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A&P 1 > Chapter 21 Immune System > Flashcards

Chapter 21 Immune System Flashcards

1
Q

Inflammatory response

A

second line of defense

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2
Q

Intact skin and mucous membranes

A

first line of defense

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3
Q

immune response

A

third line of defense and adaptive defense system

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4
Q

Inflammatory response and skin and mucous membranes

A

innate defense system

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5
Q

Enables quick and efficient response to secondary exposure to antigen

A

memory cell

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6
Q

Absence results in no immune response.

A

T helper cell

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7
Q

Forms antibody producing cells.

A

B cell

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8
Q

Kills cancer cells and virus infected body cells.

A

Cytotoxic T cell

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9
Q

Slows or stops the immune response.

A

Regulatory T cell

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10
Q

Main antibody of both primary and secondary immune response.

A

IgG

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11
Q

Protects mucosal barriers.

A

IgA

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12
Q

Involved in allergies

A

IgE

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13
Q

Along with IgM, this is a B cell receptor.

A

IgD

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14
Q

First to peak during a primary immune response

A

IgM

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15
Q

Natural killer cells destroy target cells or pathogens by ingestion and destruction of particulate matter in a process called phagocytosis. False, why?

A

called apoptosis**

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16
Q

Viral infection will provoke cell mediated immunity but will not activate a humoral response. False, why?

A

and will activate a humoral response**

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17
Q

Monoclonal antibodies are used in clinical laboratory diagnosis because they bind to many antigenic determinants. False, why?

A

monoclonal antibodies produce a single type of antibody

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18
Q

T cells are differentiated into two groups based on their glycoproteins: CD4 or CD8. Why of the following is true of CD4 T cells?

A

They become helper T cells

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19
Q

Which of the following examples below describes an autoimmune disease?

A

Antibody binding to acetylcholine receptors of the motor end plate resulting in muscle weakness.

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20
Q

Which of the following does NOT describe actions of interferon (IFN)?

A

IFN can penetrate the viral capsid and destroy the virus.

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21
Q

A vaccine is effective because ________.

A

the secondary response of the adaptive immunity is faster and more efficient than the primary response.

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22
Q

A flu vaccine is needed seasonally to be effective but a polio vaccine is only needed once. The best explanation of this is _______.

A

the flu has several strains that change seasonally.

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23
Q

All of the following are true of the classical pathway of complement activation except one. Select the one answer that does NOT describe the classical pathway of complement activation.

A

It activates T helper cells by presenting antigen to them.

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24
Q

Vaccines work by _______.

A

priming the adaptive immunity with a relatively harmless primary exposure.

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25
Q

Inflammation ______.

A

brings more leukocytes to the sight of infection.

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26
Q

Membrane attack complex (MAC) kills by ________.

A

disrupting the selectively permeability of a bacteria’s plasma membrane

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27
Q

All but one of the following occur during the inflammatory response. Select the example below that does not describe the process of inflammation.

A

Vasoconstriction will prevent excessive blood loss due to injury

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28
Q

Which of the following is true of antigens?

A

antigens are substances that activate the adaptive immunity response.

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29
Q

Which of the following is true of incomplete antigens?

A

Incomplete antigens are only immunogenic when attached to protein carriers

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30
Q

Allergens differ from antigens because _______.

A

Allergens produce an abnormally large immune response to what is an otherwise harmless particle

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31
Q

Allergens differ from antigens because _______.

A

Allergens produce an abnormally large immune response to what is an otherwise harmless particle

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32
Q

Without the positive selection process in lymphocyte maturation ________.

A

T cells would not be able to properly bind to APC’s and therefore not be activated by them.

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33
Q

Lymphocyte education refers to ensuring that T cells _______.

A

that do not recognize self-MHC proteins undergo apoptosis.

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34
Q

Plasma cells _______.

A

have a great deal of rough ER reflecting the fact that they secrete a tremendous amount of protein

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35
Q

Which of the following is associated with passive immunity?

A

passage of IgG antibodies from a pregnant mother to her fetus

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36
Q

Which of the following is NOT a type of T cell?

