Chapter 38, 39, 40,41 Flashcards
(191 cards)
1
Q
1) The U.S. Department of Transportation has issued specifications for all of the following types of ambulances except: A) Type III. B) Type I. C) Type IV. D) Type II.
A
C) Type IV.
2
Q
2) The K-Specs standards deal with:
A) ambulance design. B) minimum standard medical protocols.
C) training and education of field personnel. D) air evacuation of trauma victims.
A
A) ambulance design.
3
Q
3) Because of the extra equipment now placed on ambulances for specialty rescue, advanced life support, and hazardous materials operations, their gross vehicle weight has been easily exceeded in some communities. This has necessitated introduction of a ________ truck chassis built for rugged durability and large storage and work areas.
A) lightweight B) heavy-duty C) medium-duty D) specialty weight
A
C) medium-duty
4
Q
4) Which of the following is not essential equipment on an ambulance?
A) Automatic transport ventilator B) Portable oxygen tanks
C) Pediatric oxygen administration devices D) Portable suction unit
A
A) Automatic transport ventilator
5
Q
5) Which of the following is a purpose for carrying an aluminum foil roll on an ambulance?
A) To control major arterial bleeding B) To keep a newborn warm
C) To care for amputated parts D) None of the above
A
B) To keep a newborn warm
6
Q
6) Which of the following is optional equipment?
A) Flashlights B) Infant oxygen masks C) Disinfectant solution D) Lubricating jelly
A
B) Infant oxygen masks
7
Q
7) Which of the following should be checked with the vehicle engine turned off?
A) Dash-mounted gauges B) Windshield wiper operation C) Warning lights D) Battery
A
D) Battery
8
Q
8) Which phase of an ambulance call is characterized by receiving a report from the off-going shift and checking the functionality of equipment?
A) Preparing for the ambulance call B) Receiving and responding to a call
C) Transferring the patient to the ambulance D) Terminating the call
A
A) Preparing for the ambulance call
9
Q
9) Which of the following fluids is not checked by an EMT?
A) Oil B) Coolant C) Transmission D) Hydraulic
A
D) Hydraulic
10
Q
10) The medical acronym EMD stands for which of the following?
A) Emergency Medical Director B) Emergency Medical Doctor
C) Emergency Medical Driver D) Emergency Medical Dispatcher
A
D) Emergency Medical Dispatcher
11
Q
11) Which of the following is not a responsibility of the Emergency Medical Dispatcher?
A) Prioritizing calls that come in B) Providing medical direction to the responding units
C) Coordinating with other public safety agencies D) Providing emergency instructions to the caller
A
B) Providing medical direction to the responding units
12
Q
12) While staffing an emergency services dispatch center, an Emergency Medical Dispatcher (EMD) receives a call from someone who is very upset and screaming that her friend was just shot. Which of the following does the EMD need to do in this situation? A) Determine the location of the shooter. B) Ask the caller for her phone number.
C) Provide the caller with information about local hospitals. D) Notify the victim’s family of the incident.
A
B) Ask the caller for her phone number.
13
Q
13) You respond to a major automobile collision involving multiple patients. Which of the following patients would receive Priority 1 transport?
A) 45-year-old with no vital signs B) 6-year-old with lower leg fracture and normal vital signs
C) 25-year-old with abdominal bruising and signs of shock
D) 68-year-old with mild respiratory distress and seat belt burns
A
C) 25-year-old with abdominal bruising and signs of shock
14
Q
14) Studies have shown that drivers of other vehicles do not usually see or hear ambulances or other emergency vehicles until they are within ________ feet of it. A) 100 B) 250 C) 200 D) 150
A
A) 100
15
Q
15) Tests have shown that ________ ambulance operators tend to speed up by 10 to 15 miles per hour when the siren is sounding. A) privately employed B) all C) inexperienced D) experienced
A
C) inexperienced
16
Q
16) Most state statutes allow an emergency vehicle operator to do which of the following on emergency calls?
A) Drive around lowered cross-arms at a railroad crossing.
B) Exceed posted speed limits if life and property are not endangered.
C) Be exempt from liability in the event of a collision.
D) Pass a stopped school bus with its red flashers on.
A
B) Exceed posted speed limits if life and property are not endangered.
17
Q
17) According to the National Highway Traffic Safety Administration, many ground ambulance collisions occur:
A) at intersections. B) at night. C) during inclement weather. D) on wet roads.
A
A) at intersections.
18
Q
18) Inexperienced ambulance drivers tend to ________ while driving with the siren operating.
A) pull to the right B) stop C) speed up D) pull to the left
A
C) speed up
19
Q
19) Regarding the use of emergency sirens, which of the following is false?
A) Dense shrubbery may block the sound of the siren. B) The sound of the siren may increase the patient’s anxiety.
C) Ambulance operators are not affected by siren noise.
D) EMTs should assume that other drivers cannot hear the siren.
A
C) Ambulance operators are not affected by siren noise.
20
Q
20) After responding to the scene of a patient complaining of difficulty breathing, you and your partner determine that the patient’s condition is not life threatening based on a thorough assessment. You should transport the patient to an appropriate medical facility with:
A) the emergency lights on, but without activating the siren.
B) the emergency lights off, but activating the siren when traffic builds.
C) both lights and siren activated. D) neither lights nor siren activated.
A
D) neither lights nor siren activated.
21
Q
21) Regarding ambulance warning devices, which of the following statements is not true?
A) Four-way flashers should not be used as emergency lights.
B) The large lights on the outermost corners of the ambulance box should blink alternately.
C) In most states it is illegal to drive at night with only one headlight.
D) It is a good idea for the light package of the ambulance to combine several types of lights.
A
B) The large lights on the outermost corners of the ambulance box should blink alternately.
22
Q
22) Operators of emergency vehicles must drive with the safety of others in mind. This is known as driving:
A) with due regard. B) defensively. C) as a public servant. D) with emergency privilege.
A
A) with due regard.
23
Q
23) Which of the following contributes most significantly to the occurrence of ambulance crashes?
A) Time of day B) Size of the vehicle C) Speed of the vehicle D) Weather conditions
A
C) Speed of the vehicle
24
Q
24) You are at the scene of a vehicle collision and have found that there is one patient who is in stable condition. At this point, the call can be categorized as:
A) no longer a true emergency. B) triaged. C) an unfounded call. D) a non-incident.
