Chapter 20 Flashcards

(68 cards)

1
Q

1.​What describes effective communication during an incident? (720)
​A.​Effective communication is best in written form.
​B.​Effective communication is achieved when sending emails.
​C.​Effective communication allows for early and correct aerial placement.
​D.​Effective communication often contains jargon and code words to make radio traffic efficient.

A

​C.​Effective communication allows for early and correct aerial placement.

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2
Q

2.​Which is an example of pre arrival communication? (720)
​A.​Officer and operator size up
​B.​Confirm water supply strategy
​C.​Hand signals for aerial deployment
​D.​Decision to stage or commit a vehicle

A

​D.​Decision to stage or commit a vehicle

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3
Q

3.​Which is an example of on scene communication? (720)
​A.​Apparatus location and turntable placement
​B.​Incident commander communicating apparatus positioning
​C.​Officers communicating the direction of approach to the scene
​D.​Aerial operations and the use of headsets to communicate between personnel

A

​A.​Apparatus location and turntable placement

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4
Q

4.​Which is an example of tactical communication? (720)
​A.​Water supply management
​B.​Officer and operator size up
​C.​Confirm water supply strategy
​D.​Hand signals to guide the aerial ladder into position

A

​D.​Hand signals to guide the aerial ladder into position

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5
Q

5.​Aerial devices can be used to: (721)
​A.​support ventilation operations.
​B.​penetrate a building from the outside.
​C.​create an anchor for high angle rescue.
​D.​support any amount of weight during emergencies.

A

​A.​support ventilation operations.

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6
Q

6.​When operating at a multistory incident, it is often necessary for firefighters to have a(an): (721)
​A.​extra air cylinder.
​B.​replacement radio.
​C.​emergency escape.
​D.​short rope at a minimum.

A

​C.​emergency escape.

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7
Q

7.​An aerial device should not be repositioned if it is: (721)
​A.​no longer needed.
​B.​used as an emergency escape.
​C.​unable to reach the seat of the fire.
​D.​blocking access of other equipment.

A

​B.​used as an emergency escape.

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8
Q

8.​Firefighters involved in rescue operations using an aerial device MUST always be aware of: (721)
​A.​signs of arson.
​B.​weight limitations.
​C.​hydrant water pressure.
​D.​fitness level of all personnel.

A

​B.​weight limitations.

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9
Q

9.​What is an advantage of positioning an aerial apparatus at the corner of a building? (721)
​A.​It consumes less space on scene.
​B.​It allows firefighters to ascend the ladder more quickly.
​C.​It can potentially reach victims on two sides of a building.
​D.​It reduces the amount of water needed to extinguish the fire.

A

C.​It can potentially reach victims on two sides of a building.

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10
Q

10.​To protect the aerial device and personnel from being threatened by fire, it is preferable to use a: (722)
​A.​solid stream.
​B.​misting stream.
​C.​straight stream.
​D.​wide-angle fog stream.

A

​D.​wide-angle fog stream.

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11
Q

11.​Which is the preferred aerial device position if the victim is to be lifted over the top rail of the platform? (722)
​A.​Position the turntable adjacent to the target.
​B.​Position the device 5 feet (1.5 m) from the target.
​C.​Position the device 10 feet (3 m) below the target.
​D.​Position the turntable directly in line with the target.

A

​D.​Position the turntable directly in line with the target.

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12
Q

12.​When considering priorities during a rescue situation, who should be given the highest priority? (723)
​A.​Those in the hazard area
​B.​Those in the exposed area
​C.​The largest group of people
​D.​Those in the greatest danger

A

​D.​Those in the greatest danger

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13
Q

13.​When considering priorities during a rescue situation, who should be given second priority? (723)
​A.​Those in the hazard area
​B.​Those in the exposed area
​C.​The largest group of people
​D.​Those in the greatest danger

A

​C.​The largest group of people

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14
Q

14.​When considering priorities during a rescue situation, who should be given third priority? (723)
​A.​Those in the hazard area
​B.​Those in the exposed area
​C.​The largest group of people
​D.​Those in the greatest danger

A

​A.​Those in the hazard area

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15
Q

15.​When considering priorities during a rescue situation, who should be given fourth priority? (723)
​A.​Those in the hazard area
​B.​Those in the exposed area
​C.​The largest group of people
​D.​Those in the greatest danger

A

​B.​Those in the exposed area

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16
Q

16.​Which is the BEST position to raise the aerial device to a victim? (724)
​A.​Positioning the aerial apparatus behind the objective
​B.​Positioning the aerial apparatus in front of the objective
​C.​The extended and rotated aerial device is in line with the turntable
​D.​The extended and rotated aerial device is perpendicular to the objective

A

​D.​The extended and rotated aerial device is perpendicular to the objective

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17
Q

17.​What results when the aerial device is positioned perpendicular to the objective? (724)
​A.​No twisting stresses are imposed on the aerial device.
​B.​The twisting stresses imposed on the aerial are reduced.
​C.​The twisting stresses imposed on the aerial are increased.
​D.​The twisting stresses imposed on the aerial are similar to when the device is in line with the turntable.

