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Chapter 13 Agents of Infectious Disease Flashcards

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1
Q

what is the most common sign of B virus infection in macaques?

A

oral ulcers

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2
Q

how is a diagnosis of flukes made?

A

examination of eggs in feces or necropsy

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3
Q

what are tapeworm segments that can reproduce independently called?

A

proglottids

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4
Q

spiders, scorpions, ticks, and mites are all types of:

A

arachnids

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5
Q

what is pediculosis?

A

infestation with mice

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6
Q

prions consist only of what molecules?

A

protein

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7
Q

fungal infections inside the body are referred to as….

A

systemic

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8
Q

which disease is a common pathogen of zebrafish?

A

pseudoloma neurophilia

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9
Q

a fungus that infects the skin and nails is also called a…

A

dermatophyte

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10
Q

name four types of clinically relevant protozoa.

A

flagellates, ciliates, apicomplexans and amoebas

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11
Q

name the five categories of pathogenic organisms that can cause infectious disease.

A

bacteria, viruses, fungi, parasites, prions

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12
Q

name two genera of medically significant spore-forming bacteria.

A

clostridium and bacillus

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13
Q

what type of bacteria need no oxygen to survive?

A

anaerobic

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14
Q

which RNA viruses are most commonly spread by ticks, mites, and mosquitos?

A

abroviruses

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15
Q

how are animal viruses primarily classified?

A

by the type of nucleic acid (DNA, RNA)

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16
Q

Which characteristic is true of all bacteria?

a. They lack mitochondria.
b. They have a well-defined nucleus.
c. They can only live inside a host’s cells.
d. They do not require oxygen to survive.

A

a. They lack mitochondria.

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17
Q

What is the function of a flagellum in a bacterium?

a. It has a role in reproduction.
b. It helps in locomotion.
c. It contains the organism’s organelles.
d. It secretes the cell wall.

A

b. It helps in locomotion.

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18
Q

A bacterium requiring normal atmospheric oxygen concentration to survive is called:

a. Normal
b. Anaerobic
c. Aerobic
d. Microaerophilic

A

c. Aerobic

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19
Q

What are bacteria that can grow in low oxygen environments called?

a. Normal
b. Anaerobic
c. Aerobic
d. Microaerophilic

A

d. Microaerophilic

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20
Q

B virus belongs to which group of viruses?

a. Herpesviruses
b. Papova viruses
c. Arboviruses
d. Enteroviruses

A

a. Herpesviruses

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21
Q

The term “slow viruses” is often used to describe:

a. DNA viruses.
b. RNA viruses.
c. fungi.
d. prions.

A

d. Prions

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22
Q

What is the term for the study of fungi?

a. Mycology
b. Virology
c. Physiology
d. Parasitology

A

a. Mycology

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23
Q

Which produces a mycelium?

a. Viruses growing in culture
b. A mold colony
c. Individual yeast cells growing on agar
d. The agglutination of slimy bacterial spores

A

b. A mold colony

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24
Q

What type of disease is ringworm an example of?

