Chapter 12 ( Speed, Agility, Quickness) Flashcards by Amanda Pham

Which of the following is otherwise known as reactive training?
A. Isotonic training
B. Plyometric training 
C. Isometric training
D. Weight training

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Which of the following refers to the ability to move the body in one intended direction as fast as possible?
A. Agility
B. Speed
C. Flexibility
D. Quickness

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Which of the following statements is true of speed in speed training?
A. Speed is the product of stride length and stride rate.
B. Speed is the ability to change direction quickly, while maintaining proper posture.
C. Speed is otherwise known as reaction time.
D. Speed is usually independent of any genetic factor.

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Which of the following refers to the velocity of distance covered divided by time?
A. Speed
B. Agility
C. Quickness
D. Resilience

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Which of the following refers to the number of strides taken in a given amount of time or distance?
A. Stride rate
B. Stride length
C. Stride span
D. Stride area

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Which of the following is true of movement speed?
A. The magnitude of movement speed is usually population specific.
B. The risk of injury deceases with increase in movement speed.
C. It is constant and same for any population.
D. It is otherwise known as reaction time.

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Which of the following refers to the distance covered in one stride during running?
A. Stride rate
B. Stride length
C. Stride frequency
D. Stride count

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Which of the following statements is true of the frontside mechanics of sprint technique?
A. It involves the overextension of the hip and the knee.
B. It is associated with a stronger push phase.
C. It usually deals with gluteal contraction.
D. It includes the triple flexion of the ankle, knee, and the hip.

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Which of the following statements is true of the backside mechanics of sprint technique?
A. It involves the triple extension of the hip, ankle, and knee in appropriate synchrony.
B. It is associated with a less braking force.
C. It deals with increased forward diving forces.
D. It includes inflexion of the hip.

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Frontisde mechanics of sprint technique is associated with:
A. higher braking forces.
B. increased forward driving forces.
C. a stronger push phase.
D. a stronger hip-knee extension.

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Backside mechanics of sprint technique is associated with:
A. stronger push phases.
B. higher braking forces.
C. an increased forward driving force.
D. a stronger hip-knee inflexion.

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Which of the following should be ensured while executing frontside mechanic drills?
A. The pelvis should stay neutral.
B. The hip and the knee should be extended.
C. The drill should involve a strong push phase.
D. The drill should focus on gluteal contraction.

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Which of the following refers to the ability to start (or accelerate), stop (or decelerate and stabilize), and change direction quickly, while maintaining proper posture?
A. Speed
B. Quickness
C. Nimbleness
D. Agility

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Which of the following is true of a kinetic chain checkpoint during running movements?
A. In a lumbo-pelvic-hip complex (LPHC), the body should have a slight lean during acceleration.
B. In a knee complex, the knees must be turned in.
C. The neck and head should compensate and move into extension.
D. The head should be beyond the lumbo-pelvic-hip complex (LPHC) to ensure stability.

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Vincent ran for a short duration of 20 minutes. During the course of his run, he experienced abnormal stress that caused his overall performance to deteriorate. Which of the following, if true, would have most likely caused this fall in his overall performance?

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Isla ran for a period of 15 minutes. She experienced no stress or pain during the course of her run. Which of the following would have helped improve the overall performance of her running activity?
A. Her body being upright during acceleration
B. Her foot and ankle being pointed straight in a dorsiflexed position when it hit the ground
C. Ensuring the over flattening of her foot during the course of her run
D. Ensuring that her lumbo-pelvic-hip (LPHC) complex was at maximum during maximal velocity

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Which of the following refers to the ability to react and change body position with maximal rate of force production, in all planes of motion and from all body positions, during functional activities?
A. Speed
B. Agility
C. Quickness
D. Nimbleness

Which of the following indicates quickness in an activity?
A. Swerving to avoid a car accident 
B. Warming up for a marathon
C. Performing weight lifts
D. Doing vertical jumps

A(REACTION TIME)

Which of the following statements is true about quickness in quickness training?
A. It involves the ability to assess kinesthetic stimuli in determining the reaction time of the body in any situation.
B. It refers to the ability to move the body in one intended direction as fast as possible.
C. It excludes assessing visual and auditory stimuli in determining a quick physical response in any situation.
D. It involves using minimal rate of force production to react without changing the body position.

Which of the following is otherwise referred to as reaction time?
A. Quickness
B. Agility
C. Speed
D. Nimbleness

Which of the following is true of Speed, Agility, and Quickness (SAQ) drills for nonathletic populations?
A. An SAQ training can exclude a warm-up protocol from its training program.
B. The biologic demand is of very low intensity with SAQ protocols.
C. Personal trainers are required to perform extensive client evaluations examining exercise experience before beginning an SAQ training program.
D. The health history and injury profile of clients should ideally be excluded from evaluation before the commencement of SAQ programs.

Which of the following statements is true of Speed, Agility, and Quickness (SAQ) training for weight loss?
A. Interval training is ineffective in improving health-related issues.
B. High-intensity, short-duration programs are better than moderate-intensity, long-duration programs for functional capacity and muscular power.
C. High-intensity, short bouts of SAQ drills are a poor choice for interval training.
D. Moderate-intensity, long-duration programs are better than high-intensity, short-duration programs for fat and weight loss.