A
A) no longer a true emergency.
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25) When arriving as the first unit at the location of a motor vehicle collision on an interstate highway, you should position the ambulance so that:
A) it is between the damaged vehicles. B) the crash is blocked by traffic with your vehicle as a barrier.
C) you are nearest to the command post for easy communications with the incident commander.
D) it is at the bottom of the nearest on-ramp.
B) the crash is blocked by traffic with your vehicle as a barrier.
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26) The process of combining the patient and patient-carrying device into a unit ready for moving and transporting the patient is called: A) loading. B) wrapping. C) immobilizing. D) packaging.
D) packaging.
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27) A patient-carrying device should have at least ________ straps to hold the patient securely.
A) 3 B) 5 C) 1 D) 2
A) 3
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28) Full immobilization of a trauma patient, including placing a cervical collar and securing the patient to a backboard, should take place at which of the following points in time?
A) Before moving the patient to the ambulance B) Before the primary assessment
C) En route to the hospital D) After checking for cervical range of motion
A) Before moving the patient to the ambulance
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29) When engaged in a nonemergency transport in an authorized vehicle while functioning as an EMT for an authorized emergency service, the actions you take while driving are:
A) covered by your service's insurance carrier.
B) subject to laws that govern all drivers.
C) allowable, provided you do not exceed 15 mph above the posted speed limit.
D) not likely to result in an investigation in the event of a collision.
B) subject to laws that govern all drivers.
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30) When deciding whether or not to drive to the hospital with lights and siren activated for any patient, the driver should consider:
A) the patient's past medical history. B) potential risks of making the patient's condition worse.
C) the patient's preference for lights and siren. D) how many calls are waiting for an available ambulance.
B) potential risks of making the patient's condition worse.
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31) Police escorts of ambulances driving at emergency status are typically discouraged because:
A) police officers are not accustomed to driving an ambulance.
B) there is no guarantee that the police officer knows where the call is located.
C) drivers who pull over for the police officer often pull back in front of the ambulance.
D) ambulances do not move as fast as police cruisers.
C) drivers who pull over for the police officer often pull back in front of the ambulance.
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32) Which of the following is the correct order of operations when transferring a stable patient from his or her house to the ambulance?
A) Package the patient for transport, select the proper patient-carrying device, move the patient to the ambulance, and load the patient into the ambulance.
B) Package the patient for transport, move the patient to the ambulance, select the proper patient-carrying device, and load the patient into the ambulance.
C) Select the proper patient-carrying device, move the patient to the ambulance, package the patient for transport, and load the patient into the ambulance.
D) Select the proper patient-carrying device, package the patient for transport, move the patient to the ambulance, and load the patient into the ambulance.
D) Select the proper patient-carrying device, package the patient for transport, move the patient to the ambulance, and load the patient into the ambulance.
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33) You have transported a stable patient with complaints of abdominal pain for the last three weeks to the hospital. On arrival, you notice the emergency department is very busy and there are no empty beds to be found. You have attempted to get the attention of a hospital staff member to transfer the patient, but all are currently helping other patients. Your partner tells you to take the patient to the waiting room and leave him because the dispatcher of your service is holding several serious calls. What could possibly happen to you if you leave the patient in this fashion?
A) Nothing; there are other people who are in need of an ambulance.
B) Nothing, provided that your supervisor authorizes this action.
C) You could possibly be charged with abandonment.
D) You could possibly be charged with false imprisonment.
C) You could possibly be charged with abandonment.
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34) Failure to formally transfer the patient to medical staff in the emergency department could place the EMT in danger of being held liable for:
A) false imprisonment. B) unlawful consent.
C) abandonment. D) patient endangerment.
C) abandonment.
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35) At which point should you complete your prehospital care report (PCR)?
A) As soon as you are free from patient duties B) En route to the hospital
C) As soon as you arrive at the hospital D) At the end of your shift
A) As soon as you are free from patient duties
36
36) When heading back to quarters, on what should you place your emphasis?
A) Documenting the call B) Reorganizing the ambulance
C) Returning safely D) Refueling the ambulance for the next call
C) Returning safely
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37) You have transported a patient to the emergency department and are in the process of cleaning the ambulance while your partner is completing all required paperwork. At what point is the final phase of an ambulance call complete?
A) As soon as you put the stretcher back in the ambulance with a clean sheet and you notify your dispatch center you are available
B) As soon as your partner completes the patient care report and you are restocking the supplies used during the call
C) As soon as you get back to the station and notify your dispatch center you are in quarters
D) After all required paperwork is complete and the ambulance has been completely cleaned and restocked
D) After all required paperwork is complete and the ambulance has been completely cleaned and restocked
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38) Which of the following operational reasons warrant the use of helicopter transport from the scene to a medical facility?
A) The distance to the medical facility is 15 minutes away. B) The patient is in cardiac arrest.
C) The patient is located in a remote area. D) The patient may go into shock shortly.
C) The patient is located in a remote area.
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39) What is an appropriate-sized landing zone for a helicopter?
A) 25 feet by 25 feet B) 50 feet by 50 feet C) 75 feet by 75 feet D) 100 feet by 100 feet
D) 100 feet by 100 feet
40
40) Which of the following is true regarding helicopter transport and safety?
A) Helicopter crew should direct the loading of the patient.
B) Keep traffic and vehicles at least 30 feet from the helicopter.
C) Approach a parked helicopter from the uphill side when the aircraft is on a hill.
D) Always walk around the back of the helicopter near the tail rotor.
A) Helicopter crew should direct the loading of the patient.
41
41) Which of the following represents best practice when responding to a highway incident?
A) Keeping the ambulance on the same side of the road as the incident
B) Parking immediately behind the first unit on scene when you are a secondary unit
C) Using the crossover on a limited-access highway during peak traffic hours
D) Using emergency lighting rather than cones or flares to warn traffic of the incident
A) Keeping the ambulance on the same side of the road as the incident
42
1) You are in charge of your department's personnel at the scene of a mass-casualty incident. As the incident progresses, you request additional resources, and a neighboring department assists you. As part of this department's response, a battalion chief responds to oversee operations. At the command post, you and the battalion chief work together to manage the incident. This cooperative management effort is known as:
A) dual command. B) redundant command. C) unified command. D) incident command.