A

​B.​The twisting stresses imposed on the aerial are reduced.

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18
Q

18.​What is the proper method for reaching a victim trapped in an elevated position? (725)
​A.​The aerial device should be extended straight to the victim.
​B.​The aerial device should be initially extended and then rotated to the victim.
​C.​The aerial device should be initially aimed below the victim and then raised.
​D.​The aerial device should initially be aimed above the victim and then lowered.

A

​D.​The aerial device should initially be aimed above the victim and then lowered.

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19
Q

19.​What should the driver/operator perform to greatly reduce the chance of failure of an extended ladder? (726)
​A.​Chock the rear wheels.
​B.​Engage the power take-off.
​C.​Engage the ladder extension lock.
​D.​Place cones around the apparatus.

A

​C.​Engage the ladder extension lock.

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20
Q

20.​When using an aerial ladder device for a window rescue, where should the ladder be positioned? (726)
​A.​Position the tip at the windowsill.
​B.​Position the tip above the window.
​C.​Position the first rung even with the windowsill.
​D.​Position the tip 2 feet (600 mm) below the window.

A

​C.​Position the first rung even with the windowsill.

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21
Q

21.​Which is preferred when using an aerial platform for a window rescue? (727)
​A.​Position the platform above the window.
​B.​Position the platform on the windward side of the window.
​C.​Position the platform 2 feet (600 mm) away from the window.
​D.​Position the platform so the top rail is even with the windowsill.

A

​D.​Position the platform so the top rail is even with the windowsill.

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22
Q

22.​Which is the BEST position when using an aerial ladder for a roof rescue? (727)
​A.​Position the tip even with the roof’s edge.
​B.​Position the tip three rungs above the roof’s edge.
​C.​Position the tip 2 feet (0.6 m) below the roof’s edge.
​D.​Position the tip 6 feet (2 m) above the roof’s edge.

A

​D.​Position the tip 6 feet (2 m) above the roof’s edge.

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23
Q

23.​Which is the BEST position when using an aerial platform for a roof rescue? (727)
​A.​Position the platform 6 feet (2 m) above the roof’s edge
​B.​Position the platform so the bottom is even with the roof’s edge
​C.​Position the platform so the top railing is even with the roof’s edge
​D.​Position the bottom of the platform above and over the roof’s edge

A

​D.​Position the bottom of the platform above and over the roof’s edge

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24
Q

24.​Which aerial device would be MOST effective in rescuing victims from behind parapet walls? (728)
​A.​Aerial telescoping ladder
​B.​Aerial telescoping platform
​C.​A two-boom articulating aerial device
​D.​A three-section articulating aerial device