a. Viral disease
b. Bacterial disease
c. Mycosis
d. Noninfectious condition

A

c. Mycosis

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25
What easily observable signs could suggest a diagnosis of dermatophytosis? a. Red areas around the nose and eyes b. Crusty lesions around a few hairs or a slight scaliness of the skin c. Elevated body temperature d. Pruritic lesions on the skin
. b. Crusty lesions around a few hairs or a slight scaliness of the skin
26
Superficial mycoses may be caused by what organism? a. Candida spp. b. West Nile virus c. Clostridium tetani d. Microsporum spp.
d. Microsporum spp.
27
What is the best way to determine if protozoan cysts are present in an animal? a. Microscopic examination of a blood smear b. Gross examination of the skin around the anus c. Examination of a wet mount stool sample d. Examination of the muscle tissue at necropsy
c. Examination of a wet mount stool sample
28
Giardia spp. are ___________ that live in their host’s gastrointestinal tract. a. flagellates b. ciliates c. apicomplexans d. coccidians
a. flagellates
29
What is the invertebrate vector for the malarial parasite Plasmodium? a. Mites b. Snail c. Mosquitoes d. Flea larva
c. Mosquitoes
30
Flatworms, roundworms, and thorny-headed worms all belong to which group of parasites? a. Ciliates b. Apicomplexans c. Helminths d. Arthropoda
c. Helminths
31
``` What group of parasites is generally flat dorsoventrally, has suckers, and has larval forms that hatch in water? a. Cestodes b. Trematodes c. Nematodes d. Acanthocephalids ```
b. Trematodes
32
What is the scolex in a tapeworm? a. A larval form b. A feeding organ c. A reproductive organ d. A holdfast organ
d. A holdfast organ
33
What are hydatid cysts? a. Fluid-filled cyst containing tapeworm larvae b. Nodules of scar tissue often found in abdominal organs c. Sac-like structure that is excreted in the feces of animals infected by cestodes d. Skin abscesses resulting from ectoparasite infestation around the hair shafts
. a. Fluid-filled cyst containing tapeworm larvae
34
Mosquitoes are vectors for the transmission of which parasites? a. Tapeworms b. Heartworms c. Pinworms d. Strongyles
b. Heartworms
35
What is the most common arachnid parasite found in animal facilities? a. Ticks b. Spiders c. Mites d. Fleas
c. Mites
36
What are nits? a. A larval form of protozoa b. The eggs of lice c. The cocoons of fleas d. A type of pentastomid
b. The eggs of lice
37
What is the term used to describe mite infestation? a. Acariasis b. Pediculosis c. Mitosis d. Arthrosis
a. Acariasis
38
What practice would NOT help prevent disease in animal colonies? a. Limit non-staff visitation. b. Rotate staff regularly. c. Wear appropriate uniforms. d. Wash hands frequently.
b. Rotate staff regularly
39
When an infectious disease spreads in a colony of rodents, what is often the only effective way to eliminate it? a. Use of a cocktail of several antibiotics b. Use of a combination of antiviral drugs and antibiotics c. Depopulation d. Quarantine
c. Depopulation
40
Deworming is a method used to remove which stage of helminth parasites? a. Eggs b. Larval c. Proglottid d. Adult
d. Adult
41
Control of helminth infections includes treating with ______________ and _____________. a. anthelmintics; eliminating the intermediate host b. antibiotics; disinfecting the room c. vaccinations; using antiviral drugs d. antidiarrheals; reducing the number of animals housed in the room
a. anthelmintics; eliminating the intermediate host
42
The process of eliminating some parasites by giving the affected animal an anthelmintic drug is commonly referred by which of the following terms? a. Emetic treatment b. Deworming c. Worming d. Vermin eradication
. b. Deworming
43
Cats are the true definitive host for which of the following? a. Balantidium coli b. Eimeria stiedae c. Psoroptes cuniculi d. Toxoplasma gondii
d. Toxoplasma gondii
44
Cestodes belong in which of the following groups of animals? a. Microsporidians b. Acanthocephalids c. Helminths d. Nematodes
. c. Helminths
45
Which of the following characteristics is NOT used to classify a microorganism? a. Staining characteristics b. Colony morphology c. Motility d. Nitrogen requirements
d. Nitrogen requirements
46
Which of the following statements about Pneumocystis spp. is incorrect? a. Pneumocystis is a significant clinical concern in immunosuppressed animals b. Pneumocystis is a common organism found in many different laboratory species c. Pneumocystis is a cutaneous mycosis causing hair loss and scaly skin d. Because it can colonize inside an animal, it is considered a systemic mycosis
c. Pneumocystis is a cutaneous mycosis causing hair loss and scaly skin
47
Prions are infectious agents consisting only of what type of biomolecule? a. DNA b. RNA c. Carbohydrate d. Protein
d. Protein
48
A trypanosome infection would most likely be found in which species? a. Nonhuman primates b. Ruminants c. Birds d. Fish
a. Nonhuman primates
49
Pinworms belong to which group of helminths? a. Cestodes b. Trematodes c. Nematodes d. Acanthocephalids
. c. Nematodes
50
Where would you expect to find Dirofilaria immitis during the necropsy of a dog? a. In the heart b. In the liver c. In the small intestine d. In the feces
a. In the heart
51
Flea larvae are an intermediate host for which species? a. Dipylidium caninum b. Taenia pisiformis c. Hymenolepsis nana d. Spirocerca lupi
a. Dipylidium caninum
52
Which statement does NOT apply to annelid parasites? a. They are leeches. b. They may cause nose-bleed in monkeys. c. They can be removed by gentle traction with forceps. d. They cause infestations known as pediculosis.
d. They cause infestations known as pediculosis.
53
Which statement is true of a subclinical disease? a. It is diagnosed by laboratory tests. b. It is an acute form of the disease. c. It does not occur in animals in the wild. d. Signs of the disease are apparent upon gross examination of the animal.
a. It is diagnosed by laboratory tests.
54
Which characteristic best describes cocci bacteria? a. They form spores. b. They have a spherical shape. c. They grow better in an acidic environment (below pH 6). d. They have a flagellum.
b. They have a spherical shape.
55
Which animal is most likely to have internal parasites? a. Minipig b. SPF rabbit c. Unconditioned dog d. Purpose-bred cat
. c. Unconditioned dog
56
trematodes
flukes flat and have simple digestive and excretory systems and have oral suckers diagnosis is made microscopically
57
cestodes
flatworms/tapeworms elongated and highly segmented; chains of segments called proglottids Dipylidium caninum
58
nematodes
roundworms nonsegmented and cylindridcal and elongate worms examples: whipworms (trichuris spp.) ascarids (toxocara canis/cati/leonina) pinworms (syphacia spp and aspicularis tetraptera) hookworms (ancylostoma caninum and oesophagostomum spp.) filaria (dirofilaria immitis) thorny-headed worms (acanthocephala) leeches (hirudinea)
59
arthropods
jointed legs and an exoskeleton | arachnids, insects and pentastomids.
60
arachnids
spiders, scorpions, ticks, and mites | life cycle - eggs, larva, nymph and adult
61
insects
lice, fleas, flies, mosquitoes.
62
pentastomids
unique arthropods | internal parasites found mainly in the respiratory tract, skin, and subcutaneous tissues of reptiles.

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