Chapter 18 Micro Flashcards

1
Q

What is variolation?

A

Exposure of individuals to smallpox scabs by inhalation or through open wounds

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2
Q

What is vaccination?

A

Inoculation of cowpox virus into skin (Edward Jenner)

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3
Q

Why/how does vaccination work?

A
  • Exposure generates a primary immune response producing antibodies and memory B- and T-cells.
  • Secondary immune response upon re-exposure is therefore rapid and strong.
  • Vaccination is one of the great achievements of modern medicine.
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4
Q

Measles

A
  • Measles is caused by measles virus (paramyxovirus, – strand, unsegmented, enveloped, no animal reservoirs)
  • Highly contagious, airborne spread by coughs and sneezes. Complications include blindness, inflammation of brain, pneumonia and death
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5
Q

Measles vaccine

A
  • Highly effective for long-term protection against measles infection
  • Live attenuated virus given with mumps and rubella (MMR vaccine) as shot and a booster
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6
Q

Why is vaccination useful?

A
  • For disease prevention in individuals and the public at large
  • Useful against viruses for which there are few or no treatments
  • Does not require that everyone be vaccinated for it to be effective; herd immunity limits epidemics
  • Commonly administered to children and adult travelers
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7
Q

What are the different types vaccines?

A
-Attenuated whole-agent vaccines (live)
MMR, Sabin polio (OPV)
-Inactivated whole-agent vaccines (killed)
Salk polio (IPV)
-Toxoids (inactivated toxins)
Tetanus
-Subunit vaccines (antigenic proteins or fractions)
Acellular pertussis
Recombinant hepatitis B
SARS-CoV-2
-Conjugated vaccines
The antigen is linked to another immunogenic molecule
Particularly useful for polysaccharides
Effective in children <18 months
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8
Q

What are mRNA vaccines?

A
  • Against SARS-CoV-2 contain an mRNAs for just the Spike protein embedded within a lipid “nanoparticle”.
  • The lipid nanoparticle protects the mRNA from degradation until the mRNA gets inside the cell where it can be translated
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9
Q

What is the first type of polio vaccine?

A
Inactivated whole-agent vaccine (killed):
-Salk: Inactivated Polio Vaccine (IPV)
1955
-virus inactivated with formalin
-injection, produces IgG in blood
-prevents virus spreading to CNS
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10
Q

What is the second type of polio vaccine?

A
Attenuated whole-agent vaccine (live)
-Sabin: Oral Polio Vaccine (OPV)
1962
-mutant “attenuated” virus strains
-droplet or sugar cube, gut immunity
-provides contact immunity
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11
Q

What is the varicella vaccine?

A
  • prevents chicken pox in children
  • can prevent shingles (zoster) in elderly
  • no vaccine-associated deaths in 40M doses (safe)
  • vaccination not routine in some countries (e.g., UK)
  • vaccination required in 41 states in US
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12
Q

What is the HPV vaccine?

A

-there are more than 150 serotypes of HPV
-90% of genital warts caused by HPV Types 6 and 11
-70% of cervical cancers caused by Types 16 and 18
-Types 16 and 18 cause half of vaginal, vulval, penile, anal and oropharyngeal cancers
-Cervarix vaccine is against Types 16 and 18.
-Gardasil is against Types 6, 11, 16, and 18.
recommended for 11-12 year-old girls and boys
and women to 26 years old
**cervical cancer is one of the few preventable cancers

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13
Q

What is the Haemophilus influenzae type B vaccine (Hib)?

A
  • conjugate vaccine: polysaccharide + protein
  • H. influenzae type B causes meningitis
  • polysaccharide alone doesn’t work well in children under 18 mos. of age
  • conjugate is effective in kids, who have immature immune systems
  • herd immunity: giving vaccine to children reduces H. influenza type B infections in adults
  • H.i.B polysaccharide fused to either tetanus, diptheria or meningococcal proteins
  • Hib vaccine is one of WHO’s Essential Medicines
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14
Q

What is control, elimination, eradication?

A

-Control: Reduction to an acceptable level
-Eradication: Permanent reduction to zero of the worldwide incidence of infection caused by a specific agent as a result of deliberate efforts; intervention measures are no longer needed.
Example: smallpox
-Elimination of disease: Reduction to zero of a disease’s incidence in a defined area.
-Elimination of infections: Reduction to zero of infection in a defined area. Example: polio.

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15
Q

What is extinction?

A

The specific infectious agent no longer exists in nature or in the laboratory.
Example: none

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16
Q

How was smallpox eradicated?

A
  • First effort was in 1950
  • 1980 was declared eradicated
  • Jenner first used cowpox in 1792
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17
Q

What are some characteristic to develop new vaccines?

A
  • Must be profitable
  • Must be able to culture pathogen
  • Recombinant DNA techniques
  • Adjuvants
  • Deliver in combo
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18
Q

There are no useful vaccines for what?

