Prezzi Powerpoints Flashcards
1
Q
The fetal heart begins to beat at __-__ days of gestation
A
36
37
2
Q
A heart rate using M-mode should be sonographically obtainable with endovaginal imaging when crown rump length measures __-__ mm
A
4
5
3
Q
In the third trimester, an average fetal heart rate is ___ bpm, with a range of 110 to 180 bpm considered normal after first trimester.
A
150
4
Q
An elevation in the fetal heart rate is term _____
A
tachycardia
5
Q
A decreased in the fetal heart rate is term _____
A
bradycardia
6
Q
The heart, which is fully formed at __ weeks, is imaged most often in a cross-sectional or axial view of the fetal chest just above the fetal stomach. This transducer placement will yield the standard _______ view. The apex of the heart will be angled to the ____ of the midline, with the base, _____ to the spine.
A
10
four chamber
left
closest
7
Q
The normal fetal heart will fill approximately _____ of the fetal chest, with its apex forming a ___ degree angle with the fetal spine.
A
1/3
45
8
Q
The chamber closest to the fetal spine is the:
A
left atrium
9
Q
The ______ is within the right ventricle. Normal structure that appears as an echogenic focus.
A
moderator band
10
Q
The ____ valve is between the right ventricle and the right atrium.
A
tricuspid
11
Q
The ____ valve is between the left ventricle and the left atrium.
A
mitral
12
Q
The four chamber view can be used to evaluate, the separation of the chambers, structures called _____
A
septums
13
Q
The two atria are separated by the _____ septum.
A
atrial
14
Q
The two ventricles are separated by the _____ septum.
A
ventricular
15
Q
The ventricular septum should be uninterrupted and of equal thickness to the:
A
left ventricular wall
16
Q
The atrial septum is open only at the _____
A
foramen ovale
17
Q
Three vessel view
A
main pulmonary artery
ascending aorta
superior vena cava
18
Q
The ______ outflow tract leads to the pulmonary artery and branches.
A
right ventricular
19
Q
The ______ outflow tract leads to the aorta.
A
left ventricular
20
Q
The normal pulmonary artery should be positioned ____ to the aorta and should be visualized crossing over it. That means, the aorta and pulmonary artery normally criss cross each other.
A
anterior
21
Q
The normal umbilical cord contains:
A
two arteries and one vein
22
Q
The _______ brings oxygen-rich blood from the placenta to the fetus
A
umbilical vein
23
Q
The _____ travels superiorly and connects to the left portal vein
A
umbilical vein
24
Q
Half of the blood goes to the liver through the _____, whereas the other half is shunted directly into the inferior vena cava via a small branch of the umbilical vein called the _____
A
left portal vein
ductus venosus
25
The existing oxygen -rich blood in the IVC travels to the heart and enters the:
right atrium
26
Blood can then travel across the ______, an opening in the lower middle third of the atrial septum and into the ______, or it can eneter the right ventricle through the _____.
foramen ovale
right atrium
tricuspid valve
27
The blood then leaves the right ventricle through the _____.
main pulmonary artery
28
Blood from the right ventricle can also flow through the _____ and into the descending aorta.
ductus arteriosus
29
The blood returning from the lungs through the pulmonary veins enters into the _____.
left atrium
30
Blood then travels from the left atrium into the left ventricle via the ______
mitral valve
31
From the left ventricle, it travels to the ascending aorta and into the aortic arch, where it exits into the ______, _____, and ______ on its way to the thorax, upper extremities, and head.
brachiocephalic artery
left common carotid artery
left subclavian artery
32
The blood will return from the head and upper torso via the _____ to the right atrium.
superior vena cava
33
The ______ return the deoxygenated blood from the fetus back to the placenta.
umbilical arteries
34
The ______ diverts blood from right to left atrium, bypassing the pulmonary circulation. It closes to become the _____
foramen ovale
fossa ovalis
35
The ______diverts blood from pulmonary artery to aorta, bypassing pulmonary circulation
ductus arteriosus
36
The ductus arteriosus diverts __% of umbilical vein blood away from the liver.