A

​D.​A three-section articulating aerial device

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25
25.​Which is MOST appropriate when moving capable adult victims down aerial ladders? (729) ​A.​Firefighters should always carry victims down the ladder. ​B.​Firefighters should always lead the adult victim down the ladder. ​C.​Victims should always climb down the ladder with another victim, not by themselves. ​D.​Victims should always be lowered to the ground instead of climbing down the ladder.
​B.​Firefighters should always lead the adult victim down the ladder.
26
26.​Small children and adults incapable of climbing down the ladder by themselves will need to: (729) ​A.​be carried or supported. ​B.​be hoisted down with a harness. ​C.​be carried down in a Stokes basket. ​D.​find another way out of the building.
​A.​be carried or supported.
27
27.​Which carrying method is BEST used for a heavier person? (730) ​A.​Knee-sit ​B.​Leg-push ​C.​Arm-wrap ​D.​Two-arm under carry
​A.​Knee-sit
28
28.​Using the knee-sit method is advantageous because: (730) ​A.​firefighters can slide down the ladder quickly. ​B.​firefighters can use both hands to hold the victim. ​C.​the victim is carried over the shoulders of a firefighter, keeping a strong hold. ​D.​the firefighter can use both hands to hold rails while the victim holds on to the firefighter.
​D.​the firefighter can use both hands to hold rails while the victim holds on to the firefighter.
29
29.​Which method is useful to lower an unconscious or severely injured adult down the aerial ladder? (730) ​A.​The victim should climb down the ladder under their own power. ​B.​The victim should be cradled in a firefighter’s arms as they descend the ladder. ​C.​The victim is placed on the firefighter’s knee while they slowly descend the ladder. ​D.​The victim positions across the rails of the ladder and is supported by firefighters below.
​D.​The victim positions across the rails of the ladder and is supported by firefighters below.
30
30.​Why is the over-the-shoulder carry the most difficult and riskiest method of moving victims down aerial ladders? (731) ​A.​The victim is likely to resist being carried over the shoulder of a firefighter. ​B.​The firefighter cannot control the victim’s legs and feet while descending the ladder. ​C.​The victim is likely to become unconscious when positioned on the shoulder of a firefighter. ​D.​The firefighter will only have one hand available for stability while descending the ladder.
​D.​The firefighter will only have one hand available for stability while descending the ladder.
31
31.​Although using aerial platforms to move victims is considerably easier than backing them down aerial ladders, a disadvantage of platforms is that they: (731) ​A.​can only support the weight of two adults. ​B.​cannot carry equipment needed for a rescue. ​C.​cannot reach victims as easily as aerial ladders. ​D.​are not suited to mass evacuations from a single point.
D.​are not suited to mass evacuations from a single point.
32
32.​Which statement is MOST accurate regarding lowering a Stokes basket using an aerial ladder? (732) ​A.​It is faster than other lowering methods. ​B.​It is easier than other lowering methods. ​C.​The tactic should be used as a last resort. ​D.​The tactic should be used only in training evolutions.
​C.​The tactic should be used as a last resort.
33
33.​If a litter does not fit between rails of the aerial ladder, firefighters should: (734) ​A.​carry the litter down the aerial ladder. ​B.​bring the litter down from the building. ​C.​lower the litter using an aerial device lifting eye. ​D.​place the litter on top of handrails perpendicular to the ladder.
​D.​place the litter on top of handrails perpendicular to the ladder.
34
34.​Before attempting a rope lowering system for removing victims in basket litters from elevated positions, the driver/operator MUST: (734-735) ​A.​properly position the victim on their side. ​B.​be familiar with the hydraulic calculation chart ​C.​know the limitations of any hardware used in the process. ​D.​understand the resistance pressure of the aerial device nozzle.
​C.​know the limitations of any hardware used in the process.
35
35.​When performing rope rescue operations, it is essential that the lifts be made in a smooth manner in order to: (735) ​A.​reduce the friction in the rope. ​B.​prevent the victim from becoming sick. ​C.​allow for correction during cross-winds. ​D.​ensure that the capacity is not exceeded.
​D.​ensure that the capacity is not exceeded.
36
36.​Which NFPA® standard details requirements for rope and hardware used for lifting eyes? (735) ​A.​NFPA® 1002 ​B.​NFPA® 1901 ​C.​NFPA® 1911 ​D.​NFPA® 1983
​D.​NFPA® 1983
37
37.​Where should the working end of the rope be anchored on the aerial device when lifting objects other than people? (735) ​A.​Should be anchored to the tip of the ladder ​B.​Should only be anchored to the lifting eye(s) ​C.​Should be anchored to a static device on the ground ​D.​Should only be anchored to a lower section of the ladder
