Chapter 28: Sonographic Assessment of the Fetal Genitourinary System and Fetal Pelvis Flashcards
(261 cards)
1
Q
From a volume dataset, static 3D images can display height, width, and depth of anatomy form an orthogonal planes
A
3D sonography
2
Q
failure of development
A
agenesis
3
Q
complete absence of a fetal body part
A
aplasia
4
Q
congenital anomaly where the bladder is outside the body through a ventral wall defect inferior to the umbilical cord
A
bladder exstrophy
5
Q
dilation of the renal calices
A
caliectasis
6
Q
Half-Fourier acquisition single-shot turbo sign; a fast spin method to obtain the MRI dataset
A
HASTE
7
Q
type of kidney where the upper poles fuse resulting in an appearance similar to a horseshoe
A
horseshoe kidney
8
Q
serous fluid accumulation in a body cavity such as the scrotum
A
hydrocele
9
Q
dilation of the renal pelvises and calices, usually caused by obstruction
A
hydronephrosis
10
Q
underdevelopment or incomplete development of a body part
A
hypoplasia
11
Q
obstructing membranes in the male urethra located posteriorly caused by the abnormal urethral development
A
posterior urethral valves
12
Q
this group of findings, also called Potter syndrome or oligohydramnios sequence, includes renal conditions such as agenesis, obstructive processes, and acquired inherited cystic disease
A
Potter syndrome
13
Q
failure of renal development
A
renal agenesis
14
Q
semi-automated process to calculate volume using a 3D dataset
A
VOCAL
15
Q
identification or one or both kidneys
normal or oligohydramnios
small thorax
dolichocephaly
absent bladder
adrenal gland flattened in the renal fossa
absent renal arteries with Color Doppler
A
Renal Agenesis
16
Q
Causes for UPJ obstruction
A
ureteral insertion anomaly
ureteral valve scarring
peripelvic fibrous adhesions or bands
ureteric hypoplasia
ureteral kinks
aberrant crossing vessels
17
Q
Most common posterior urethral valve type because of anterior fusing of the plicae colliculi, mucosal extending from the bottom of the veramontanum distally along the prostatic and membranous urethra
A
Type I
18
Q
Least common posterior urethral valve type, vertical or longitudinal folds between the veramontanum and the proximal prostatic urethral bladder neck
A
Type II
19
Q
Less common variant of posterior urethral valves types, a disk of tissue distal to the verumontanum through not attached, a small opening in the diaphragm-like structure
A
Type III
20
Q
distention of the anterior abdominal wall
obstruction of the urinary tract
bilateral cryptochordism
A
triad of Prune Belly Syndrome
21
Q
Megalurethra variant that is caused by hypoplasia of the corpus spongiosum, with bulging of the ventral urthra
A
scaphoid varian
22
Q
Megalourethra variant that is caused hy dysplasia of both the corpus spongiosum and cavernosum, with circumferential dilation of the urethra
A
Fusiform variant
23
Q
complete communication between the bladder and the umbilicus, resulting in urine leakage from the umbilicus
A
patent urachus
24
Q
a cystic mass that forms along the ducts course but does not communicate with the bladder or umbilicus
A
urachal cyst
25
a blind-ended tract that communicates with the umbilicus but not with the bladder; can result in period discharge from the umbilicus
urachal sinus
26
a blind-ended tract from the bladder dome, but does not communicate with the umbilicus
urachal diverticulum
27
Most common fetal malformation
genitourinary system
28
anomalies associated with renal system dilation have a ____ predominance.