80
37
a group of anomalies characterized sonographically as a small or absent left ventricle
hypoplastic left heart syndrome
38
the leading cause of cardiac death in the neonatal period, with 95% dying within the first month of life if surgery is not performed
hypoplastic left heart syndrome
39
When HLHS is found in girls ______ must be suspected. There is also a connection with _____
Turner syndrome
trisomy 18
40
sonographic findings of HLHS
absent or small left ventricle
no communication between left atrium and left ventricle
aortic atresia
aortic stenosis
coarctation of the aorta
41
sonographically identified as a small or an absent right ventricle; most often results from pulmonary stenosis or pulmonary atresia, but it may result from stenosis or atresia of the tricuspid valve
hypoplastic right heart syndrome
42
sonographic findings of hypoplastic right heart syndrome
absent of small right ventricle
enlarged left ventricle
fetal hydrops (secondary to cardiac failure)
narrowing of the pulmonary valveab
43
abnormal opening in the septum between the two atria of the heart
atrial septal defect
44
sonographic findings of atrial septal defect
absence of part of the atrial septum
45
combination of both ASD and AVD
atrioventricular septal defect
46
results from the abnormal development of the central portion of the heart
atrioventricular septal defect
47
endocardial cushion defect
atrioventricular septal defect
48
AVSD is commonly associated with ____, ______, and _____
aneuploidy
trisomy 21
trisomy 18
49
sonographic findings of AVSD
absence of the atrial and ventricular septum
50
malformation of malpositioning of the tricuspid valve
Ebstein anomaly
51
In ebstein anomaly. the right ventricle is contiguous with the right atrium, a finding referred to as _____
"atrialized" right ventricle
52
Sonographic findings of Ebstein anomaly
malpositioned tricuspid valve
right and left atrial shunting
tricuspid regurgitation
enlarged right atrium
deviation of the atrial septum to the left
fetal hydrops (secondary to cardiac failure)
53
abnormal opening in the septum between the two ventricles of the heart
ventricular septal defect
54
sonographic findings of ventricular septal defect
absence of part of the ventricular septum
55
Most common form of cardiac defect
ventricular septal defect
56
fluid located around the heart
pericardial effusion
57
anechoic fluid surrounding the heart
pericardial effusion
58
narrowing of the aortic arch
coarctation of the aorta
59
The most common location of coarctation of the aorta is:
between the left subclavian artery and the ductus arteriosus
60
Sonographic findings of coarctation of the aorta
narrowing of the aortic arch
right ventricular enlargement
pulmonary artery enlargement
61
outflow tracts reversed; the pulmonary artery arises from the left ventricle and the aorta arises from the right ventricle
transposition of the great vessels
62
Most often seen within the left ventricle; thought to represent the calcification of the papillary muscle or chordae tendinae
echogenic intracardiac focus
63
sonographic findings of echogenic intracardiac focus
echogenic structure most commonly located in the left ventricle
64
most common fetal cardiac tumor
rhabdomyoma
65
Tumor located within the myocardium of the heart
rhabdomyoma
66
Rhabdomyoma is associated with ______
tuberous sclerosis
67
heart is located either partially or completely outside of the chest
ectopic cords
68
g group of anomalies that combine ectopic cordis and an existing omphalocele
Pentalogy of Cantrell
69
defined as an overriding aortic root, subaortic VSD, pulmonary stenosis, and right ventricular hypertrophy
Tetralogy of Fallot
70
sonographic findings of Tetralogy of Fallot
overriding aortic root, VSD, pulmonary atresia, right ventricular hypertrophy
71
Functional fetal lung tissue does not typically exist until after ___ weeks
25
72
The normal L/S ratio is ___=___ and is significant for appropriate fetal lung development
2.0
2.5
73
An L/S ratio of less than ____ is significant for immature fetal lung development
2.0
74
L/S ratio is:
lecitihin to sphingomyelin ratio