​D.​Should only be anchored to a lower section of the ladder
38
38.​Which BEST describes the practice of using aerial devices for water rescue? (735) ​A.​Place the tip in the water for victims. ​B.​Lower a firefighter to the victim in the water. ​C.​First angle the device and then extend the ladder to the victim. ​D.​Fire departments should discourage the use of these devices for this type of rescue.
​D.​Fire departments should discourage the use of these devices for this type of rescue.
39
39.​Why should departments discourage the use of aerial devices for water rescue? (736) ​A.​Liability concerns ​B.​Lack of water rescue training ​C.​Unpredictable victim behavior ​D.​Inability to stabilize the apparatus
​D.​Inability to stabilize the apparatus
40
40.​Why is the use of aerial apparatus dangerous for water rescues? (736) ​A.​The ladder is not designed to operate at angles greater than 180 degrees ​B.​Victims usually cannot pull themselves out of the water ​C.​Potential for the victim to become injured by the device tip ​D.​Potential for the aerial device to make contact with swiftly moving waters
​D.​Potential for the aerial device to make contact with swiftly moving waters
41
41.​Which situation would pose excessive lateral stress on an aerial device? (736) ​A.​Large amounts of snow on the ladder ​B.​Extending an aerial device into swiftly moving water ​C.​Having a heavy load near the tip of the aerial ladder ​D.​Lowering a victim in a Stokes basket from the lifting eye(s)
B.​Extending an aerial device into swiftly moving water
42
42.​Where should the driver/operator position the aerial apparatus when providing access for ventilating a flat roof? (737) ​A.​On the burned side of the structure furthest away from the area being ventilated ​B.​On the burned side of the structure as close as possible to the area being ventilated ​C.​On the unburned side of the structure furthest away from the area being ventilated ​D.​On the unburned side of the structure as close as possible to the area being ventilated
​D.​On the unburned side of the structure as close as possible to the area being ventilated
43
43.​When performing ventilation operations, the driver/operator for an aerial device should extend fly sections so a minimum of _____ protrudes over the edge of the roof. (737) ​A.​2 feet (0.6 m) ​B.​4 feet (1.3 m) ​C.​6 feet (2 m) ​D.​8 feet (2.5 m)
​C.​6 feet (2 m)
44
44.​Which is the BEST location to position an aerial platform to ventilate a roof? (737) ​A.​Positioned so the bottom is even with the roof’s edge ​B.​Positioned to allow 6 feet (2 m) above the roof’s edge ​C.​Positioned so the top railing is even with the roof’s edge ​D.​Positioned even with or extended slightly over the roof’s edge
​D.​Positioned even with or extended slightly over the roof’s edge
45
45.​When performing ventilation operations from the tip of an aerial device, firefighters should be: (737) ​A.​positioned slightly below the window. ​B.​positioned on the leeward side of operations. ​C.​secured to the building with a harness and rope. ​D.​secured to the ladder or platform with a safety belt.
​D.​secured to the ladder or platform with a safety belt.
46
46.​Which is MOST commonly used in defensive operations? (738) ​A.​Elevated master streams ​B.​1¾-inch (45 mm) handlines ​C.​2½-inch (65 mm) handlines ​D.​Master stream fixed to the ground
​A.​Elevated master streams
47
47.​When a defensive attack is employed: (738) ​A.​firefighters attack from within the building. ​B.​risk of building collapse must be considered. ​C.​the Incident Commander should call for mutual aid. ​D.​fire apparatus can be positioned closer to the structure
​B.​risk of building collapse must be considered.
48
48.​Which factor MUST be balanced against positioning an apparatus at a safe distance from the structure? (739) ​A.​The location of the staging area ​B.​The weather conditions at the incident ​C.​The distance to the incident command post ​D.​The distance of the fire stream to reach the target
​D.​The distance of the fire stream to reach the target
49
49.​When an incident commander makes the decision to apply water from an aerial master stream, the driver/operator needs to know: (739) ​A.​the placement of the stream. ​B.​which firefighter will be at the tip. ​C.​the placement of the detachable waterway. ​D.​which firefighter will be operating the primary controls.
​A.​the placement of the stream.
50
50.​During the initial setup, it is the driver/operator’s responsibility to: (739) ​A.​consider the potential water supply demand. ​B.​assume the role of the incident safety officer. ​C.​determine whether to conduct defensive operations. ​D.​perform commanding operations and direct all firefighters.
​A.​consider the potential water supply demand.
51
51.​Where should a master stream nozzle be positioned for a blitz attack on a structure? (739) ​A.​Center of the window opening ​B.​Either side of the window opening ​C.​Upper portion of the window opening ​D.​Lower portion of the window opening
​D.​Lower portion of the window opening
52