male
29
Polycystic and horeshoes kidneys have a ____ predominance
female
30
The urinary system consists of:
kidneys
ureter
bladder
31
At ___ weeks kidneys attain normal position and blood flow is established
9
32
AT ___ weeks, the kidneys are visualized in 95% of all patients
22
33
Urinary system malformations can be detected as early as __-__ weeks
16
18
34
All urinary anomalies are visualized by __ to __ weeks
28
30
35
In the transverse plane, the kidneys visualize as:
hypoechoic ovoid masses
36
In the parasagittal plane, the kidneys visualized as
paraspinous and bean shaped
37
arranged in anterior and posterior rows around renal pelvis
renal pyramids
38
The length of the neonate kidney at 20 weeks:
2 to 3 cm
39
The length of the neonate kidney at nerm:
nearly 4 cm
40
Renal volume equation
length x width x height x 0.5233
41
echofree intrapelvic structure
bladder
42
The bladder can be seen as early as __ weeks but definitely by __ weeks
11
13
43
The fetal bladder fills and voids about:
once per hour
44
The amount of amniotic fluid volume has a direct correlation with:
renal function
45
Fetal urinary production begins at __ weeks
9
46
Fetal urine makes up __% of amniotic fluid by 20 weeks
90
47
amniotic fluid volume less than 500 mL; maximum vertical pocket less than 2 cm; amount of fluid index of less than 5 cm
oligohydramnios
48
classic physical appearance of a fetus that has pulmonary hypoplasia secondary to oligohydramnios
Potter Syndrome
49
Potter syndrome is typically caused by:
renal failure
50
flattened nose
recessed chin
epicanthal folds
low set abnormal ears
Potter facies
51
primary cause of fetal or neonatal death
pulmonary hypoplasia
52
congenital absence of one or both kidneys
renal agenesis
53
results from failure of embryonic kidney to form
renal agenesis
54
urinary tract anomalies of contralateral kidney = UPJ and VUJ
unilateral agenesis
55
existing kidney invariably larger because of compensatory hypertrophy; does not result in change in amniotic fluids levels or bladder filling
unilateral agenesis
56
oligohydramnios and empty bladder 16 weeks+
bilateral agenesis
57
incomplete renal development
renal aplasia
58
nonfunctioning kidney
renal dysplasia
59
Types of renal ectopia
pelvic kidney
horseshoe kidney
cross-fused ectopia
60
What renal agenesis is incompatible with life?
Bilateral renal agenesis
61
kidney that lies outside the renal fossa; found anywhere along embryologic migratory path
renal ectopia
62
____ kidneys present as:
smaller, malrotated, irregular shape
63
Most common location of ectopic kidneys
pelvis
64
remains in pelvis; inferior to renal fossa; superior to fetal ballder
pelvic kidney
65
most frequently reported anomalies associated with pelvic kidneys in males
hypospadias
cryptochordism
66
Most frequently reported anomalies associated with pelvic kidneys in females
bicornuate uterus; duplication hypoplasia, agenesis of the vagina
67
Ectopic kidneys can cause renal vascular _____ because of ectopic blood supply
hypertension
68
kidney located on opposite side from which its ureter enters the bladder
crossed renal ectopia
69
___ to ___ cross over more common with crossed renal ectopa
left
right
70
The upper pole of crossed ectopic kidney generally fuses to the ____ pole of normally located kidney
lower
71
Crossed renal ectopic kidneys typically have a:
duplicated collecting system
72
most common renal fusion anomaly
horseshoe kidney
73
formed by fusion of lower poles in greater than 90% forming a U shape
horseshoe kidney
74
connection between two renal masses which are made up of parenchymal or fibrous tissue
isthmus
75
Horseshoe kidney most common location:
lower position
76
Up to 60% of fetuses with _______ have horseshoe kidneys
Turners syndrome
77
any blockage of urine flow in the urinary system; can occur anywhere along tract; one of the most common fetal anomalies detected on prenatal sonography; lowest correlation with chromosomal anomalies
obstructive uropathyies
78
Obstructive uropathies are most commonly associated with ___ or _______
transient or physiological urinary tract dilatation
79