75
As the lungs mature the level of lecithin _____ whereas the level of sphingomyelin _____
increases
decreases
76
Begins at 4-5 weeks of gestation, where two tiny buds branch off to form either side of the lungs
embryonic phase
77
Begins at 5-17 weeks of gestation when a barrier develops between the air and gas-carrying tissues
canalicular phase
78
Begins at the 26th week of gestation when the surfactant starts to develop, keeping the delicate lung tissues from sticking
Saccular phase
79
Final stage continues even after delivery, where the additional production of surfactant states, and bronchioles and air sacs (alveoli) grow
alveolar phase
80
5 phases of lung development
embryonic
pseudoglandular
canalicular
saccular
alveolar
81
underdevelopment of the lungs
pulmonary hypoplasia
82
caused by a decreased number of lung cells, airways, and alveoli
pulmonary hypoplasia
83
Pulmonary hypoplasia is a common finding with _____
oligiohydramnios
84
The most common lesion that occupies the chest, resulting in pulmonary hypoplasia is:
diaphramatic hernia
85
Pulmonary hypoplasia is associated with:
Potter syndrome
86
fluid surrounding the lungs
pleural effusion
87
also known as hydrothorax
pleural effusion
88
anechoic fluid surrounding the fetal lungs
pleural effusion
89
also referred to as congenital cystic adenomatoid malformation (CCAM)
cystic adenomatoid malformation
90
mass consisting of abnormal bronchial and lung tissue
CCAM
91
mass that has both cystic and solid components, however it can also appear completely echogenic
CCAM
92
lung mass with varying degrees of cystic and solid components, completely echogenic mass within the lungs
sonographic appears of CCAM
93
also referred to as bronchopulmonary sequestration
pulmonary sequestration
94
separate mass of nonfunctioning lung tissue with its own blood supply to
pulmonary sequestration
95
echogenic, triangular-shaped mass, typically located with the left side of the fetal chest
pulmonary sequestration
96
sonographic findings of pulmonary sequestration
echogenic triangular shaped mass in the fetal chest; pleural effusion may be present
97
most common reason for fetal cardiac malpostion
diaphragmatic hernia
98
results in abnormal opening in the fetal diaphragm that allows the herniation of abdominal contents into the chest cavity
diaphragmatic hernia
99
Most common location of diaphragmatic hernia
left side of chest
100
Left sided diaphragmatic hernia located on the left side is called:
Bockdalek hernia
101
Sonographic findings of diaphragmatic hernia
malposition of the heart
anechoic stomach bubble noted adjacent to the fetal heart in the four chamber view
other abdominal organs including the liver, pancreas, and spleen may be located within the chest
102
The fetal thymus is located anterior to the:
mediastinum
103
The thymus is apart of the immune system because it provides a place for the maturation of _____, which are specialized white blood cells
T cell
104
hypoechoic structure located in the anterior chest at the level of the sternum between the lungs
thymus
105
genetic disorder characterized by an absent or a hypoplastic thymus, which ultimately leads to impairment of the immune system and susceptibility to infection, as well as cognitive disorders, congenital heart defects, palate defects, and hormonal abnormalities
DiGeorge syndrome
106
The spine consists of five sections:
cervical
thoracic
lumbar
sacrum
coccyx
107
Each fetal vertebra consists of three echogenic ossification centers:
one centrum and two neural processes
108
The axial skeleton begins to form between the __ and ___ weeks.
6
8
109
The axial skeleton consists of the:
cranium
spine
110
hypoechoic line at structure that extends from the base of the cranium to the distal spine
spinal cord
111
_____ and ____ are the most common neural defects, occurring in 1 of every 1000 births
anencephaly
spina bifida
112
____ spina bifida is not associated with elevated MSAFP because of the skin covering
closed
113
It has been reported that __% of spina bifida cases can be detected with AFP screening in combination with sonography.