C) unified command.
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2) In which of the following settings should the EMT be alert to the possibility of hazardous materials emergencies?
A) Manufacturing industries B) Farm service agencies C) Shipping ports D) All of the above
D) All of the above
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3) You are called to a garden center where four shoppers have collapsed after a section of shelving fell and dumped hazardous products on the floor. When you arrive on the scene, you should:
A) recognize a HAZMAT incident, secure the scene by limiting access, isolate the possible contaminated from the noncontaminated, and request HAZMAT response.
B) recognize a HAZMAT incident, dress in a Tyvek suit, secure the scene by limiting access, isolate the possible contaminated from the noncontaminated, and request HAZMAT response.
C) secure the scene quickly, triage each patient, and move to fresh air.
D) recognize a HAZMAT incident, dress in a Tyvek suit, access the scene to identify the spilled product, secure the MSDS sheets, and remove victims to fresh air.
A) recognize a HAZMAT incident, secure the scene by limiting access, isolate the possible contaminated from the noncontaminated, and request HAZMAT response.
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4) Which of the following agencies have developed regulations for dealing with hazardous materials emergencies?
A) OSHA and EPA B) DOT and FCC C) NAEMT and NHTSA D) NHTSA and NRC
A) OSHA
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5) To respond to a hazardous materials incident, the EMT should be trained at which level?
A) Operations B) Specialist C) Technician D) Awareness
D) Awareness
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6) As it pertains to hazardous materials, the Occupational Safety and Health Administration requires employers to:
A) train employees to handle any type of hazardous materials incident.
B) document the appropriate level of training for each employee.
C) have knowledge of all hazardous materials on the premises.
D) ensure there is at least one person on-site trained at the technician level.
B) document the appropriate level of training for each employee.
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7) Johnny is an EMT with a local ambulance service. As part of his job, he is trained to recognize the existence of a potentially dangerous scene involving hazardous materials and know when to request a HAZMAT response. Johnny's level of hazardous materials training is at the ________ level.
A) First Responder Awareness B) First Responder Operations
C) Hazardous Materials Technician D) Hazardous Materials Specialist
A) First Responder Awareness
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8) Soraya is an EMT who volunteers for a local fire department. On the scene of a hazardous materials incident, she helps prevent the incident from becoming larger and ensures bystanders remain safe. Soraya's level of hazardous materials training is at the ________ level.
A) First Responder Awareness B) First Responder Operations
C) Hazardous Materials Technician D) Hazardous Materials Specialist
B) First Responder Operations
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9) Eduardo is an EMT for a major metropolitan fire department. He is assigned to a station within an industrial complex. On the scene of a hazardous materials incident, Eduardo functions on a team where he plugs a leaking drum. Eduardo's level of hazardous materials training is at the ________ level.
A) First Responder Awareness B) First Responder Operations
C) Hazardous Materials Technician D) Hazardous Materials Specialist
C) Hazardous Materials Technician
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10) Andrea is an EMS supervisor with a combined EMS/Fire department. On the scene of a hazardous materials incident, she acts as a liaison with federal, state, and local authorities. Andrea's level of hazardous materials training is at the ________ level. A) First Responder Awareness B) First Responder Operations
C) Hazardous Materials Technician D) Hazardous Materials Specialist
D) Hazardous Materials Specialist
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11) You are beginning triage at the scene of a mass-casualty incident in which a commuter train has derailed. Which of the following should you do first?
A) Do a quick pulse check on all patients at the scene.
B) Identify all Priority 1 patients.
C) Announce that everyone who can get up and walk needs to go to the parking lot of a nearby building.
D) Check the airway status of all patients who do not appear to be moving.
C) Announce that everyone who can get up and walk needs to go to the parking lot of a nearby building.
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12) Which of the following is not the role of the first arriving EMT at the scene of a possible hazardous materials emergency?
A) Requesting special resources to respond B) Recognizing a hazardous materials emergency
C) Establishing a safe zone D) Rescuing any victims still in the area of the spill
D) Rescuing any victims still in the area of the spill
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13) Which of the following should be considered during the scene size-up of a hazardous materials emergency?
A) Potential for spread of the substance B) The properties and potential dangers of the substance
C) Identification of the substance D) All of the above
D) All of the above
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14) Which of the following is not a responsibility of an EMT at the scene of a hazardous materials emergency?
A) Rehabilitating the HAZMAT team B) Decontaminating injured victims
C) Treating injured patients D) Staying in the cold zone
B) Decontaminating injured victims
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15) You are called to a local hardware store for a male patient complaining of difficulty breathing. As you pull into the parking lot, you notice several people in front of the building coughing and in obvious distress. What would be an appropriate course of action at this point?
A) Locate the patient for whom you were requested and begin treatment while another ambulance is en route for the other patients.
B) Request a hazardous materials incident response and begin treating all patients displaying respiratory difficulties.
C) Evaluate the scene further for indications of a hazardous environment and request a hazardous materials response.
D) Move the people with respiratory difficulties to a distant corner of the parking lot and set up a treatment sector.
C) Evaluate the scene further for indications of a hazardous environment and request a hazardous materials response.
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16) Which of the following are desirable characteristics of the "safe or cold zone" in a hazardous materials incident?
A) Upwind, uphill from the spill B) Upwind, on the same level as the spill
C) Downwind, uphill from the spill D) Downwind, downhill from the spill
B) Upwind, on the same level as the spill
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17) In which of the following zones is the EMT expected to be staged at the scene of a hazardous materials incident?
A) Warm zone B) Hot zone C) Cold zone D) Ground zero
C) Cold zone
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18) Where is the decontamination corridor located where patients, personnel, and equipment are decontaminated?
A) Hot zone B) Cold zone C) Warm zone D) Cool zone
C) Warm zone
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19) An area near a hazardous materials incident that is upwind from the incident and on the same level is a good location for a: A) danger zone. B) hot zone. C) safe zone. D) treatment zone.
C) safe zone.
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20) Which of the following is not an acceptable way of attempting to identify a hazardous material?