Most kidneys with antenatal hydronephrosis of less than __mm prove to be normal at birth
10
80
After __ weeks it is common to see at least come dilatation of the central renal pelvis
24
81
dilation of renal pelvis
pelvicaliectasis
82
dilation of the calicyes
caliectasis
83
dilation of the renal pelvis and calyces
pelvocaliectasis
84
Hydronephrosis is considered severe if greater than __ mm in dilatation
15
85
Oligohydramnios is indicative of:
renal failure or death
86
most common cause of congenital obstructive hydronephrosis
ureteropelvic junction obstruction
87
Ureteropelvic junction obstruction occurs at the junction of ____ and ____
renal pelvis
ureter
88
severe unilateral hydronephrosis without ureteral dilatation and a normal bladder; normal amniotic fluids
ureteropelvic junction obstruction
89
ureter measuring greater than 7 mm from 30 weeks onward; can be classified as primary or secondary
megaureter
90
lack of peristalsis in a focal portion of distal ureter; defect caused by fibrosis or stenotic ureteral valves
primary nonfunctioning megaureter
91
result of obstruction at another location
secondary megaureter
92
cystic dilation of distal ureter within bladder; most cases associated with duplicated collecting system and ectopic ureter insertion
ureterocele
93
two renal collecting system units with or without separate ureters
renal duplication
94
upper pole common obstructed because of an ectopic ureter insertion or uterocele; lower portion frequently has associated VUR that results in intermittent pelvicalyceal dilatation
duplex kidney
95
any condition that blocks urinary flow from the bladder; characterized by an enlarged bladder and bilateral hydronephrosis
lower urinary tract obstruction
96
enlarged bladder
megacystis
97
Two most common causes of lower urinary tract obstruction are
PUV and dilated posterior urethra in male
98
anhydramnios; largely distended bladder fills entire abdomen and pelvis; chest circumference extremely small
urethral atresia
99
normal amniotic fluid volume; vertebral and lower extremity abnormalities; bladder exstrophy
caudal regression
100
dilated bladder early in gestation before 16 weeks; debris within cloaca; intraluminal calcifications within bowel loops
persistent cloaca
101
rare autosomal recessive; predominantly female condition; typically lethal within first year of life; nonobstructed, thin walled, dilated bladder, normal to high amniotic fluid volume, dilated bowel loops
MMIHS
102
Retrograde filling, dilatation of bladder, ureters, renal pelvis, bladder wall proximal to area of obstruction may become trabeculated and appear thickened (more than 2 mm)
MMIHS
103
Most common cause left urinary obstruction tract
posterior urethral valves
104
occurs exclusively in males; obstructing membrane in posterior urethra caused by redundant membrane folds; lead to varying degrees of hydronephrosis, hydroureter, megacystis, dilated posterior urethra, thickened bladder wall
posterior urethral valve
105
landmark on floor of prostatic urethra near entrance of seminal vesicles
verumontanum
106
thick-walled dilated bladder, dilated prostatic urethra, proximal to point of obstruction, known as "keyhole sign"
posterior urethral valves
107
rare congenital cause of urinary tract dilatation, 4x more common in twin pregnancies, 97% male predominance
Prune Belly Syndrome
108
result of transient or permanent urethral obstruction, results in connective tissue and smooth muscle abnormalities of abdominal wall; characteristic laxaty of abdominal wall
Prune Belly Syndrome
109
lack or normal abdominal wall musculature and testicular descent
Prune belly syndrome
110
large thin-walled bladder, enlarged abdomen, bilateral hydroureter and hydronephrosis, renal dsyplasia, patent urachus, thorax small hypoplastic lungs
Prune belly Syndrome
111
rare form of left urinary tract obstruction; causes extreme dilatation of penile urethra because of dysgenesis or corpus cavernosum and spongiosum of penis
megalourethra
112
megacystis with or without hydroureter and hydronephrosis; cystic dilation of urethra
megalurethra
113