80
114
Distortion of the spine can be seen with:
hemivertebrae
myelomeningoceles
amniotic band syndrome
limb-body wall complex
115
a deformity of the spine in which there is an abnormal lateral curvature
scolisiosis
116
abnormal posterior curvatures of the spine
kyphosis
117
when the lower back, above the buttocks, curves inward too much; also konwn as swayback
lordosis
118
When the upper spine curves too far outward, forming a hump on the upper back
lordosis
119
deformity of the spine in which there is an abnormal lateral curvature of the spine
scoliosis
120
abnormal posterior curvature of the spine
kyphosis
121
also referred to as body stalk anomaly or short umbilical cord syndrome
limb body wall complex
122
Three postulated causes for limb body wall complex
vascular occlusion
amnion rupture
embryonic dysgenesis
123
most common sonographic findings of limb body wall complex
short or absent umbilical cord
ventral wall defects
limb defects
craniofacial defects
scoliosis
fetus will appear closely connected with the placenta
124
Because of the opening in the ventral wall, ____ levels of MSAFP can be detected in the second trimester in limb body wall complex
elevated
125
________ has very similar sonographic findings to limb body wall complex and may actually be seen simultaneously
Amniotic band syndrome
126
A common sonographic findings of LBWC is:
short or absent umbilical cord
127
denotes the abnormal development of a structure
dysplasia
128
More than ___ skeletal dysplasias have been identified
271
129
Four most common skeletal dysplasia
achondroplasia
achondrogenesis
osteogenesis imperfecta
thanatoprhoic dysplasia
130
most common nonlethal skeletal dysplasia
achondroplasia
131
a type of dwarfism in which the proximal portions of the limbs, the humerus and femurs, are much shorter than the distal portion of the limbs
heterozygous achondroplasia
132
proximal portions of the limbs are much shorter than the distal portions of the limbs
rhizomelia
133
sonographic findings of heterozygous achondroplasia
micromelia
macrocrania
frontal bossing
flattened nasal bridge
trident hand
134
can occur when both parents are dwarfs, it is usually fatal within the first two years of life
homozygous achondroplasia
135
rare lethal condition, resulting in absent mineralization of the skeletal bones
achondrogenesis
136
severely shortened limbs
micromelia
137
sonographic findings of achondrogenesis
micromelia
absent mineralization of the skull, spine, pelvis, and limbs
large skull
narrow chest and distended abdomen
polyhydramnios
138
commonly known as brittle bone disease
osteogenesis imperfecta
139
group of disorders that results in multiple fractures that can occur in utero
osteogenesis imperfecta
140
The fractures in osteogenesis imperfecta are a result of decreased _____ and poor ______
mineralization
ossification
141
Osteogenesis imperfecta ___ is the most severe form
II
142
when transducer pressure is applied to skull, the shape of the "soft" skull can be distorted
osteogenesis imperfecta
143
"death-bearing" dysplasia
thanatophoric dysplasia
144
most common lethal dysplasia
thanatophoric dysplasia
145
fetus will have a cloverleaf skull with frontal bossing and hydrocephalus
thanatophoric dysplasia
146
cloverleaf skull
hydrocephalus
depressed nasal bridge
bell-shaped crest (narrow thorax)
polyhydramnios
redundant soft tissue
telephone-receiver long shaped bones
sonographic findings of thanatorphic dysplasia
147
Most common location of spina bifida
lumbosacral region
148
neural tube defect that occurs when the embryonic neural tube fails to close
spina bifida
149
Two groups of spina bifida
spina bifida occulta (closed)
spina bifida aperta (open)
150
may be referred to as spinal dysraphism, meningocele, myelomeningocele
spina bifida
151
open spina bifida
spina bifida aperta
152
Most common form of spina bifida
spina bifida aperta
153
The mass only contain spinal cord (meninges only)
meningocele
154
spina bifida cystica
meningomyeloceles
155
mass that contains meninges and nerve roots
spina bifida cystica
156
closed spina bifida
spina bifida occulta
157
No herniation of spinal contents outside spinal column
spina bifida occulta
158
In the postnatal period, ______ is suspected when a sacral dimple, hemangioma, lipoma, or tuft of hair is identified in midline of newborn, directly over distal spine.
spina bifida occulta
159
Spina bifida is associated with two yellow fruits
banana
lemon
160
Spina bifida is often recognized by its associated cranial findings, a group of abnormalities called the ______ malformation.
