Chapter 2 Self Test Flashcards by Jennifer Mackeyfill

(207) 2. What is the main difference between a policy directive and policy memorandum?

A memorandum is published in lieu of a directive when there is insufficient time to process one.

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(207) 1. A supplement cannot contain what type of information?

Guidance that is less restrictive than the publication it is supplementing.

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(207) 3. What purposes does the information in an instruction serve?

Direct action, ensure compliance, and/or give detailed procedures to standardize actions AF-wide.

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(207) 4. Who are operating instructions directive and mandatory for?

All personnel in that unit/or subordinate units

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(207) 5. What rules apply when posting temporary visual aids?

They should only be displayed 180 calendar days or less and this expiration date should be printed at the bottom.

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(207) 6. What type and category of publication is the “AFI 32-7086, Hazardous Materials Management”?

Air Force (AF) Instruction (I); 32- Civil Engineering (CE) category

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(207) If a publication you are looking for contains sensitive information that should not be disclosed to the general public, where could you obtain an electronic copy of it?

Contact the Office of Primary Responsibility (OPR)

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(208) 1. What does an operations and maintenance technical order (O&M TO) cover?

Installation, operation, troubleshooting, repairing, removing, calibrating, servicing, or handling of AF military systems and end items

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(208) 2. What is the main difference between O&M TOs and methods and procedures TOs?

Methods and procedures TOs are not required to be available and used on the job site

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(208) 3. What information does a List of Applicable Publications index provide?

You can find any TO applicable to a specific weapon system and its related items

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(208) 4. What are Time Compliance Technical Orders (TCTOs) used for?

Directing and providing instructions for modifications to a weapon system and to perform one-time inspections.

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(208) 5. How can you identify an immediate action TCTO?

The words “IMMEDIATE ACTION” are printed in Red at the top center of the page and a series of red Xs are printed around the border of the first page

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(208) 6. What action must occur if an urgent TCTO is not complied with before its time limit?

The equipment or item must be removed from service ntil the TCTO is accomplished on it.

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(208) 7. What must occur with a preliminary TO in order for it to become an O&M TO?

It must have a validation-verification

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(208) 8. What sets the standard for how a TO will be numbered?

The category

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(208) 9. What is command and response?

One technician reads a step; the other does the step; and then verbally responds that the step was complied with

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(208) 10. What guidance is followed if the contents of a TO conflict with AFOSH standards?

Go with whichever requirement is stricter

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(208) 11. How do you proceed if you find a TO is incorrect and you cannot perform the task correctly?

Inform your supervisory personnel to obtain a TO waiver

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(209) 1. How does knowing when a TO was last changed help you?

To ensure you have the most updated book

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(209) 2. Where would you check if you want to know when the last change was posted to a certain page in the TO?

The List of Effective Pages

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(209) 3. Which section of the TO is often the most forgotten?

Introduction

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(209) 4. When is the Safety Summary section of the TO reviewed?

Before starting any maintenance task

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(209) 5.How will reading the description of the TO help you as a technician?

It explains how the system operates and helps you obtain a better understanding of why the system may or may not be operating as designed.

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(209) 6. What chapter would a technician use to ensure they had the proper equipment for a procedure in a TO?

Special tools and test equipment

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(209) 7. When can you use schematic diagrams for troubleshooting?

When used with trouble analysis procedures

(209) 8. How can you identify what has changed on a TO page?

A straight, black line on the outside margin next to the paragraph(s) that changed

(209) 9. What is an IPB?

Illustrated parts breakdown- an illustration providing detailed parts breakdown of a piece of equipment or weapon system component.

(209) 10. If you did not know the part number of a piece of required equipment, where would you begin your search in the IPB?

Go to the IPB index TO and refer to the pictorial indexes and find the picture of the item.

(210) 1. You do not submit an AFTO Form 22 to correct what errors?

Typographical or printing errors that do not cause misinterpretation or would normally be corrected during scheduled reviews.

(210) 2. What should QA do if a report is categorized incorrectly or if it is inaccurate?

Downgrade the category or disapproves the recommendation when appropriate

(210) 3. What must a technical content manager issue within 48 hours of receiving an emergency AFTO Form 22?

Issues an interim TCTO or rapid action change within 48 hours (72 hours for work stoppage)

(210) 4. When would typographical errors be corrected with an AFTO Form 22?