variant of megalourethra that is generally less severe, normal amniotic fluid volume, preserved renal function, mortality rate 13%
scaphoid variant
114
variant of megalourethra that results in oligohydramnios, higher incidence of renal failure, pulmonary hypoplasia, mortality rate of 66%
fusiform variant
115
Hereditary PKD
ARPKD
ADPKD
116
Nonhereditary PKD
MCDK
obstructive cystic dysplasia
simple renal cysts
117
also known as infantile polycystic kidney disease
autosomal recessive polycystic kidney disease
118
most common cystic disease in pregnancy
autosomal recessive polycystic kidney disease
119
Four subtypes of ARPKD based on timing of defect
perinatal
neonatal
infantile
juvenile
120
most common subtype of ARPKD
infantile
121
caused by gene mutation of short arm of chromosome 6
autosomal recessive polycystic kidney disease
122
bilaterally enlarged, homogenously echogenic kidneys; poor corticomedullary differentiation; keep reniform appearance; numerous acoustic interfaces of dilated tubules account for overall echogenic appearance; severe oligohydramnios; may not be evident before 24 weeks
ARPKD
123
most common inherited kidney disease
autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease
124
genes localized to short arm on chromosome 16 (85%) or genes localized to long arm chromosome 4
autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease
125
typically begins in adulthood; often asymptomatic for 30-40 years; numerous cysts interspersed in cortex and medulla of bilaterally enlarged kidneys, loss of reniform shape; amniotic fluids and bladder normal
ADPKD
126
Organs that may contain cysts in ADPKD
liver
pancreas
spleen
central nervous system
127
developmental renal disorder characterized by structural disorganization of renal tissues resulting in multiple noncommunicating cysts separated by dysplastic parenchyma; results from early ureteropelvic atresia and abnormal ureteric bud formation
multicystic dysplastic kidney disease
128
____ is the most common anomaly found in conjunction with multicystic displastic kidney disease
VUR
129
multiple large anechoic cysts, reniform shape absent, renal pelvis and proximal ureter are absent or atretic; compensatory hypertrophy in contralateral kidney
multicystic dysplastic kidney disease
130
most common cause of nonhereditary fetal renal cystic dysplasia and hyperechoic kidneys
obstructive cystic dysplasia
131
secondary to an early obstruction of fetal GU tract, progressive disease, can be unilateral, bilateral, or segmental
obstructive cystic dysplasia
132
urinary tract obstruction with significant oligohydramnios, moderately enlarged kidneys with small to medium capsular or peripheral parenchymal cysts, cortex typically echogenic, thinned, and irregular with loss of corticomedullary differentiation
obstructive cystic dysplasia
133
single nonseptated cyst with well defined borders and no communication with the renal pelvis and no communication with the renal pelvis
simple renal cyst
134
unilateral, well-defined, solid or partially cystic mass, large, involving at least half of the kidney, arise from kidney or renal fossa, increased blood flow, occur exclusively in third trimester
congenital mesoblastic nephroma
135
most common benign mesenchymal renal neoplasm
congenital mesoblastic nephroma
136
ovoid, triangular, or heart shaped structures in suprarenal region of fetus
adrenal glands
137
hypoechoic, central medulla, hypoechoic thick outer cortex
adrenal glands
138
most common malignant tumor in neonates; more than 90% develop in adrenal glands; hyperechoic, can range from cystic to solid, variable size
neuroblastomas
139
echogenic iliac crests separated from echogenic sacrum by hypoechoic sacroiliac joints
bony pelvis
140
Two major abnormalities in the female reproductive system
internal pelvic masses
sacrococcygeal teratomas
141
most common congenital neoplasm
sacrococcygeal teratoma
142
most common soft tissue tumor in children; occurs in GU tract and abdominal cavity; large echogenic soft tissue mass
Rhabdomyosarcoma
143
normal embryonic remnant; fibrous cord that connects urinary bladder to allantois
urachus
144