52.​When using an aerial device as a master stream close to ground level, the driver/operator should position the apparatus: (739) ​A.​at a higher grade than the target. ​B.​on the leeward side of the structure. ​C.​so the turntable is parallel with the target. ​D.​so the turntable is directly in line with the target.
​D.​so the turntable is directly in line with the target.
53
53.​It is important to ensure that any nozzles used in aerial operations are compatible with: (740) ​A.​all hydrant connections. ​B.​any foam application system. ​C.​private residents’ water supply. ​D.​the manufacturer’s designed waterway.
​D.​the manufacturer’s designed waterway.
54
54.​Which type of nozzle is able to break up water to allow better steam conversion? (740) ​A.​Fog nozzle ​B.​Penetrating nozzle ​C.​Solid stream nozzle ​D.​Smooth bore nozzle
​A.​Fog nozzle
55
55.​Which type of nozzle provides excellent penetration into fire areas? (740) ​A.​Fog nozzle ​B.​Solid stream nozzle ​C.​Shower curtain nozzle ​D.​Penetrating fog nozzle
​B.​Solid stream nozzle
56
56.​A carefully placed solid or straight stream from the exterior of the building is often referred to as: (741) ​A.​blitz attack. ​B.​fire control. ​C.​fire confinement. ​D.​showering the fire.
​A.​blitz attack.
57
57.​What is the BEST way to accomplish a blitz attack with an elevated master stream? (741) ​A.​Deflect water off the floor of the fire room ​B.​Deflect water off the ceiling of the fire room ​C.​Penetrate through the adjacent fire room with a solid stream ​D.​Penetrate through the roof of the building with a solid stream
​B.​Deflect water off the ceiling of the fire room
58
58.​What is a common use of elevated master streams? (742) ​A.​Hoisting operations ​B.​Offensive operations ​C.​Defensive operations ​D.​Initial attack operations
​C.​Defensive operations
59
59.​A defensive attack is an exterior attack with emphasis on: (742) ​A.​fire attack. ​B.​fire suppression. ​C.​offensive support. ​D.​exposure protection.
​D.​exposure protection.
60
60.​Using an aerial device as an exterior standpipe to upper floors is a tactic that: (744) ​A.​requires an additional fire apparatus. ​B.​increases the weight load capacity of the apparatus. ​C.​can eliminate difficult hose lays up interior stairwells. ​D.​increases the amount of pressure needed to deliver the water.
​C.​can eliminate difficult hose lays up interior stairwells.
61
61.​How does wind affect exposure protection? (745) ​A.​Wind will smother and reduce flame spread. ​B.​Wind enhances the effects of radiated and convection heat transfer. ​C.​Wind helps by cooling and lowering temperatures on the surface of exposures. ​D.​Wind reduces fire spread by limiting the amount of oxygen delivered to the fire.
​B.​Wind enhances the effects of radiated and convection heat transfer.
62
62.​Protection from convective fire spread can be accomplished by: (746) ​A.​applying large fog streams into the thermal column. ​B.​applying large straight streams into the thermal column. ​C.​directing a fog stream into the air between fire and exposure. ​D.​directing a straight stream into the air between fire and exposure.
​A.​applying large fog streams into the thermal column.
63
63.​Which method is generally used to cover the involved area when protecting exposures? (747) ​A.​Narrow vertical patterns ​B.​Solid stream narrow patterns ​C.​Wide sweeping nozzle patterns ​D.​Solid stream wide sweeping nozzle patterns
​C.​Wide sweeping nozzle patterns
64
64.​Which condition may make fog streams ineffective when protecting exposures at a fire incident? (748) ​A.​Cloudless sky ​B.​Late night hours ​C.​Cooler temperatures ​D.​High wind conditions
​D.​High wind conditions
65
65.​What is the first option for rescuing victims at an incident involving large commercial passenger aircraft? (748) ​A.​Using portable stairs at the exit doors ​B.​Using a trampoline to catch victims that jump ​C.​Using escape chutes or slides on the aircraft ​D.​Using an aerial device at exit doors or aircraft wings
​C.​Using escape chutes or slides on the aircraft
66
66.​What is the second option for rescuing victims at an incident involving large commercial passenger aircraft? (748) ​A.​Using portable stairs at the exit doors ​B.​Using a trampoline to catch victims that jump ​C.​Using escape chutes or slides on the aircraft ​D.​Using an aerial device at exit doors or aircraft wings
​A.​Using portable stairs at the exit doors
67
67.​Why should firefighters and passengers use extreme caution when mounting and dismounting an aerial device from an aircraft’s wings? (748) ​A.​To avoid unbalancing the plane ​B.​The surface of the wings is slippery ​C.​The wings cannot support any additional weight ​D.​To avoid creating any possible damage to the aircraft
​B.​The surface of the wings is slippery
68
68.​Which item is MOST likely to be used in identifying the appropriate location for piercing nozzles in the fuselage? (749) ​A.​Aircraft cargo list ​B.​Portable X-Ray devices ​C.​Aircraft design blueprints ​D.​Thermal imaging cameras
​D.​Thermal imaging cameras