Chapter 1 UREs Flashcards by Jennifer Mackeyfill

(201) What organization launches satellites into polar orbit?

*A. 30th Space Wing
B. 45th Space Wing
C. 50th Space Wing
D. 90th Space Wing

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(201) In 2009, ICBM forces were broken away from Air Force Space Command with the standup of

A. 20th Air Force
B. 24th Air Force
C. Missile Defense Command
*D. Air Force Global Strike Command (AFGSC)

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(201) Defense Satellite Communications System control is the responsibility of the

A. 2nd Air Force
B. 8th Air Force
C. 45th Air Force
*D. 50th Air Force

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(202) What installation was originally activated as Camp Cooke in 1941 and provided infantry and armor training?

A. Patrick AFB, Florida
B. Tyndall AFB, Florida
C. Edwards AFB, California
*D. Vandenberg AFB, California

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(202) What organization leads the Air Force Evolved Expendable Launch Vehicle (EELV) program on the west coast?

A. 17th Test Squadron
B. 576th Flight Test Squadron
*C. 4th Space Launch Squadron
D. 5th Space Launch Squadron

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(202) What installation is the administrative hub of the 45th Space Wing?

*A. Patrick AFB, Florida
B. Peterson AFB, Colorado
C. Vandenberg AFB, California
D. Cape Canaveral AFS, Florida

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(202) At what Cape Canaveral Air Force Station (AFS) space launch complex (SLC) does preparation and launch of the Atlas V launch vehicle occur?

A. SLC-3
B. SLC-6
C. SLC-37
*D. SLC-41

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(202) What organization maintains the only Department of Defense spacecraft processing facility capable of placing spacecraft into geosynchronous orbit?

A. 2nd Space Launch Squadron (SLS)
B. 4th SLS
C. 30th Launch Support Squadron (LSS)
*D. 45th LSS

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(203) What Atlas V major assembly provides attachment for up to five strap-on solid rocket boosters?

A. Centaur
B. Interstage
C. Second Stage
*D. Common Core Booster (CCB)

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(203) What fuel is in the two propellant tanks of the Atlas V Common Core Booster (CCB)?

A. JP-1 and methane
B. RD-180 and hydrazine
*C. RP-1 and liquid oxygen
D. PGM-17 and liquid hydrogen

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(203) For the Atlas V, what major assembly provides the propulsion, guidance and control capability to place spacecraft into selected orbits?

A. Payload fairing
*B. Centaur upper stage
C. Common Core Booster (CCB)
D. Propulsion system rocket engine

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(203) The Atlas V payload adapter connects the payload to the standard interface place located at the top of the Centaur

A. intertank skirt
*B. forward adapter
C. interstage adapter
D. turbopump assembly

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(203) What structure erects the Atlas V and Centaur and mates the encapsulated spacecraft to the launch vehicle?

A. Launch table
B. Umbilical tower (UT)
*C. Mobile service tower (MST)
D. Fixed launch platform (FLP)

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(203) What Atlas V structure provides support for a lightning mast that provides a 45-degree cone of protection?

*A. Umbilical tower (UT)
B. Launch mate unit (LMU)
C. Mobile assembly shelter (MAS)
D. Launch operations building (LOB)

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(203) What Atlas V structure provides a ramp up for moving the Atlas, Centaur, and spacecraft into position to be erected?

A. Mobile service tower (MST)
*B. Launch support building (LSB)
C. Launch operations building (LOB)
D. Horizontal integration facility (HIF)

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(203) What structure contains three retractable launch heads to hold the Atlas V launch vehicle?

A. Launch mate unit (LMU)
B. Launch control center (LCC)
*C. Fixed launch platform (FLP
D. Launch operations building (LOB)

(204) The Delta IV is primarily designed to satisfy requirements of

A. commercial launches
B. international launches
*C. the United States (US) military
D. the National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA)

(204) A typical Delta IV first stage contains one common booster core. How many common booster cores are used in the Delta IV “Heavy” variant?

A. 2
*B. 3
C. 4
D. 6

(204) What fuel does the Delta IV second stage RL-10B2 rocket engine burn?

A. Hydrazine
B. Liquid oxygen
*C. Liquid hydrogen
D. Rocket Propellant-1

(204) What provides acoustic, radio frequency, and static protection for the spacecraft atop the Delta IV launch vehicle?

*A. Payload fairing
B. Forward adapter
C. Intertank adapters
D. Centaur upper stage

(204) In order to provide an environmental enclosure for the Delta IV launch vehicle, the mobile assembly shelter meets with

A. only the fixed pad erector
B. only the mobile service tower
C. the launch mate unit and the fixed pad erector
*D. the fixed umbilical tower and the mobile service tower

(204) During a launch, how quickly do the swing arms of the Delta IV fixed umbilical tower retract?

*A. Less than 12 seconds
B. 15 to 30 seconds
C. 30 to 45 seconds
D. 45 to 60 seconds

(204) What powers the Elevating Platform Transporter (EPT) in the Delta IV Horizontal Integration Facility (HIF) where precise movements are important?

*A. Electric power
B. Diesel engines
C. Gasoline engines
D. Hydraulic pressure

(205) What is the purpose of navigation satellites?

*A. Provide pinpoint weapon system accuracy
B. Track the trajectory of celestial objects in space
C. Ensure compliance with arms control agreements
D. Provide information on sea conditions to command centers

25. (205) A research satellite is used to

A. detect precipitation rates and could density *B. determine patterns and frequency of solar events C. provide threat assessment to commanders worldwide D. monitor the world situation in real-time to avoid surprises

26. (205) What spacecraft electrical system power source is used only on lengthy missions or at great distances from the sun?

A. Solar B. Battery *C. Nuclear D. Hydrogen

27. (205) What type of spacecraft thermal control is considered an active thermal control?

A. Heat sinks *B. Electrical heater C. Thermal coatings D. Thermal insulation

28. (205) What type of spacecraft propulsion uses electrical energy to heat a gaseous propellant?

*A. Electro-thermal system B. Solid propellant system C. Electromagnetic system D. Liquid propellant system

29. (205) What is considered spacecraft telemetry data?

*A. Astronomical data B. Payload calibrations C. Altitude adjustments D. Communications protocols

30. (206) Where is the Air Force Research Laboratory (AFRL) headquartered?

A. Eglin AFB, Florida B. Kirtland AFB, New Mexico *C. Wright-Patterson AFB, Ohio D. Hanscom AFB, Massachusetts

31. (206) What Air Force Research Laboratory (AFRL) directorate finds new way to strike the enemy through aerospace avenues?

A. Munitions B. Propulsion *C. Air Vehicles D. Directed Energy

32. (206) What Air Force Research Laboratory (AFRL) works on new technologies to find and engage the enemy and eliminate their ability to hide or threaten our forces?

*A. Sensors B. Information C. Space Vehicles D Human Performance

33. (206) The Air Force Research Laboratory (AFRL) Space Vehicles directorate conducts what type of flight experiments?

*A. Satellites B. Aerospace vehicles C. Air-delivered munitions D. Unmanned aerial vehicles

34. (206) The Air Force Operational Test and Evaluation Center (AFOTEC) reports to

A. 20th Air Force B. Air Force Space Command (AFSPC) C. Air Force Material Command (AFMC) *D. Headquarters, United States Air Force (HQ USAF)

35. (206) Air Force Operational Test and Evaluation Center (AFOTEC) tests are conducted by

A. AFOTEC scientists *B. operational personnel C. Air Logistics Center (ALC) personnel D. Air Force Research Lab (AFRL) engineers