A) Checking the safety data sheet
B) Collecting a sample of the material for laboratory analysis
C) Asking the driver of the tractor-trailer truck involved in the incident
D) Using binoculars to obtain information from the placard on a container
B) Collecting a sample of the material for laboratory analysis
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21) Signs that identify the hazardous material contained within a transport vehicle are called:
A) indicators. B) placards. C) panels. D) warnings.
B) placards.
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22) What source will provide first aid information about hazardous materials for employees at a work site?
A) Safety Data Sheets B) Bill of lading C) Shipping manifest D) Placard
A) Safety Data Sheets
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23) ________ is the response agency, established in Washington, DC, as a service of the Chemical Manufacturers Association that can provide either you or your dispatcher with information about the hazardous material and contact the shipper to provide you with information about the material.
A) OSHA B) CHEMTREC C) ERG D) EPA
B) CHEMTREC
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24) Which of the following is a resource for specific actions to be taken by personnel dealing with a hazardous materials incident? A) Medical protocols B) Emergency Response Guidebook
C) Medical dictionary D) Food and Drug Administration (FDA) toll-free hotline
B) Emergency Response Guidebook
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25) When seeking expert advice on how to proceed at a hazardous materials incident, which of the following information is important to provide?
A) An estimate of the amount of the substance involved B) Your level of EMS certification
C) Your background in chemistry D) Both A and B
A) An estimate of the amount of the substance involved
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26) At 0330, you respond to the scene of an overturned tanker truck. What organization could you contact to obtain information about the liquid the truck is carrying?
A) Regional poison control center B) CHEMTREC
C) CHEM-TEL D) Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)
B) CHEMTREC
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27) Which of the following is not a desirable characteristic of the rehabilitation area of a hazardous materials incident?
A) It is large enough to accommodate multiple rescue crews.
B) It allows for rapid reentry to the emergency operation.
C) It is protected from weather elements. D) It is located in the warm zone.
D) It is located in the warm zone.
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28) Which of the following is a function of the rehabilitation area in a hazardous materials incident?
A) Providing for hydration of rescue crews
B) Taking baseline vital signs before rescuers enter the operations area
C) Performing medical assessment of rescue crews D) All of the above
D) All of the above
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29) Which of the following actions may need to be taken by the EMT when treating and transporting a patient who was exposed to, and contaminated by, a hazardous material?
A) Wearing heavy cloth gloves
B) Disposing of patient care equipment such as blood pressure cuffs and backboards
C) Wearing a gown, mask, and goggles to prevent secondary contamination
D) Placing towels on the floor of the ambulance to soak up contaminated runoff water
B) Disposing of patient care equipment such as blood pressure cuffs and backboards
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30) Which of the following personal protective items must be used by EMS personnel caring for patients in a hazardous materials emergency? A) Structural firefighting gear B) HEPA mask
C) Chemical permeable gloves D) Tyvek or other chemical impermeable coveralls
D) Tyvek or other chemical impermeable coveralls
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31) Which of the following is not a mechanism of decontamination from hazardous materials?
A) Disinfection B) Disposal C) Deodorization D) Emulsification
C) Deodorization
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32) When grossly decontaminating a patient who is not wearing personal protective equipment in a hazardous materials incident, which of the following techniques should be used?
A) Taking a low-pressure decontamination shower B) Scrubbing with a long-handled brush
C) Sponging with a dilute solution of water and white vinegar D) Using a high pressure water jet system
A) Taking a low-pressure decontamination shower
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33) What is the process that removes the biological (etiological) contamination hazards because it destroys microorganisms and their toxins?
A) Dilution B) Emulsification C) Disinfection D) Absorption
C) Disinfection
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34) Which of the following is the most common type of multiple-casualty incident that EMS providers will respond to? A) Outbreaks of influenza B) Automobile collisions C) Structure fires D) Hazardous materials incidents
B) Automobile collisions
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35) You are just leaving the scene of a multiple-casualty incident with two Priority 1 patients. Which of the following is appropriate regarding communication?
A) Allow the transportation supervisor to notify the receiving facility.
B) Notify the receiving facility by radio of the nature of the patients' injuries.
C) Notify the receiving hospital by cellular phone of the nature of the patients' injuries.
D) Have dispatch relay your patient reports to the receiving facility.
A) Allow the transportation supervisor to notify the receiving facility.
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36) What constitutes a multiple-casualty incident (MCI)?
A) An event that unfolds over a long period of time and requires federal, state, and local response
B) An incident with 3 to 15 patients that the service handles without calling for additional resources
C) An event that places a great demand on EMS equipment and personnel resources
D) Any event that requires additional ambulances to adequately transport the patients from the scene
C) An event that places a great demand on EMS equipment and personnel resources
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37) Disaster plans are a predefined set of instructions that should be written to address the events that are conceivable for a particular location. They should also be:
A) written, multijurisdictional, and rehearsed. B) well publicized, multijurisdictional, and rehearsed.
C) well publicized, realistic, and rehearsed. D) written, realistic, and rehearsed.
C) well publicized, realistic, and rehearsed.
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38) The senior EMT on the first vehicle that arrives on a scene with multiple patients should assume which of the following roles until relieved by a senior official?
A) Transportation supervisor B) Commander of the entire incident
C) Triage supervisor D) Incident Command of the scene
D) Incident Command of the scene
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39) You are on the scene of a riot following a decision in a controversial court case. A large group of people have set fire to vehicles, broken windows, and assaulted people in the area. Which of the following would be the best method of incident command?
A) Single incident command by EMS B) Single incident command by fire service
C) Unified command by police, fire, and EMS D) Single incident command by law enforcement
C) Unified command by police, fire, and EMS
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40) Which of the following is a feature of a good disaster plan?
A) It is specific to the geographical location. B) It has been practiced in mock disasters.
C) It is based on the availability of resources in a particular area. D) All of the above
D) All of the above
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41) Which of the following is a principle of effective Incident Command?
A) Command is most effective when one person is responsible for no more than seven other people.
B) The command location must not be revealed to anyone on the scene.
C) Police, fire, and EMS must establish separate command locations.
D) None of the above
A) Command is most effective when one person is responsible for no more than seven other people.
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42) You are an EMT on the scene of a mass-casualty incident in which there are 50 patients from a bus roll-over. Incident Command has been established and EMS, law enforcement, and rescue sectors are established. You have just discovered that one of the bus passengers was carrying a suspicious package that is now leaking a white powdery substance. Which of the following entities should you contact about this?