Arnold-Chiari II
161
The pressure of a large mass in the distal spine pulling on the spinal cord causes malformations of the _____ and ______ contents.
cranium
intracranial
162
When the frontal bones becomes flattened (bifrontal concavity) and yield a lemon shaped cranium
"lemon sign"
163
scalloping of the frontal bones
"lemon sign"
164
The cerebellum will become displaced inferiorly and posteriorly and appear curved in appearance of spina bifida. This is referred to as the ____
"banana sign"
165
syndrome associated with the absence of the sacrum and coccyx
caudal regression syndrome
166
also referred to as sacral agenesis
caudal regression syndrome
167
What has a strong associated with caudal regression syndrome?
uncontrolled maternal pregestational diabetes
168
absent sacrum and possibly part of lumbar vertebra
possible abnormalities in the lower extremities
caudal regression syndrome
169
a fetal anomaly characterized by fusion of the lower extremities, renal agenesis, and oligiohydramnios
sirenomelia
170
may also be referred to as mermaid syndrome
sirenomelia
171
Sirenomelia is almost always lethal because of ______
bilateral renal agenesis
172
Defects that may be seen with sirenomelia
cardiac anomalies
genital absence
two vessel cord
173
Sacrococcygeal is a______ tumor
germ cell
174
germ cell layers
endoderm
mesoderm
ectoderm
175
most common congenital neoplasm
sacrococcygeal teratoma
176
Sacrococcygeal tumors are more frequently found in:
females
177
Tumor that has the potential to grow inside of the pelvis and may cause obstruction of the urinary tract and destruction of the sacrum and pelvic bones
Sacrococcygeal teratoma
178
_____ SCTs have a malignant potential
large
179
complex mass extending from distal fetal spine; can be highly vascular; hydronephrosis may be present; fetal hydrops may be present; cardiomegaly
Sacrococcygeal teratoma
180
includes bones of upper extremities, lower extremities, and pelvic girdle
appendicular skeleton
181
First sonographic appearances of fetal limbs are referred to as:
limb buds
182
The appendicular skeleton begins to form between the __ and __ menstrual week.
6
8
183
Upper extremities of the appendicular skeleton
phalanges (fingers)
metacarpals
carpals
radius
ulna
humerus
clavicle
scapula
184
Lower extremities of the appendicular skeleton
phalanges (toes)
metatarsals
tarsals
tibia
fibula
femur
185
Measurements of long bones, especially the _____, are included in the OB sonogram
femur
186
Sonographic determination of shortening of a limb is made when the long bones measure :
more than four standard deviations below the norm for gestational age
187
absent hand
achieria
188
shortening of distal segment of limb
acromelia
189
absent limb
ameliai
190
absent foot
apodia
191
limitation of fetal motion
arthrogyroposis
192
deviation of a finger
clinodactyl
193
malformation of the bones of the foot in which the foot is most often rotated medially, and the metatarsals and toes lie in the same plane as the tibia and fibula
clubfoot
194
absent part of an extremity distal to the elbow or knee
hemimelia
195
shortening of the middle segment of a limb
mesomelia
196
shortening of an entire limb
micromelia
197
having less than the normal number of digits
oligodactyl
198
absent long bones with the hands and feet arising from the shoulders and hips
phocomelia
199
having more than the normal number of digits
polydactyl
200
shortening of the proximal segment of the limb
rhizomelia
201
abnormal curved shape of the sole of the feet
rocker bottom feet
202
exaggerated distance between the first toe and the second toe
sandal gap
203
fusion of the digits
syndactyl
204
fusion of the legs
sirenomelia (mermaid syndrome)
205
clubhand
talipomanus
206
increases space between the third finger and the fourth finger
trident hand
207
the absence of underdevelopment of the radius
radial ray defect
208
absent or hypoplastic radius, various defects in other systems
radial ray defect
209
also referred to as talipes or talipes equinovarus
clubfoot
210
malformation of the bones of the foot
clubfoot
211
In clubfoot, the foot is most often _____ and rotated _____
inverted
medially
212
Sonographic diagnosis can be made for clubfoot when the metatarsals and toes lie in the same plane as the ______ and _____
tibia and fibula
213
Limb reduction can be caused by ______ syndrome.