During the 5th month of fetal development the bladder descends into fetal pelvis pulling urachius with it, this results in formation of the ______
urachal canal
145
The urachus becomes the ______
median umbilical ligament
146
Most common urachal anomalies
urachal sinus and cyst
147
The least common urachal anomaly is:
fully patent urachus
148
severe congenital anomaly that results from failure of mesenchymal cells to migrate between ectoderm of abdomen and cloaca, causing eversion of bladder on abdominal surface
bladder exstrophy
149
wide ramus pubis, low-set umbilicus, dimunitive genitalia, exteriorization of bladder,
bladder exstrophy
150
soft tissue mass extending from lower anterior wall, with nonvisualization of the fetal bladder, mass inferior to umbilical cord insertion, normal kidneys and AFV
bladder exstrophy
151
complex condition that includes bladder exstrophy, common embryologic origin but presents with multiple additional anomalies
cloacal exstrophy
152
common sinus present in embryologic development, normally divides to form rectum, bladder, and genitalia
cloaca
153
result of anomalous development of cloacal membrane
cloacal exstrophy
154
transitory structure composed of endoderm and ectoderm which overlies embryonic cloaca
cloacal membrane
155
abdominal wall defect with unsuccessful close of GU tract
cloacal exstrophy
156
Most severe anomaly in spectrum, also referred to as OEIS complex
cloacal exstrophy
157
absent bladder, large midline intraumbilical anterior wall defect, omphalocele, lumbosacral anomalies, lower extremity defects, renal anomalies, ascites, widened iliac bones, narrow thorax, hydrocephalus, single umbilical artery
cloacal exstrophy
158
downward, or more obtuse angle of tubercle
female
159
upward, or acute angle of tubercle
male
160
abnormal development of corpus spongiosum, and cavernous urethra, incomplete fusion of ureogenital folds
hypospadias
161
urethral opening abnormally located on ventral surface of penis and may terminate near glans penis, any point along penile shaft, at anterior margin or scrotum, in the perineum
hypospadias
162
deep scrotal midline cleft caused by partial fusion of labrioscrotal folds
bifid scrotum
163
downward curvature of penis
penile chordee
164
caused by atresia of corpus spongiosum distal to hypospadic urethral opening
penile chordee
165
small, ventrally curved penis with penoscrotal transposition
tulip sign
166
complex process that involves tranabdominal descent at 10-15 weeks gestation, and transinguinal descent which occurs at 26-35 weeks gestationt
testicular descent
167
undescended testes, failure of testes to complete migratory descent into scrotum
cryptochordism
168
most common genial abnormality in children
cryptochordism
169
Men with cryptochordism are 10-40x more likely to develop ______
testicular cancer
170
accumulation of serous fluid beneath tunica vaginalis
hydrocele
171
Increasing scrotal volume is indicative of:
inguinoscrotal hernia
172
Inguinoscrotal hernias are primarility ___ sided
right
173
heterogenous mass with peristalsis within the scrotum
inguinoscrotal hernia
174
echogenic or calcified intrascrotal solid masses, do not show peristalsis
intrascrotal extension of meconium peritonitis
175
combination of hyperactive cremaster reflex and loose attachment of parietal layer of tunica vaginalis to outer scrotal tissues
antenatal testicular torsion
176
hypoechoic appearance and testicle measures large, "double-ring hemorrhage" sign
acute phase of antenatal testicular torsion
177
hemorrhagic fluid outside tunica vaginalis and between visceral and parietal layers
"double-ring" hemorrhage
178
testis becomes small, very echogenic, may calcify, with lack of blood supply
chronic phase of antenatal testicular torsion
179
develop in response to maternal hormonal stimulation, hypothyroidism, or diabetes, typically seen in third trimester, may be simple or complex
fetal ovarian cyst
180
most common intra-abdominal tumor in females
fetal ovarian cyst
181
Any cyst greater than __ cm more likely to be complicated by torsion, intracystic hemorrhage, or intestinal obstruction
5
182
Torsion occurs more frequently in the ____ ovary.