A) Incident Commander B) EMS officer C) Rescue officer D) Dispatch
B) EMS officer
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43) ICS recognizes that the manageable span of control is:
A) 7 people. B) 12 people. C) 18 people. D) 24 people.
A) 7 people.
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44) When several agencies work independently but cooperatively, rather than one agency exercising control over the others, this is called: A) unified command. B) single incident command. C) ICS. D) NIMS.
A) unified command.
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45) You are on the scene of a church bus roll-over collision. There are 30 passengers involved. As triage officer, which one of the following patients should you assign the highest priority?
A) 30-year-old man with multiple lower extremity fractures who is awake, has a strong radial pulse, and is complaining of severe pain
B) 35-year-old pregnant woman with a cut on her head, neck pain, and numbness and tingling in her arms
C) 70-year-old woman who is awake but having difficulty breathing and has absent lung sounds on the right side
D) Unresponsive 9-year-old male with an open skull fracture who is in cardiac arrest
C) 70-year-old woman who is awake but having difficulty breathing and has absent lung sounds on the right side
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46) You are on the scene of a mass-casualty incident in which the grandstand at a race track has collapsed. As the triage officer, you have encountered a 14-year-old male whose leg has been amputated above the knee. He is responsive to verbal stimuli, and he has an open airway, shallow rapid breathing, and a weak, rapid carotid pulse. This patient would be classified as a Priority ________ for treatment and transport.
A) 2 B) 3 C) 1 D) 4
C) 1
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47) Simple Triage and Rapid Treatment (START) is a system that relies on some simple commands and what three physiologic parameters?
A) Respiration, pain, and mental status B) Circulation, sensory, and motor status
C) Respiration, sensory, and motor status D) Respiration, pulse, and mental status
D) Respiration, pulse, and mental status
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48) With START triage, when you arrive on the scene, you ask all the patients who can walk to move to one area. These patients are categorized as:
A) yellow tagged. B) Priority 3 walking wounded. C) red tagged. D) Priority 4 walking wounded.
B) Priority 3 walking wounded.
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49) You arrive on the scene where a school bus has been hit by a train. The bus was in its early stages of picking up students and you have 5 patients. Your closest unit is 30 minutes away. Triage this patient based on this scenario:
Patient #1 is a 16-year-old female with the following vital signs: respirations 28, pulse 132, and altered mental status with cool clammy skin.
A) Priority 3, green tag B) Priority 4, black tag C) Priority 1, red tag D) Priority 2, yellow tag
C) Priority 1, red tag
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50) You arrive on the scene where a school bus has been hit by a train. The bus was in its early stages of picking up students and you only have 5 patients. Your closest unit is 30 minutes away. Triage this patient based on this scenario:
Patient #2 is an 8-year-old male with the following vital signs: respirations 22, pulse 102, and alert mental status with warm dry skin.
A) Priority 1, red tag B) Priority 3, green tag C) Priority 2, yellow tag D) Priority 4, black tag
B) Priority 3, green tag
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51) You arrive on the scene where a school bus has been hit by a train. The bus was in its early stages of picking up students and you only have 5 patients. Your closest unit is 30 minutes away. Triage this patient based on this scenario:
Patient #3 is a 38-year-old female with the following vital signs: respirations 0, pulse 0, and nonresponsive.
A) Priority 4, black tag B) Priority 1, red tag C) Priority 2, yellow tag D) Priority 3, green tag
A) Priority 4, black tag
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52) You arrive on the scene where a school bus has been hit by a train. The bus was in its early stages of picking up students and you only have 5 patients. Your closest unit is 30 minutes away. Triage this patient based on this scenario:
Patient #4 is a 13-year-old female with the following vital signs: respirations 8, pulse 124, and nonresponsive with blood from the ears and nose.
A) Priority 3, green tag B) Priority 4, black tag C) Priority 1, red tag D) Priority 2, yellow tag
C) Priority 1, red tag
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53) You arrive on the scene where a school bus has been hit by a train. The bus was in its early stages of picking up students and you only have 5 patients. Your closest unit is 30 minutes away. Triage this patient based on this scenario: Patient #5 is a 17-year-old male with the following vital signs: respirations 18, pulse 104, alert, crying, and wanting his mother; he is ambulatory.
A) Priority 2, yellow tag B) Priority 3, green tag C) Priority 1, red tag D) Priority 4, black tag
B) Priority 3, green tag
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54) Using START triage guidelines, a patient on the scene of a mass-causality incident who is not breathing initially, but begins breathing when the airway is open, is deemed a ________ patient.
A) Priority 0 B) Priority 1 C) Priority 2 D) Priority 3
B) Priority 1
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55) Using START triage guidelines, a patient on the scene of a mass-causality incident who has no pulse is deemed a ________ patient. A) Priority 0 B) Priority 1 C) Priority 2 D) Priority 3
A) Priority 0
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56) Using START triage guidelines, a patient on the scene of a mass-causality incident who is alert and able to walk is deemed a ________ patient. A) Priority 0 B) Priority 1 C) Priority 2 D) Priority 3
D) Priority 3
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57) When responding to a multiple-casualty incident, staging refers to which of the following?
A) Setting up a triage center from the back of your ambulance
B) Staying on station until called upon to receive a patient
C) Keeping a log of all patients transported
D) Waiting in a designated location until called upon by the designated section officer
D) Waiting in a designated location until called upon by the designated section officer
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58) When transporting patients from the scene of a mass-casualty incident, who should be responsible for contacting the receiving hospital? A) Transporting EMT B) Incident commander
C) Transportation supervisor D) Triage officer
C) Transportation supervisor
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59) EMS operations generally include which six areas?
A) Extrication, Operations, Logistics, Triage, Finance, and Transportation
B) Extrication, Staging, Logistics, Triage, Operations, and Transportation
C) Extrication, Staging, Triage, Treatment, Transportation, and Rehabilitation
D) Extrication, Staging, Triage, Air operations, Transportation, and Rehabilitation
C) Extrication, Staging, Triage, Treatment, Transportation, and Rehabilitation
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60) Who is the person in charge of tracking the patient's final destination?
A) Treatment officer B) Staging officer C) Transportation supervisor D) Incident Commander
C) Transportation supervisor
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1) Which of the following is the most common type of rescue across the United States?