Loss of bone density is known as \_\_\_\_\_.
A. osteopenia
B. hemophilia
C. achalasia
D. hematoma

Which of the following statements is true of sarcopenia? A. It is more common in young infants than in older adults. B. Resistance training is usually ineffective in improving the condition of the patients suffering from sarcopenia. C. Increased speed of movement and rate of force production similar to Speed, Agility, and Quickness (SAQ) protocols aid in reversing sarcopenia. D. It is a condition describing the loss of bone density in older women.

``` Which of the following refers to the age-related loss of skeletal muscle mass? A. Osteopenia, B. Hemophilia C. Sarcopenia D. Hematoma ```

Which of the following statements is true of osteopenia? A. It is particularly common in women. B. It has little effect on fractures or skeletal disorders. C. It is independent of the aging process in people. D. It is a condition describing the loss of skeletal muscle mass in younger adults.

Which of the following should be part of the program design for a client at stabilization level? A. Speed, Agility, and Quickness (SAQ) drill without any rest period B. 6–8 SAQ drills of high inertia C. 1–2 sets of cone shuffles D. Partner mirror drills for 3–5 sets

Which of the following should be part of the program design for a client at strength level? A. Any Speed, Agility, and Quickness (SAQ) drill without any rest period. B. 6–8 SAQ drills with greater horizontal inertia but limited predictability. C. 1–2 sets of cone shuffles. D. Partner mirror drills for a minimum of 10 sets.

Which of the following should be part of the program design for a client at power level? A. Any Speed, Agility, and Quickness (SAQ) drill without any rest period. B. 6–8 SAQ drills with little inertia but limited predictability. C. Modified box drill for 3–5 sets. D. Partner mirror drills for a minimum of 15 sets.

``` A client at the stabilization level of an Optimum Performance Training (OPT) model should ideally be given drills with: A. limited horizontal inertia. B. moderate unpredictability. C. high unpredictability. D. maximum horizontal inertia. ```

``` A client at the power level of an Optimum Performance Training (OPT) model should ideally be given drills with: A. moderate horizontal inertia. B. moderate unpredictability. C. limited unpredictability. D. maximal horizontal inertia. ```

``` A client at the strength level of an Optimum Performance Training (OPT) model should ideally be given drills with: A. minimal horizontal inertia. B. maximal unpredictability. C. limited unpredictability. D. limited horizontal inertia. ```

``` Partner mirror drills and timed drills for 3 to 5 sets are usually given to clients at the _____ level. A. intermediate B. stabilized C. strength D. power ```

``` SAQ Variables OPT LEVEL: Stabilization SAQ exercises: sets reps rest ```

1-2 sets, 2-3 reps, 0-90 rest ex: limited horizontal inertia and unpredictability. i. e cone shuffle and agility ladder

``` SAQ Variables OPT LEVEL: Strength SAQ exercises: sets reps rest ```

3-4 sets, 3-5 reps, 0-60 rest ex: greater horizontal inertia, limited unpredictability i. e. 5-10-5, T-drill, box drill, stand up to figure 8

``` SAQ Variables OPT LEVEL: Power SAQ exercises: sets reps rest ```

3-5 sets, 3-5 reps, 0-90 rest Ex: maximal horizontal inertia, max unpredictability i.e. modified box drill, partner mirror drill, timed drills

``` 1. The ability to move the body in one intended direction as fast as possible is known as • Power • Agility • Quickness • Speed ```

Speed

2. Which of the following is an accurate description of front side mechanics? • Proper alignment of the lead leg and pelvis during sprinting, which includes ankle dorsiflexion, knee flexion, hip flexion, and neutral pelvis. • Proper alignment of the lead leg and pelvis during sprinting, which includes ankle plantar flexion, knee extension, hip extension, and neutral pelvis. • Proper alignment of the rear leg and pelvis during sprinting, which includes ankle dorsiflexion, knee extension, hip flexion, and neutral pelvis. • Proper alignment of the rear leg and pelvis during sprinting, which includes ankle plantar flexion, knee extension, hip flexion, and neutral pelvis.

• Proper alignment of the lead leg and pelvis during sprinting, which includes ankle dorsiflexion, knee flexion, hip flexion, and neutral pelvis.

Which of the following is an accurate description of backside mechanics? • Proper alignment of the rear leg and pelvis during sprinting, which includes ankle plantar flexion, knee extension, hip extension, and neutral pelvis. • Proper alignment of the lead leg and pelvis during sprinting, which includes ankle dorsiflexion, knee flexion, hip flexion, and neutral pelvis. • Proper alignment of the lead leg and pelvis during sprinting, which includes ankle dorsiflexion, knee extension, hip flexion, and neutral pelvis. • Proper alignment of the rear leg and pelvis during sprinting, which includes ankle plantar flexion, knee extension, hip flexion, and neutral pelvis.

• Proper alignment of the rear leg and pelvis during sprinting, which includes ankle plantar flexion, knee extension, hip extension, and neutral pelvis.