Only if they cause a critical misinterpretation or affect the meaning of instructions that impede the mission

(210) 5. What information is required in the narrative section of the AFTO Form 22?

Brief summaries of the deficiency and recommended change

(210) 6. Why would you need a copy of the AFTO Form 22 once all agencies have approved it?

So you can use the IDEA program to your benefit

(211) 1. CEM changes will not be made for what?

To temporarily bypass system components or to change the content of a CEM master change log (MCL)

(211) 2. What is required in the narrative of an AFGSC Form 272?

A brief summary of the deficiency, recommended change, and reason for change

(211) 3. What must first be obtained before a change can be used for interim use?

Missile engineer squadron (MES) must first be contacted and a control number assigned by MES. The MXG/CC and base civil engineers must approve this.

(211) 4. How will a change caused by an emergency AFGSC Form 272 come in?

A civil engineering interim change (CEMIC) or a MCL

(211) 5. Why should you keep the AFGSC 272-1, Improvement Report Reply?

To be submitted into the IDEA program for a cash benefit

(212) 1. What is an acceptance inspection?

An inspection performed by the receiving organization to determine the condition of newly received equipment.

(212) 2. What is a defect?

Any problem or issue with a product where it does not perform as it is required.

(212) 3. Which item must be segregated from other like components until an investigation by the production manager occurs?

Exhibit

(212) 4. Who must generate a deficiency report when a discrepancy is discovered?

Originator

(212) 5. What type of defect is a condition that is likely to result in failure?

Major

(212) 6. What type of deficiency cannot be corrected except through a design or specification change?

Design deficiency

(212) 7. What is a product quality deficiency?

When a component or equipment item does not fulfill its expected purpose or service due to deficiencies in design, specifications, material, manufacturing process or workmanship.

(212) 8. What deficiency report category is used when a defect, if uncorrected, would cause death, severe injury, or severe illness?

Emergency

(212) 9. What deficiency report category is used for deficiencies that might hinder the maintenance process, but not prevent job completion?

Routine

(213) 1. What does IMDS data translate into for commanders and managers?

How many personnel are needed for the job, what high-failure parts are needed to keep on hand, and/or what systems are outdated and need upgrade.

(213) 2. What IMD function allows you to enter new data or change existing data?

Database updates

(213) 3. What types of information retrieval does IMDS provide?

Real-time and background

(213) 4. What IMDS subsystem allows users to document, inquire, and retrieve informations on maintenance actions?

Job data documentation (JDD)

(213) 5. What are the three phases of the IMD Operational Events subsystem?

Phase One (Mission Recording), Phase Two (Mission Accomplishment), Phase Three (Analysis Phase)

(213) 6. What IMDS subsystem is commonly used to schedule shotgun qualification training?

Training Management

(213) 7. Who must review IMDS data entered on a daily basis?

Workcenter supervisors

(214) 1. Why are training components specifically identified in the DoD definition of NWRM?

These items can be removed from the training environment and used in an actual nuclear weapon.

(214) 2. What is the purpose of NWRM items used in targeting nuclear weapons?

Identify specific targets, transfer target data to a guidance computer, or designate the intended flight plan to its target.

(214) 3. Where can you verify the components you have are NWRM items?

On a NWRM Sharepoint website

(214) 4. What actions is Air Force Material Command (AFMC) responsible for?

Life-cycle management of NWRM. AFMC takes part in design, acquisition, demilitarization, and disposal of NWRM items.

(214) 5. How often are unit commanders required to review NWRM training completion statistics?

Quarterly

(214) 6. What information must be contained on a responsibility officer's (RO) complete listing of all NWRM components within an organization?

The location and condition status of all assets that are not currently installed in the weapon system.

(214) 7. Why are two people required during the marking and packaging of NWRM items?

One performs the packing and the other verifies the packing was done correctly.

(214) 8. How are NWRM items segregated in storage?

From other items and even further from each other by condition

(214) 9. When must a complete NWRM inventory be conducted?

Semiannually and anytime a new NWRMAO is appointed.

(214) 10. When is the NWRM Fundamentals Course required for personnel who handle/use NWRM?

Before performing duties and every 12 months thereafter until no longer performing NWRM duties.