. muscarinic
131
Q

cholinergic receptor that:
1. acts as ligand-gated ion channels in postsynaptic membrane
2. is found in autonomic postganglionic neurons and somatic neuromuscular junctions

A

nicotinic

132
Q

G protein-coupled receptor found in cholinergic neuroeffector junctions in the parasympathetic NS

A

muscarinic receptors

133
Q

odd-numbered muscarinic receptors (M1, M3, M5) bind to () proteins

A

Gq

134
Q

even-numbered muscarinic receptors (M2, M4) bind to () proteins

A

Gi

BS453: Physiology (6 decks)

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