amniotic band
214
The sticky bands in amniotic band syndrome result from:
the rupture of the amnion
215
amputation of fetal parts or severe edema in the affected area, thin linear bands may be seen, facial clefting
amniotic band syndrome
216
Whenever any form of ______ is suspected, a thorough facial evaluation should be performed to assess for the associated facial abnormalities that often accompany this unfortunate brain malformation
holoprosencephaly
217
a decrease in the size of the eye
microphalthmia
218
fusion of the orbits
cyclopia
219
absence of the eyes
anopthalmia
220
close-set eyes (hypotelorism) and a nose with a single nostril
cebocephaly
221
obtained from lateral canthus or orbit to medial canthus of same orbit
ocular diameter
222
length between the orbits
interocular diameter
223
includes both orbits; distance between lateral canthi of each eye
binocular diameter
224
The corners of the eyes are referred to as _____ and _____
medial canthus
lateral canthus
225
abnormal division in the lip
cleft lip
226
abnormal development of the soft and/or hard palate of the mouth where there is a division in the palate
cleft palate
227
displaces orbits laterally, most common cause of hypertelorism
anterior cephalocele
228
Most common cause of hypotelorism
holoprosencephaly
229
increased distance between orbits
hypertelorism
230
a condition in which there is no nose and a proboscis separating two close-set orbits; associated with holoprosencephaly
ethmocephaly
231
Anomalies of the ears, including low-set ears, have been noted with trisomies:
13
18
21
232
small ears; have a strong like with Down syndrome
microtia
233
There is a notable like between the absence of the fetal nasal bone and _____
Down syndrome
234
failure of ear to develop
anotia
235
unusual protuberance of the tongue
macroglossa
236
Macroglossia is most commonly associated with ______ and _____
Beckwith-Weidemann syndrome
Down syndrome
237
The maxilla tends to shorter in fetuses with:
trisomy 21
238
an oral teratoma
epignathus
239
The fetal lip typically closes between __-__ weeks
7
8
240
The palate typically closes by __ weeks
12
241
abnormal closure or incomplete closure of lip and palate
cleft lip and cleft palate
242
Cleft lip/palate is associated with:
holoprosencephaly
trisomy 13
amniotic band syndrome
243
small mandible and recessed brain; associated with trisomy 13 and 18
micrognathia
244
associated with Turner syndrome, fetal hydrops, aneuploidy, trisomy 21, 13, 18
Cystic hygromas
245
also referred to as a lymphangioma
cystic hygroma
246
results in abnormal accumulation of lymphatic fluid within the soft tissue
cystic hygromas
247
Most common location of cystic hygroma
neck
248
can be the cause of overtreatment of maternal Graves disease, iodine deficiency, or hypothyroidism
fetal goiter
249
Nuchal fold measurement of __mm or larger is considered abnormal.
6
250
Nuchal thickening, edema, or redundant skin in back of neck are common findings during second trimester in fetuses with ______.
Down Sydrome
251
By ____ weeks, the neural plate has developed.
4.5
252
Initially, the brain is divided into three primary vesicles:
prosencephalon
mesencephalon
rhombencephalon
253
forebrain
prosencephalon
254
midbrain
mesenecephalon
255
hindbrain
rhombencephalon
256
The _____ will become the fourth ventricle as well as the medulla oblongata and cerebellum.
rhombencephalon
257
The prosencephalon matures into two other vesicles, the _______ and ______.
telencephalon
diencephalon
258
The ______ forms the cerebral hemispheres, lateral ventricles, and third ventricle.
telencephalon
259
The ______ will become the thalamus and hypothalamus.
diencephalon
260
The ______ will become the midbrain, including superior parts of the brainstem.
mesencephalon
261
The ______ may be seen as a cystic structure within the fetal head at 7-8 week.
rhombencephalon
262
The brain is divided into two main parts, the _____ and the _____.
cerebrum
cerebellum
263
The cerebrum is divided into left and right hemispheres by the ________.
interhemispheric fissure
264
The ______ is located within the interhemispheric fissure.
falx cerebri
265
The cerebral hemispheres are linked in the midline by the ______
corpus callosum
266
The corpus callosum forms late in gestation but should be completely in tact between __ and __ weeks
18
20
267
The absence of all or part of the corpus callosum is referred to as:
agenesis of the corpus callosum
268
The _______ is a midline structure located in the anterior portion of the brain.
cavum septum pellucidum
269
The ______ is a vital brain structure that has numerous functions and is a significant landmark
thalamus
270
The ______ is a landmark for the BPD.
thalamus
271
The skull consists of eight cranial bones known as _____
sutures
272
Premature fusion of the sutures is termed _____
craniosynostosis
273
The ventricular system is composed of ____ ventricles.