A) Farm rescue B) Water rescue C) Vehicle rescue D) Hazardous materials response
C) Vehicle rescue
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2) Which of the following is a common reason that EMTs are struck by motor vehicles at the scene of motor vehicle collisions on roadways?
A) Drivers are distracted by the scene of the collision and do not pay attention to what they are doing.
B) EMTs sometimes lose track of what they are doing and wander into traffic.
C) Drivers who are angry at being delayed deliberately take out their frustrations on rescue workers.
D) All of the above
A) Drivers are distracted by the scene of the collision and do not pay attention to what they are doing.
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3) Which of the following may be a source of ignition when rescuing people who are trapped in a car that has stopped off the roadway in a field of dried grass?
A) Mobile radio B) Battery C) Leaking coolant D) Catalytic converter
D) Catalytic converter
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4) Which of the following is not an example of a specialty rescue team?
A) Water rescue B) Confined-space rescue C) High-angle rescue D) Advanced cardiac life support
D) Advanced cardiac life support
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5) Which of the following is a common hazard associated with the inner circle of a typical auto extrication?
A) Penetrating injury from extrication tools B) Broken glass and metal fragments
C) Carbon monoxide poisoning D) Both A and C
B) Broken glass and metal fragments
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6) Which of the following steps of extrication comes before the other three steps?
A) Sizing up the situation B) Recognizing and managing hazards
C) Gaining access to the patient D) Preparing for the rescue
D) Preparing for the rescue
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7) Which of the following can serve as appropriate eye protection for an EMT on the scene of an extrication?
A) Prescription eyeglasses B) Face conforming goggles
C) Plastic face shield of the type used for Standard Precautions D) Shield of a Firefighter's helmet
B) Face conforming goggles
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8) Which of the following is the best protection for an EMT's upper body during an extrication operation?
A) Firefighting turnout coat B) Thick wool coat
C) Nylon jacket with asbestos lining D) Thick fireproof blanket draped around the shoulders
A) Firefighting turnout coat
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9) You have arrived at the scene of a vehicle collision in which there are utility wires down around the vehicle. The three occupants appear dazed and other responding units have not yet arrived. Which of the following is the best course of action?
A) Cool the wires with large amounts of water to prevent a fire from starting.
B) Encourage the occupants to exit the vehicle by jumping free of the vehicle before touching the ground.
C) Push the wires out of the way with a long pry-bar in order to access the patients.
D) Stay at a distance and caution the occupants to stay inside the vehicle.
D) Stay at a distance and caution the occupants to stay inside the vehicle.
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10) When placing cribbing:
A) kneel on both knees for stabilization. B) always squat, so you can move away quickly.
C) kneel on one knee only so you can move away quickly. D) kneel or squat as necessary.
B) always squat, so you can move away quickly.
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11) You are at the scene of a vehicle collision on an interstate highway. There are two cars involved and both are out of the lanes against the median wall. As an EMS provider, what is your primary safety concern?
A) Ensuring the patient is properly packaged for transport
B) Watching for distracted drivers who are driving past the scene
C) Evaluating the risk of fire caused by ruptured fuel lines
D) Searching for sharp edges of broken glass and torn metal
B) Watching for distracted drivers who are driving past the scene
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12) When responding to an emergency located on an interstate highway in a medium-duty ambulance, the vehicle should be positioned:
A) in a safe location in the emergency lane of the interstate.
B) across as many lanes as possible to block oncoming traffic.
C) in the same direction as other response vehicles in a single line.
D) to one side of the damaged vehicles for easy egress.
C) in the same direction as other response vehicles in a single line.
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13) When controlling the scene of an emergency involving damaged power poles and downed electrical wires, the EMT must remember to:
A) render the scene safe before entering the danger zone.
B) request appropriate personnel to cut the power source.
C) use nonconductive implements to make a safe path to victims.
D) use double-thickness gloves to insulate the body from electrocution.
B) request appropriate personnel to cut the power source.
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14) Which of the following considerations should be determined when conducting a scene size-up at night of a single vehicle collision involving a rollover?
A) Make and model of the vehicle involved B) Mechanism of injury
C) How many EMS supervisors are needed for command D) Which patient is the least injured
B) Mechanism of injury
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15) One of the greatest hazards associated with EMS highway operations is:
A) explosion. B) traffic flow. C) power lines. D) sharp objects.
B) traffic flow.
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16) While performing night operations, which of the following combinations of lights provide maximum visibility?
A) Red/amber warning lights ON, headlights ON, fog lights ON, and traffic directional boards ON
B) Red/amber warning lights ON, headlights OFF, fog lights OFF, and traffic directional boards ON
C) Red/amber warning lights ON, headlights ON, fog lights OFF, and traffic directional boards ON
D) Red/amber warning lights ON, headlights OFF, fog lights OFF, and traffic directional boards OFF
B) Red/amber warning lights ON, headlights OFF, fog lights OFF, and traffic directional boards ON
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17) When working at a nighttime emergency on a roadway, which of the following safety considerations should the prudent EMS provider do to increase safety?
A) Keep all available response lights on to warn oncoming traffic.
B) Switch the headlights to the "high beam" position for maximum lighting.
C) Operate amber warning lights only, if the option is available.
D) Keep only the fog lights on to keep the light out of drivers' vision.
C) Operate amber warning lights only, if the option is available.
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18) Which of the following is not a phase of the extrication process?
A) Disentanglement B) Gaining access to the patient C) Simplification D) Terminating the rescue
C) Simplification
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19) Which of the following is the highest priority during extrication?
A) Controlling major bleeding B) Maintaining the patient's airway
C) Ensuring your personal safety D) Gaining access to the patient
C) Ensuring your personal safety
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20) Which of the following phases of extrication follows the other three phases?
A) Recognizing and managing hazards B) Immobilizing and extricating the patient
C) Stabilizing the vehicle D) Gaining access to the patient
B) Immobilizing and extricating the patient
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21) Which of the following activities should not occur during the scene size-up?
A) Providing airway management B) Determining the mechanism of injury
C) Determining the extent of the patient's entrapment D) Determining the need for additional resources
A) Providing airway management
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22) Which of the following best describes why it is important for the EMT to understand the extrication process?