A

antigenic

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37
Q

B lymphocytes develop immunocompetence in the _______.

A

bone marrow

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38
Q

Which of the following is NOT a function of the inflammatory response?

A

replaces injured tissues with connective tissue

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39
Q

The redness and heat of an inflamed area are due to a local hyperemia caused by _______.

A

vasodilation

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40
Q

In clonal selection of B cells, which substance is responsible for determining which cells will become cloned?

A

antigen

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41
Q

Which of the following statements regarding NK cells is a false or incorrect statement?

A

NK cells are a type of neutrophil.

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42
Q

Small molecules that bind with self-proteins to produce antigenic substances are called ______.

A

haptens

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43
Q

Which of the following is NOT a role of activated complement?

A

prevention of immediate hypersensitivity reactions

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44
Q

Interferons ________.

A

interfere with viral replication within cells

45
Q

Regulatory T cells _______.

A

may function in preventing autoimmune reactions

46
Q

Which of the statements below does NOT describe antigens?

A

antigens only come from microbes

47
Q

Which of the statements below does NOT describe antigens?

A

antigens only come from microbes

48
Q

Activated T cells and macrophages release ______ to mobilize immune cells and attract other leukocytes into the area.

A

cytokines

49
Q

Which of the following would be a component of the body’s first line of defense?

A

mucous membranes

50
Q

Which of the following is characteristic of complete antigens?

A

reactivity with an antibody

51
Q

B cells respond to the initial antigen challenge by _______.

A

producing progeny cells that include plasma cells and memory cells

52
Q

T cell activation requires ________.

A

antigen binding and co-stimulation

53
Q

Cancer cells and virus infected body cells can be killed before activation of adaptive immunity by ______.

A

natural killer cells

54
Q

Complement proteins and antibodies coat a microorganism and provide binding sites, enabling macrophages and neutrophils to phagocytize the organism. This phenomenon is termed _______.

A

opsonization

55
Q

Monoclonal antibodies are used for diagnosis of all of the following EXCEPT ________.

A

elevated blood glucose

56
Q

Innate immune system defenses include ______.

A

phagocytosis

57
Q

Which of the following statements is incorrect or false?

A

Class II MHC molecules appear only on the surface of antigen presenting cells, thymic cells, and T cells that have been activated by exposure to antigens

58
Q

Phagocyte mobilization involves _______.

A

mainly neutrophil and macrophage migration into inflamed areas

59
Q

Fever _______.

A

production is regulated by chemicals that reset the body’s thermostat to a higher setting

60
Q

Immunocompetence _________.

A

is the ability of individual cells to recognize a specific antigen by binding to it

61
Q

Select the correct statement about active and passive immunity.

A

Active and passive humoral immunity are both mechanisms of adaptive immunity that use antibodies

62
Q

Cytotoxic T cells ______.

A

can directly attack and kill other cells of the body

63
Q

T helper cells ______.

A

function in the adaptive immune system activation

64
Q

Immediate and subacute hypersensitivities are caused by ______ that trigger the release of _______.

A

antibodies; histamine

65
Q

Natural killer cells _______.

A

can kill cancer cells before the immune system is activated

66
Q

Select the correct statement about antigens

A

one antigen may have many different antigenic determinants and may therefore cause the formation of more than one antibody.

67
Q

Clonal selection of B cells _______.

A

results in the formation of plasma cells

68
Q

Clonal selection of B cells _______.

A

results in the formation of plasma cells

69
Q

The primary immune response _________.

A

has a large period while B cells proliferate and differentiate into plasma cells

70
Q

Tissue rejection after an organ transplant is least likely due to the action of _____.

A

regulatory T cells

71
Q

Which of the following is NOT a mechanism for the development of autoimmune disorders?

A

a second exposure to an allergen

72
Q

Which of the following is activated by the binding of proteins to sugars on the surface of microorganisms?

A

lectin pathway

73
Q

Antibody functions include all of the following EXCEPT _______.

A

cross-linking cell-bound antigens on red blood cells when blood types are properly matched.