4
274
Within the lateral ventricles, is the ______
choroid plexus
275
The _______, which is mostly located within the atria of the lateral ventricles, is responsible for producing CSF.
choroid plexus
276
The third ventricle connects to the fourth ventricle inferiorly by means of a long tubelike structure called the ______
aqueduct of sylvius or the cerebral aqueduct
277
The cerebellum is located in the ______
posterior fossa
278
The cerebellum consists of two hemispheres that are coupled in the midline by the ________
cerebellar vermis
279
The normal _______ is dumbbell shaped in the posterior cranium of the fetus.
cerebellum
280
________, located in the posterior fossa of the cranium, is the largest cistern in the head.
cisternal magna
281
anechoic area posterior to the cerebellum between the cerebellar vermis
cisternal magna
282
Head circumference is taken at the same time as the _____.
BPD
283
_______ measurement is measured in the transaxial plane at the level of the atrium.
Lateral ventricle
284
The normal lateral ventricle does not typically does not measure more than ___ mm at the level of the atrium.
10
285
The cerebellum grows at a rate of __ mm per week between 14-21 weeks and thus correlates with gestational age
1
286
____ is obtained at the same level as the BPD and HC.
OFD
287
For the ____, one caliper is placed in the anterior midline in the middle of the frontal bone, whereas the other is placed in the middle of the echogenic line of the occipital bone.
OFD
288
Cisterna magna measurement should not measure more than ___ mm or less than __mm in the transcerebellar plane.
10
2
289
BFD/OFD x 100
cephalic index
290
small head
microcephaly
291
associated with:
TORCH infections
Trisomy 13 and 18
Meckel-Gruber Syndrome
Fetal Alcohol Syndrome
microcephaly
292
enlarged head circumference
macrocephaly
293
associated with:
hydrocephalus
hydranencephaly
intracranial tumors
familial inheritance
Beckwidth-Wiedemann syndrome
macrocephaly
294
round skull shape
brachycephaly
295
associated with:
craniosynostosis
trisomy 18 and 21
brachycephaly
296
cephalic index more than 85
brachycephaly
297
an elongated narrow head shape
dolichocephaly
298
may also be referred to as scaphocephaly
dolichocephaly
299
associated with:
craniosynostosis
dolichocephaly
300
cephalic index less than 75
dolichocephaly
301
The _______ cells are the cells that produce the pregnancy hormone HCG
trophoblastic
302
The gestational sac is also referred to as the _____
chorionic sac
303
The sperm unites with the egg in the distal one third of the fallopian tube, usually the _____
ampulla
304
The ________ regresses during week 4 and the chorionic sac is formed.
primary yolk sac
305
A mature ovum is released through ovulation at around day ___ of the menstrual cycle because the graafian follicle ruptures and liberates the ovum into the peritoneal cavity
14
306
On day __ or __ of the menstrual cycle, the blastocyst begins to implant into the decidualized endometrium at the level of the fundus.
20
21
307
By ___ days, complete implantation has occurred.
28
308
Conception usually takes place within ___ hours after ovulation
24
309
_______ age or ______ age is used by obstetricians to date a pregnancy
menstrual
gestational
310
The ______ is visible during the latter half of the first trimester as a tortuous structure connecting the fetus to the developing placenta.
umbilical cord
311
The developing _____ may be noted at the end of the first trimester as a well-defined, crescent shaped mass of tissue along the margins of the gestational sac.
placenta
312
The placenta is formed by the _______, the maternal contribution and the ________ the fetal contribution
decidua basalis
chorion frondosum
313
a functional cyst that is maintained during the first trimester by HcG, which is produced by the developing placenta
Corpus Luteum
314
Most common pelvic mass associated with pregnancy
corpus luteum cyst
315
also referred to as extrauterine pregnancy
ectopic pregnancy
316
Most common location of ectopic pregnancy
ampullary portion of the fallopian tube
317
______ is used to treat ectopic pregnancies.
methotrexate
318
classic clinical triad of ectopic pregnancy
pain
vaginal bleeding
palpable abdominal/pelvic mass
319
coexisting EUP and IUP
heterotopic pregnancy
320
Optimal measurement timing of NT
between 11 weeks and 13 weeks 6 days
321
An NT measurement greater than __ mm is considered abnormal between 11 and 13 weeks 6 days.