A) To anticipate any dangerous steps in the extrication process
B) To provide direction to the rescue technicians if they appear to be making errors
C) To take over the extrication process if requested by the rescue technicians
D) All of the above
A) To anticipate any dangerous steps in the extrication process
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23) You have arrived at the scene of a motor vehicle collision to find that there are several critically injured patients. Which of the following should you do first?
A) Begin triage of all patients before deciding on additional resources.
B) Call for additional rescue units and transporting ambulances.
C) Begin extrication of the most critically injured patient.
D) Begin to care for the patient closest to your vehicle.
B) Call for additional rescue units and transporting ambulances.
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24) Which of the following is the first concern when you are caring for a patient who has been in a vehicle collision?
A) Preserving evidence, such as alcohol beverage bottles and vehicle positioning
B) Helping law enforcement get the driver's name and insurance information
C) Your own safety
D) Treating life-threatening injuries
C) Your own safety
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25) You are at the scene of a motor vehicle collision in which a single vehicle has collided with a tree. You note that the driver's side airbag has deployed. Which of the following is recommended by airbag experts?
A) Cut away the fabric portion of the airbag to get it out of the way.
B) Lift the airbag and inspect the steering wheel for damage.
C) Use a portable fan to ventilate the car to remove the powder from the airbag.
D) Sharply strike the front bumper to make sure the second airbag has deployed.
B) Lift the airbag and inspect the steering wheel for damage.
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26) Which of the following provides the best protection for the EMT's hands during a vehicle rescue operation?
A) Leather gloves B) Double-thickness latex gloves
C) Fabric work gloves with non-slip palms D) Elbow-length chemical-proof gloves
A) Leather gloves
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27) Which of the following is adequate protection for the EMT's head while at the scene of an auto extrication?
A) Firefighting helmet B) Watch cap C) NFPA standard rescue helmet D) Nomex hood
C) NFPA standard rescue helmet
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28) Under which of the following conditions are safety vests with reflective trim effective in increasing the visibility of the EMT? A) On sunny days B) On cloudy days C) At night D) All of the above
D) All of the above
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29) Which of the following is an important reason for controlling spectators at the scene of an extrication incident?
A) Spectators may get injured. B) Spectators may create problems for passing motorists.
C) Spectators may interfere with rescue efforts. D) All of the above
D) All of the above
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30) Which of the following measures can the EMT take to create a safer extrication scene?
A) Setting up road flares every 10 feet for a safe distance to divert traffic away from the collision
B) Setting up road flares around hazards such as spilled fuel
C) Dropping road flares from the ambulance as you are approaching the scene
D) Both B and C
A) Setting up road flares every 10 feet for a safe distance to divert traffic away from the collision
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31) Which of the following is a good choice for preventing further injury to a patient during auto extrication?
A) Disposable blanket B) Sheet C) Placing your body over the top of the patient D) Aluminized blanket
D) Aluminized blanket
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32) Which of the following should the EMT consider when protecting a patient during extrication?
A) Noise B) Weather C) Debris D) All of the above
D) All of the above
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33) Which of the following should be used to protect a patient during extrication?
A) Plastic blanket B) Netting C) Goggles D) None of the above
C) Goggles
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34) If the steering wheel must be displaced during extrication and the airbag has not deployed, which of the following actions is recommended by airbag manufacturers?
A) Firmly strike the hub of the steering wheel with a mallet to deactivate the airbag before displacing the steering wheel.
B) No action is required; only frontal impact will deploy airbags.
C) Disconnect the battery cables.
D) Secure a long backboard across the steering wheel to deflect the airbag from the patient should it deploy.
C) Disconnect the battery cables.
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35) If you are first on scene, what should you do first in determining where and how you should park your apparatus?
A) Establish Command and confirm the exact location of the incident with the dispatch center before parking.
B) Use apparatus to institute "downstream blocking" of the scene to protect the work area.
C) Immediately park in the same direction and in single file.
D) Provide downstream blocking if you are driving one of the larger units.
A) Establish Command and confirm the exact location of the incident with the dispatch center before parking.
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36) You are on the scene of a vehicle collision involving a downed power line. You are walking in an area you feel is a safe distance from the line and begin to feel a tingling sensation in your feet. Which of the following would be a proper method of ensuring your safety while exiting the area?
A) Turn 90 degrees to the direction you are walking and hop to a safe place on one foot.
B) Turn 180 degrees to the direction you are walking and quickly run to a safe location.
C) Turn 180 degrees to the direction you are walking and shuffle away from the danger area.
D) Turn 90 degrees to the direction you are walking and shuffle away from the danger area.
C) Turn 180 degrees to the direction you are walking and shuffle away from the danger area.
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37) When disconnecting a battery cable to disrupt a vehicle's electrical system, the EMT should disconnect the:
A) positive cable from the battery. B) negative cable from the battery.
C) positive cable from the alternator. D) negative cable from the alternator.
B) negative cable from the battery.
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38) When extrication will involve cutting the roof off a vehicle, stabilization of the vehicle should include:
A) placing chocks on both sides of at least two wheels. B) placing wheel chocks on both sides of all wheels.
C) deflating all tires by slashing them. D) deflating all tires by pulling the valve stems.
D) deflating all tires by pulling the valve stems.
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39) Which safety device prevents car doors from opening during a collision?
A) Safety lock B) Nader jam C) Nader pin D) Safety pin
C) Nader pin
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40) You are managing a patient who is being extricated from a vehicle by a rescue crew using hydraulic tools. Which of the following items should you use in order to protect your patient during the extrication process?
A) Short spine board to prevent debris from contacting the patient
B) Wool blanket to protect the patient from broken glass
C) Oxygen mask to prevent inhalation of noxious fumes
D) Aluminized rescue blanket to protect the patient from sharp edges
A) Short spine board to prevent debris from contacting the patient
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41) You are assessing a patient in the front seat of a vehicle that was involved in a head-on collision. As you examine the interior of the vehicle, you notice the airbags have not deployed. What action should you take in order to render the scene safe to work?
A) Disconnect the battery and wait 2 minutes before entering the vehicle.
B) Disconnect the battery and continue assessing the patient.
C) Turn the ignition to the "off" position and wait 2 minutes before entering the vehicle.