74
Q

Which statement is true about T cells?

A

Their proliferation is enhanced by interleukins 1 and 2.

75
Q

What is the role of interferon in defense against disease?

A

protects cells that have not yet been identified by viruses

76
Q

Which of the following statements is a false statement?

A

After becoming immunocompetent, the naive T cells and B cells are exported to the bone marrow where the encounters with antigens occur

77
Q

Which immunoglobulin class is the most abundant antibody in plasma?

A

IgE

78
Q

Suppressor factors are ______ that suppress the immune system

A

cytokines

79
Q

Pure antibody preparations specific for a single antigenic determinant are called ______ antibodies.

A

monoclonal

80
Q

The most common type of immediate hypersensitivity is _______.

A

allergy

81
Q

Natural killer cells can lyse and kill cancer cells and virus infected body cells _____ the immune system is activated.

A

before

82
Q

max is bitten by a rattle snake while on a camping trip. his friends immediately apply ice packs to the bitten area to slow the spread of the protein based toxin; they then rush him to ER. what treatment would be given and why?

A

Max would be given an immune serum to the rattlesnake venom, thereby conferring passive immunity. The reason for passive immunization is that the venom could kill the person before active immunity could be established. the passive immunity would last until the “borrowed” antibodies naturally degraded in the body.

83
Q

a physician orders tylenol for the temperature greater than 101 degrees F. the patients tempis 100.4, explain the rationaled for not medicating a fever of 100.4 degrees

A

a mild or moderate fever is an adaptive response that seems to benefit the body. bacteria need large amounts of zinc and iron to multiply. during fever, the liver and spleen sequester these nutrients, making them less available, which helps to reduce bacterial population.

84
Q

nursing care of a patient with acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS) includes monitoring of T lymphocyte counts. explain why.

A

the primary defect in patients with AIDS is depletion of T helper cells, and therefore the cell mediated response. the immunodeficiency makes the patient more susceptible to infection and unusual cancers. thus the lower count, the more protective precautions need to be taken

85
Q

Septic shock is a dangerous condition where the _____ are released unchecked, making the capillaries very leaky and thus depleting blood fluids.

A

cytokines

86
Q

Harmful or disease-causing microorganisms are called ______.

A

pathogens

87
Q

A group of at least 20 plasma proteins that normally circulate in an inactive state and are a major mechanism for destroying foreign substances in the body are referred to as _______.

A

complement

88
Q

The antibody that becomes bound to mast cells and basophils and causes the cells to release histamine and other chemicals is _______.

A

IgE

89
Q

Failure of developing T cells to recognize self MHC during positive selection results in ______.

A

apoptosis

90
Q

An autoimmune disease that severely impairs renal function is ________.

A

glomerulonephritis

91
Q

List and briefly discuss innate body defenses to disease.

A

surface membrane barriers- skin and mucous membranes act as physical barrier and secrete chemicals that kill microorganisms like saliva and sebum. Phagocytes and natural killer cells are cellular defenses. Inflammation occurs in response to injury. Antimicrobial substances also produced as body defenses.

92
Q

What are the monoclonal antibodies? How are they produced, and what are some of their clinical uses?

A

pure antibody preparations that exhibit specificity for a single antigen determinant. produced from progeny of a single B cell hybridoma clone. clinical uses are for diagnosis of pregnancy, certain STDs and hepatitis

93
Q

What is the antigen challenge, and where does it usually take place?

A

The antigen challenge is the first encounter between an immunocompetent lymphocyte and an invading antigen. Usually takes place in spleen or a lymph node

94
Q

Why are regulatory T cells important to the immune process?

A

They are vital in the final stopping of an immune response after the antigen is inactivated. They may also help prevent autoimmune reactions

95
Q

What is the most likely type of hypersensitivity associated with an agonizingly itchy case of poison ivy, appearance of hives after eating shellfish, or a positive TB test?

