Chapter 15 and 16 (Test 2 Study) Flashcards

1
Q

What is the name for any genes coding proteins?

A

structural genes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the encoding products that interact with other sequences and affect the transcription?

A

regulatory genes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

DNA sequences that are not transcribed but play a role in regulating nucleotide sequences are ____ _____.

A

regulatory elements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Describe constitutive expression.

A

It is continued expression under normal cellular conditions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Within constitutive expression, there are two type of controls. Which one inhibits gene expression and which stimulate gene expression?

A

inhibits: negative control
stimulates: positive control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Most regulation happens at the transcription level, what is a region within DNA called? (has generally 60-90 amino acids)

A

domains

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the structure that fits into the major groove of DNA called?

A

motif

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Name three different types of DNA-binding proteins based on the motif.

A
  • helix-turn-helix
  • zinc fingers
  • Leucine zipper
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are genes controlled by a single promoter called (non-coding)?

A

operon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What structure has products that affect the operon but are not apart of it?

A

regulator gene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

In positive transcription, the regulator protein involved is an _____.

A

activator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What type of process uses glucose when available and represses the metabolite of other sugars?

A

catabolite repression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

In catabolite repression, which factor has a concentration that is inverse to glucose availability?

A

cAMP; cyclic AMP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Describe an inducible operon.

A

Occurs when transcription is off and needs to be on.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Describe a repressible operon.

A

Occurs when transcription is normally on and needs to be turned off.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which type of operon occurs when the control is negative and can be switched on and off?

A

negative inducible operon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which type of operon occurs when transcription is on and needs to be turned off?

A

negative repressible operon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is a small molecule that binds to the repressor and makes it capable of binding to the operator to turn off transcription?

A

corepressor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q
  • Has 5 structural genes
  • Found in E.coli
  • Is a negative repressible operon

What is it?

A

trp operon

20
Q

Which structural genes of the trp operon combine to make tryptophan?

A

trp E, trp C, trp B, and trp A = tryptophan

21
Q

(1) The ___ operon collectively works to _____ tryptophan (an amino acid).

(2) The ___ operon collectively works to _____ lactase (an amino acid).

A

(1) trp; synthesize
(2) lac; break down

22
Q

_____ affects the continuation of transcription, not its initiation. This action terminates the transcription before structural genes.

A

attenuation

23
Q

List 4 characteristics or parts of attenuation.

A
  • attenuator
  • anti terminator
  • stopping of transcription in downstream region
  • uuuuuu
24
Q

What increases the rate of transcription at genes that are distant from the enhancer in bacteria?

A

bacterial enchancers

25
Q

What is complementary to the targeted partial sequence of mRNA?

**This is also a way of blocking mRNAs you do not want to be translated.

A

antisense RNA

26
Q

What are the molecules that influence the formation of secondary structures in mRNA?

**They form a binding site for small molecules, regulatory proteins or molecules close theses off when bonded.

A

riboswitches

27
Q

What are the mRNA molecules with catalytic activity?

**When bound to small regulatory molecules, they can induce the cleavage and degradation of mRNA.

A

ribozymes (enzyme + ribosome)

28
Q

Under low osmolarity, _____ genes are created, but during high osmolarity, both _____ genes and _____ genes can also be created.

A

ompF

ompF; micF

29
Q

Amino acids are joined together by ____ bonds.

A

peptide

30
Q

Label the following as either: primary structure, secondary structure, tertiary structure, quaternary structure.

(1) two or more polypeptide chains associated together
(2) sequence of amino acids
(3) sequences of amino acids folded or pleated (DNA helix)
(4) one bundle of folded amino acid sequences, condensed

A

(1) quaternary
(2) primary
(3) secondary
(4) tertiary

31
Q

What kind of code is when an amino acid may be specified by more than one codon?

A

degenerate code

32
Q

Describe the Wobble Hypothesis.

A

Sometimes the 3rd position on the anticodon is not complementary.

This results in variability and non-Watson-Crick interaction.

33
Q

Codons that specify the same amino acid are called ______ codons.

A

synonymous

34
Q

There are ___ possible codons.

There are ___ stop codons.

There are ___ sense codons.

A

64
3
61

35
Q

True or False: The Wobble hypothesis may exist in the pairing of a codon and anticodon.

A

True

36
Q

A polypeptide chain can be attached to a ribosome moving along the mRNA. On the polypeptide chain, which is the amino end (N) and which is the carboxyl end (C).

A

The amino end (N) is not attached to the ribosome, it is floating about.
The carboxyl end (C) is attached to the ribosome.

37
Q

Where is the amino acid acceptor stem located on the tRNA?

A

At the 3’ end

38
Q

Which position is the start codon first added during elongation?

A

P

39
Q

Whenever a new tRNA anticodon attaches to the codon during elongation, which position is it added to?

A

A

40
Q

When the tRNA is expelled from the ribosome during elongation, which position is it expelled from?

A

E

41
Q

A ________ can be represented in three ways in which the sequence can be read in groups of three. Each different way of reading encodes a different amino acid sequence.

A

reading frame

42
Q

Eukaryote or Prokaryote Translation: Multi-factor, multiple step process, highly regulated and controlled.

A

eukaryotes

43
Q

Eukaryote or Prokaryote Translation: Can begin while part of the mRNA is still being transcribed, polycistronic, no nuclear membrane separating transcription and translation, Shine-Dalgarno sequence directly recruits the small subunit of the ribosome to the start codon.

A

prokaryotes

44
Q

What are the three elongation factors?

A

Tu, Ts, G

45
Q

List a few things that happen once release factors bind to the termination codon.

A
  • the polypeptide releases from the last tRNA
  • the tRNA releases from the ribosome
  • The mRNA releases from the ribosome
46
Q

Different stop codons are
recognized by different release
factors.
Because UAG is the termination
codon in this illustration, the
release factor is _____.

A

RF-1

47
Q

What is an mRNA with several ribosomes attached?

A

polyribosome