right
183
presence of a calcified mass within an ovarian mass
teratoma
autoamputation of torsed ovary
184
Complex ovarian cysts may take up to ___ months following birth to resolve
16
185
dilation of the vagina
hydrocolpus
186
cystic dilatation of vagina and uterus resulting from accumulation of fluid proximal to point of obstruction
hydrometrocolpos
187
congenital condition in which development of chromosomal, or anatomical sex is atypical
Disorder of sex development
188
CAH 46XX, most common, degree of virilization clitoromegaly to normal male penis with no palable undescended testes, fully developed uterus, fallopian tubes, upper vagina, joining a common urogenital sinus
congenital adrenal hypoplasia
189
The gender assignment for patients with congenital adrenal hyperplasia
female
190
46 XY, normal female phenotype, amennorhea presents at puberty, results from a point mutation in the androgen receptor gene
androgen insensitivity syndrome
191
female assignment
orchiectomy
192
male assignment
orchiopexy
193
Oligohydramnios is common with:
renal malformation
194
_______ includes renal agenesis, ADPKD, and ARPKD, and acquired obstructive and multicystic kidney disease
Cystic kidney disease
195
_______ is a nonspecific finding of obstruction somewhere within urinary system
fetal hydronephrosis
196
In the event of ______, the adrenal gland moves into the renal fossa.
renal agenesis
197
The internal structures of the fetal kidneys are not reliably assessed before __-__ weeks
14 16
198
______ includes renal agenesis, AKPKD, and ARPKD, and acquired obstructive and multicystic kidney disease
Potter sequence
199
______ is usually a secondary condition related to oligohydramnios found within renal anomalies
Pulmonary hypoplasia
200
______ may demonstrate a mass similar to the omphalocele; however, this mass is inferior to the bladder
Bladder exstrophy
201
_______ are a common finding in the male fetus.
Hydroceles
202
In the first trimester, fetal kidneys appear ____ to the surrounding anatomy.
isoechoic
203
When the second-trimester fetal renals are difficult to visualize, what method will assist in imaging them>
color and/or Power Dopper
204
The fetal bladder should be visualized by:
11-13 weeks
205
The fetal bladder fills and voids approximately once every:
60 minutes
206
Bladder wall thickness cannot be visualized clearly without:
ascites
207
Oligohydramnios is defined as an amniotic fluid volume of less than __cc, as indicated by a maximum vertical pocket of less than 2 cm or an AFI of less than __cm on ultrasound.
500, 5
208
_____ is a condition that a fetus has pulmonary hypoplasia secondary to oligohydramnios, typically owing to renal failue
Potter syndrome
209
In the case of unilateral agenesis, the existing kidney is invariably larger than in a fetus with two kidneys owing to:
compensatory hypertrophy
210
Renal ectopia is a condtion:
a. that is incompatible with life
b. where the bilateral kidneys are cystic
c. of aplastic kidneys
d. where a kidney is positioned outside of the renal fossa
d
211
Horseshoe kidney has the highest prevalence in fetuses with :
Turner Syndrome
212
Severe fetal hydronephrosis is an ADPRD over:
15 mm
213
The prognosis is poor for a fetus with all except:
a. bilateral hydronephrosis
b. pulmonary hypoplasia
c. isoechoic renal echogenicity
d. bladder obstruction
c
214
In a 30 week fetus, megaureter is diagnosed when the ureter measures greater than:
7mm
215
A uterocele is most commonly associated with:
a duplicated collecting system
216
Predominantly female renal and/or bladder anomalies include:
a. crossed renal ectopia
b. obstructive uropathy
c. polycystic kidneys
d. Prune belly syndrome
c
217
Causes of UPJ include all except:
a. utereral kinks
b. peripelvic adhesions
c. aberrant crossing renal vessels
d. bladder dilation
d
218
Mesoblastic nephromas are mostly:
a. related to oligohydramnios
b. related to polyhydramnios
c. related to a poor prognosis
d. small
b
219
The fetal adrenals are best imaged in the:
third trimester
220
Labels related to disorders of sex development include all except:
a. sex chromosome genotype
b. pseudo-hermaphroditism
c. ambiguous genitalia
d. intersex
b
221
Choose the type of kidney that causes hypertension:
a. echogenic
b. enlarged
c. pelvic
d. horseshoe
c
222
The most common fetal malformation involves the _____ system.
genitourinary
223
In a transverse plane, fetal kidneys are _____ shape.