A

The hypersensitivity associated with poison ivy is and example of delayed hypersensitivity called allergic contact dermatitis. The hypersensitivity associated with hives is an immediate hypersensitivity in the form of a local anaphylactic reaction. The hypersensitivity associated with a positive TB test is a type of delayed hypersensitivity.

96
Q

Children born without a thymus must be kept in a germ-free environment if they are to survive. Explain why this is necessary.

A

T cells will not mature and become immunocompetent. If T cell function is disrupted, there is no resistance to disease.

97
Q

What are the signs of inflammation and how does inflammation serve as a protective function?

A

swelling, redness, heat, and pain. signs caused by local vasodilation and increased capillary permeability which helps dilute harmful substances that may be present and it brings in large quantities of O2 and nutrients necessary for repair process.

98
Q

Name four autoimmune diseases.

A

multiple sclerosis, Grave’s disease, rheumatoid arthritis, type 1 diabetes

99
Q

What are two general mechanisms by which autoimmune diseases could arise?

A

appearance of new self-proteins in the circulation not previously exposed to immune system and an immune response to foreign antigens resembling self-antigens

100
Q

Elderly people tend to develop cancer more frequently than younger people. Give an explanation for this observation that relates to immune function.

A

As one ages, the efficiency of the immune system begins to decline. This may allow cancer to become established more easily.

101
Q

Why do schools require inoculations for childhood diseases such as mumps, measles, and whooping cough? Why are the inoculations of value?

A

The inoculations are required to try to prevent epidemics of these microbiological infections. The inoculations are of great benefit in preventing the diseases because the vaccines cause immunity to the pathogens by stimulating both the formation of protective antibodies and the establishment of immunological memory against future infection.

102
Q

Tom gets a cut on his hand. After several days he notes swelling, pain, heat, and redness. Upon opening the wound to relieve the pressure, the presence of pus is noted. What has happened to the wound?

A

The wound has become infected, probably with bacteria. The initial symptoms indicate acute inflammation. Pus indicates the presence of dead or dying neutrophils, broken-down tissue cells, and living and dead pathogens

103
Q

What are some of the drawbacks of passive humoral immunity?

A

The effects are short lived; it does not trigger memory cell production; and your body degrades the antibodies.

104
Q

A 36-year-old man enters the hospital in an extremely debilitated condition. He has purple-brown skin lesions (a symptom of Kaposi’s sarcoma) and a persistent cough. A physical examination reveals swollen lymph nodes, and laboratory tests find a very low lymphocyte count. Information taken during the personal history reveals that he has multiple sex partners with whom he frequently engages in unprotected sex. What is likely to be the man’s problem and what is his outlook?

A

He is probably suffering from AIDS. His outlook is poor once the disease has progressed to this advanced stage. There is no cure and drug therapy has had limited short-term success.

105
Q

A young girl requires a liver transplant due to failure of her liver to function. What is required for her to have a good prognosis and why?

A

The ABO and other blood group antigens of the donor and recipient must be determined. Next, donor and recipient tissues (MHC groups) are matched as closely as possible. Following surgery she must receive immunosuppressive therapy to keep her body from rejecting the new liver as foreign tissue.

106
Q

A woman comes into the hospital emergency room complaining that she is having problems swallowing and her neck is swelling. She has a history of radiation treatment to her neck as a child for acne. What could be the problem?

A

The woman is suffering from Hashimoto’s thyroiditis. The radiation injured the thyroid gland and released thyroidglobulin into the bloodstream. The immune system has recently become sensitized and mounted an attack on the thyroid gland.

107
Q

after receiving penicillin by IV, a 32 yr old male patient has an anaphylactic reaction. the nurse understand that therapeutic management includes what critical items?

A

therapeutic management includes speed in recognition of signs and symptoms of an anaphylactic reaction because death can occur within minutes. Maintaining an open airway is critical because bronchioles constrict , making it difficult to breathe. epinephrine is often the key to survival

108
Q

when the WBC count is depressed, the classic signs of infection such as redness heat and swelling are not manifested. in this case the nurse should avoid administering aspirin. explain why

A

aspirin would disguise a fever that would indicate infection

A&P 1 (11 decks)

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