A

chlamydias, fungi, protozoa, helminths
HIV*
those against cholera and tuberculosis are not reliable
the easy vaccines may have already been made

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19
Q

What vaccines are still in the experimental stage?

A

Ebola

-Using AAV or VSV viruses to deliver Ebola

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20
Q

Why are oral vaccines useful?

A
  • easy to admin

- effective for protection at mucous membranes

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21
Q

What is the therapeutic index?

A

risk vs benefit

Example: OPV sometimes causes poliomyelitis

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22
Q

What is the Global Eradication Initiative?

A
  • Program to eradicate polio primarily funded by Bill Gates

- Has reduced polio incidence of 99%

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23
Q

What is an example of diagnostic immunology?

A

Koch’s experiment:
-Guinea pigs with TB injected with Mycobacterium tuberculosis: Site became red and slightly swollen
-like the Tuberculin (or Mantoux) test
due to cell-mediated immunity

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24
Q

What is sensitivity?

A

True positive rate. Probability that the test is reactive if the specimen is a true positive

25
What is specificity?
True negative rate. Probability that the test is not reactive if a specimen is a true negative
26
What is a false positive?
A positive test on an individual that is in reality negative | False positive rate = 1 – specificity
27
What is a false negative?
A negative test on an individual that is in reality positive | False negative rate = 1 – sensitivity
28
What is diagnostic immunology?
adaptive immune system of vertebrates is highly specific and therefore a powerful source of diagnostic tools
29
Some tests look for presence of ANTIGEN using ___ as tool
ANTIBODY
30
Some tests look for presence of ANTIBODY using ___ as tool
ANTIGEN
31
What are monoclonal antibodies?
B-cells normally reproduce only a few times under cell culture conditions
32
What is hybridoma?
“Immortal” cancerous B cell fused with an antibody-producing normal B cell, produces
33
What are the characteristics of monoclonal antibodies?
1. single, uniform antibody 2. can be highly specific for an antigen 3. can be produced in large quantities
34
What are some uses for monoclonal antibodies?
-diagnostic tests to detect a pathogen -pregnancy tests to detect a hormone -therapeutic agents Muromonab-CD3: minimize rejection of kidney transplant Infliximab: For Crohn’s disease Ibritumomab + rituximab: For non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma Trastuzumab: Herceptin for breast cancer
35
What are chimeric MABS?
Genetically modified mice that produce Ab with a human constant region
36
What are humanized MABS?
Mabs that are mostly human, except for mouse antigen–binding
37
What are fully human antibodies?
Mabs produced from a human gene on a mouse (e.g. Herceptin)
38
What are two monoclonal antibodies that have been used to treat COVID?
casirivimab/imdevimab | must be given as injection
39
What is precipitation?
Soluble antigens
40
What is agglutination?
Particulate antigens
41
What is neutralization?
Inactivates toxin or virus
42
What is fluorescent-antibody technique?
Antibodies linked to fluorescent dye
43
What is complement fixation?
RBCs are indicator
44
What is ELISA?
Chromogenic substrate + enzyme is the indicator
45
What is precipitation reactions?
Visible precipitate occurs when the two are at optimal ratios
46
What is agglutination reactions?
- Particulate antigens and antibodies - Antigens on a cell (direct agglutination) - red blood cells, bacteria, fungi
47
What is indirect agglutination?
latex agglutination tests are more rapid than typical agglutination tests
48
What is an antibody titer?
Concentration of antibodies against a particular antigen The higher the titer, the greater the amount of antibody. 1:20 is a low titer 1:640 is a high titer A rise in titer indicates seroconversion
49
What is hemagglutination?
Hemagglutination involves agglutination of RBCs | Some viruses agglutinate RBCs in vitro
50
What viral hemagglutination-inhibition?
Hemagglutination involves agglutination of RBCs Some viruses agglutinate RBCs in vitro Antibodies prevent hemagglutination
51
What are neutralization reactions?
Eliminate the harmful effect of a virus or exotoxin
52
What is the complement fixation test?
Can detect a very small amount of antibody
53
What is direct FA?
antibody is conjugated (chemically linked) to fluorine isothiocyanate (FITC), a fluorescent dye
54
What is indirect FA?
can be more sensitive, but sometimes less reliable than direct FA To detect human antibodies, requires anti-human immune serum globulin (anti-HISG)
55
What is the Fluorescence-Activated Cell Sorter (FACS)?
Based on flow cytometer, which measures different wavelengths of light as cells pass by a laser Can detect cell size, DNA content, and fluorescent signals from antibodies or other reagents Can sort cells based on any of these parameters by putting a slight charge on the cell.
56
What is ELISA?
- An antibody in the assay is covalently linked to an enzyme that causes a substrate to become colored or fluorescent - The enzyme is typically horseradish peroxidase (HRP) and alkaline phosphatase (AP)
57
direct ELISA
tests for antigen
58
indirect ELISA
tests for antibody
59
example of serological tests
pregnancy test