3
322
Most common abnormalities associated with abnormal NT
trisomy 18 and 21
Turner syndrome
323
In the first trimester, HCG maintains the ______ so that it can continue to produce progesterone
corpus luteum cyst
324
HCG can be detected in maternal blood as early as ___ days menstrual age.
23
325
The laboratory test to detect pregnancy is ____
HCG
326
A ________, the earliest definitive sign of an IUP, should generally be visualized between ____ and ____ mIU per ML with transvaginal sonography.
gestational sac
1000
2000
327
Normal HcG levels ____ every 48 hours in the first trimester.
double
328
The period given to describe the earliest sonographic detection of an IUP
discriminatory zone
329
By adding 30 to the MSD, sonographers can obtain as estimate for:
gestational age in days
330
Limb buds are identified between __-__ weeks
7
8
331
__-__ weeks physiologic bowel herniation may be visualized.
9
12
332
Physiologic bowel herniation should resolve by __ weeks
12
333
The yolk sac is located within the ______
chorionic cavity
334
At 5.5 weeks the _______ is the first structure seen in the gestational sac.
secondary yolk sac
335
The yolk sac is connected to the embryo by the ______
vitelline duct
336
The most accurate sonographic measurement of pregnancy is the ____
CRL
337
Decidual reactions occurs between weeks __ and __
3
4
338
During decidual reaction, the endometrium appears:
thickened and echogenic
339
First definitive sign of an IUP is identification of the gestational sac in the _______
decidualized endomtrium
340
If physiologic bowel herniation is not resolved by ___ weeks, a follow up is warranted.
12
341
Measurement of the _______ is the earliest sonographic measurement that can be obtained
gestational sac
342
By 6 weeks, the embryo can be seen located within the _____ adjacent to the yolk sac with transvaginal sonography
amniotic cavity
343
The heart rate of the embryo at 6 weeks is:
between 100-110 bpm
344
Mean sac diameter equation
L x W x H /3
345
The first trimester is defined as weeks __ - ___
1
12
346
The second trimester is defined as weeks ___-___
13
26
347
the third trimester is defined as weeks ___-___
27
42
348
Normal pregnancy lasts for ___ months, ____ weeks, or _____ days.
9
40
280
349
Month 0
weeks 1-4
350
Month 1
weeks 5-8
351
Month 2
weeks 9-12
352
Month 3
weeks 13-17
353
month 4
18-21
354
month 5
22-25
355
month 6
26-30
356
month 7
31-34
357
month 8
35-38
358
month 9
39-42
359
reduction in blood return to the maternal heart caused by the gravid uterus compressing the maternal IVC
supine hypointensive syndrome
360
TV transducers should undergo ______ disinfection
high level
361
Patient prep TA
full bladder
362
most often used during early pregnancy, offers better resolution
TV probe
363
Relevant OB labs
estriol
HcG
Maternal serum AFP
triple and quadruple screen
364
denotes the number of times a woman has been pregnant
gravidity
365
denotes the number of pregnancies that led to the birth of a fetus at or beyond 20 weeks or an infant who weight at least 500g
parity
366
artifacts in OB imaging
comet-tail
reverberation
shadowing
posterior acoustic enhancement
ring down
367
3 breech presentations
complete
incomplete
Frank
368
fetal legs flexed at hip and there is flexion of the knees
complete breech
369
fetal buttocks are closest to the cervix
Frank breech
370
most common fetal presentation
cephalic
371
Presentation of the fetus is determined by identifying fetal anatomy closest to ______
internal os of the cervix
372
Large ovarian cysts or masses can lead to:
ovarian torsion
373
______ is common during late pregnancy secondary to large size of uterus
hydronephrosis
374
The most common pelvic mass associated with pregnancy is:
corpus luteum cysts
375
Measurements in the first trimester
YS
GS
CRL
NT
376
The purpose of the BPP
investigate for signs of fetal hypoxia and assess overall fetal well being
377
The BPP exam last ___ minutes
30
378
The highest possible score of a BPP without NST is:
8
379
The highest possible score of a BPP with NST is:
10
380