ovoid
224
The _____ arteries will assist in locating the fetal bladder.
umbilical
225
The amount of amniotic fluid observed has a direct correlation to the ______ of the fetus.
renal function
226
The presence of ______ after 16 weeks gestation raises suspicion for a malfunctioning GU system.
oligohydramnios
227
Renal _____ is the congenital absence of one or both kidneys.
agenesis
228
______ renal ectopia is a kidney located on the opposite side from which its ureter inesrts into the bladder
crossed
229
A pelvic kidney is located _____ to the renal fossa and _____ to the bladder.
inferior
superior
230
Pelvic dilation in the third trimester means the renal pelvis is dilated over ____
7 mm
231
____ is the permanent or intermittent retrograde flow of urine from the bladder into the upper urinary tract.
VUR
232
Autosomal recessive polycystic kidney disease affects both kidneys and is also known as ______ polycystic kidney disease.
infantile
233
A single, nonseptated cyst with well-defined borders and no communication between the renal pelvis descibes a ____ renal cyst.
simple
234
The most basic conventional grading system for hydronephrosis characterizes the kidneys as ____, _____, or ____.
mild
moderate
severe
235
Bladder exstrophy demonstrates as a soft tissue mass extending from the _____ wall, with nonvisualization of the normal fetal bladder
lower anterior
236
______ kidneys are the most common renal fusion anomaly
horseshoe
237
A posterior urethral valve is an obstructing _____ in the posterior urethra caused by redundant membranous folds
membrane
238
The most common cause of congenital obstructive hydronephrosis is ____ obstruction.
UPJ
239
_____ is the failure of the testes to complete the migratory descent into the scrotum
Cryptochordism
240
Megacystitis
enlarged bladder
241
Pelviecatasis is dilation of the _____ and _____
pelvis
calyces
242
243
Which of the following is associated with sirenomelia?
A. ADPKD
B. Bilateral renal agenesis
C. Infantile polycystic kidney disease
D. MCDK
B
244
Wha tis the common cause of a bladder outlet obstruciton in the male fetus?
Posterior urethral valves
245
The most common malignant adrenal pediatric tumor is the:
Neuroblastoma
246
The "lying-down" adrenal sign would be seen in all of the following situations except;
A. Unilateral renal agenesis
B. Bilateral renal agenesis
C. Potter syndrome
D. Pyelactasis
D
247
What is the most common cause of hydronephrosis in the neonate and the most common form of fetal renal obstruction?
UPJ obstruction
248
Which of the following would result in compsentory hypertrophy?
A. Unilateral renal agenesis
B. Bilateral renal agenesis
C. Pelvic kidney
D. Horseshoe kidney
A
249
Which of the following describes hypospadias?
A. OEIS complex with presence of hydrocele
B. Chronic obstruction of renal pelvis and calicyes
C. Underdevelopment of the scrotum in the presence of a hydrocele
D. An abnormal ventral curvature of the penis
D
250
Fluid surrounding the testicle is referred to as:
Hydrocele
251
Fusion of the lower poles of the kidney describes:
Horseshoe kidneys
252
Obstruction at the level of the UPJ would lead to dilation of the:
Renal pelvis and calicyes
253
The most common location of an ectopic kidney is within the:
Pelvis
254
Prune belly syndrome is caused by:
Enlarged bladder
255
Cryptorchidism describes
Undescended testicles
256
What is the most common renal tumor?
Mesoblastic nephroma
257
An obstruction of the UVJ would lead to dilation of the:
Ureter and renal collecting system
258
Before 9 weeks the fetal kidneys are located within the:
Pelvis
259
Which of the following is the most common renal anomaly?
A. Horseshoe kidney
B. Pelvic kidney
C. Renal agenesis
D. Duplicate collecting system
D
260
Failure of the kidneys to form is called:
Renal agenesis
261
Whic of the following would be the most likely cause of bilateral, enlarged echogenic fetal kidneys and oligohydramnios?
A. ARPKD
B. MCDK
C. Renal cystic dysplasia
D. ADPKD
D