D) Use a long spine board to shield yourself from the undeployed airbag.
A) Disconnect the battery and wait 2 minutes before entering the vehicle.
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42) Stabilizing a vehicle is unnecessary when a vehicle is on its roof with:
A) all roof supports collapsed. B) the trunk lid in contact with the ground.
C) the front edge of the hood in contact with the ground.
D) the vehicle horizontal and resting entirely on the roof.
A) all roof supports collapsed.
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43) You respond to the scene of a motor vehicle collision involving a small pickup truck that struck the rear of a moving tractor-trailer. The driver of the tractor-trailer is walking around and complains of neck pain. The driver of the pickup truck is conscious but cannot exit the vehicle because the door is stuck and the steering wheel is displaced onto his lap. The passenger of the pickup truck is sitting upright in the passenger seat, is unconscious, but has radial pulses. Access to the passenger is not obstructed. A fourth patient, who was sitting in the pickup truck bed, is found about 10 feet away and responds to commands appropriately. Assuming your ambulance is the only emergency vehicle on the scene currently, which of the following patients should be packaged for transport first by the next arriving ambulance?
A) Tractor trailer driver B) Pickup truck driver
C) Passenger in the pickup truck's front seat D) Passenger ejected from the pickup truck bed
C) Passenger in the pickup truck's front seat
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44) Which of the following is a reason that the vehicle doors are removed to extricate the patient rather than pulling the patient through an open window?
A) To avoid criticism from bystanders B) To avoid being cut by glass
C) To allow a patient with life-threatening injuries to be removed quickly
D) To make the interior of the vehicle less accessible
C) To allow a patient with life-threatening injuries to be removed quickly
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45) An unresponsive patient is found sitting in the front seat of a vehicle with his legs pinned under the dash. Once his legs have been freed, which of the following methods should be used for removal of the patient?
A) Rapid take-down B) Rapid extrication technique C) Scoop stretcher D) Quick extraction
B) Rapid extrication technique
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46) Which of the following is an advantage of removing the roof of a vehicle that has sustained major damage in a collision?
A) It makes the entire interior of the vehicle accessible. B) The EMT can better access the patients.
C) It creates a large exit through which to remove the patient. D) All of the above
D) All of the above
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47) Once access to the patient is gained, which of the following is the next goal during an auto extrication?
A) Disentanglement of the patient B) Primary assessment and rapid trauma exam
C) Stabilization of the vehicle D) Extrication of the patient from the vehicle
B) Primary assessment and rapid trauma exam
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48) Which of the following is the EMT's key role at the scene of an auto extrication?
A) Rescue technician B) Patient advocate C) Safety officer D) Incident commander
B) Patient advocate
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49) Upon arrival at the scene of a motor vehicle collision, you find a vehicle that is on fire. The fire is confined to the engine compartment and the hood is tightly closed. Of the following, which is the best course of action?
A) Use a long-handled pry-bar to open the hood and put out the fire with a fire extinguisher.
B) Let the fire burn and concentrate on extricating the patient.
C) Wet the interior of the vehicle to keep the fire from spreading.
D) Discharge a dry chemical fire extinguisher onto the patient's clothing to protect him from the fire.
B) Let the fire burn and concentrate on extricating the patient.
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50) Which of the following is the rule of thumb for determining the stability of a vehicle that has been involved in a collision? A) It should only be considered stable after assessment by trained rescue personnel.
B) It is stable if the transmission is in "Park" or the parking brake is on.
C) It is stable if it is upright on all four wheels. D) It is stable if the ignition is turned off.
A) It should only be considered stable after assessment by trained rescue personnel.
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51) Which of the following methods should the EMT use first to attempt to access a patient in a vehicle while awaiting arrival of a rescue crew?
A) Use a pry-bar to release the Nader pin in the door latch. B) Try all of the vehicle's doors to see if they will open.
C) Use a heavy tool to break the window closest to the patient.
D) Use a spring-loaded punch to break the rear window.
B) Try all of the vehicle's doors to see if they will open.
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52) Which of the following describes vehicle glass that is designed to break into small pieces rather than shattering into sharp fragments? A) Tempered glass B) Plexiglas C) Leaded glass D) Alloy glass
A) Tempered glass
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53) On arrival at a vehicle collision, you observe a small fire in the engine compartment. A bystander is attempting to smother the fire with a jacket as you approach with an A-B-C extinguisher from your ambulance. Which of the following is the best method of extinguishing the fire?
A) Sweep the nozzle of the extinguisher left and right using short bursts until you are out of extinguishing agent.
B) Aim at the base of the fire and use short bursts until the fire is out.
C) Close the hood to contain the fire within the engine compartment.
D) Aim the nozzle to the side of the fire and, with a sweeping motion, push the fire at its base.
B) Aim at the base of the fire and use short bursts until the fire is out.
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54) When attempting to extinguish a fire inside the passenger compartment, it is important to:
A) use the extinguishing agent sparingly to avoid creating a cloud of powder.
B) apply the extinguishing agent liberally to speed up the extinguishing process.
C) aim the nozzle of the extinguisher away from the patient to avoid hitting the patient.
D) resist the urge to extinguish the fire and focus on extricating any patients.
A) use the extinguishing agent sparingly to avoid creating a cloud of powder.
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1) Which of the following best defines domestic terrorism?
A) Interpersonal violence between family members
B) Politically motivated act of violence that occurs within the United States
C) Groups or individuals directing violent acts at their own population or government
D) Acts of violence perpetrated by American citizens against the government of another country
C) Groups or individuals directing violent acts at their own population or government
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2) Which two types of terrorism does the Federal Bureau of Investigation define as occurring in the United States?
A) Psychological and economic B) Chemical and biologic
C) Domestic and international D) Violence and intimidation
C) Domestic and international
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3) Two elements that differentiate a hazardous materials incident from a terrorist incident are:
A) targeting responders and weapons of mass destruction (WMD).
B) weapons of mass destruction and a political agenda.
C) targeting responders and a political agenda.
D) crime scene considerations and targeting responders.
D) crime scene considerations and targeting responders.
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4) Which of the following is not generally recognized as a form of terrorist incident?
A) Harassment B) Explosion C) Industrial sabotage D) Biologic weapons
A) Harassment
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5) Which of the following is a type of chemical weapon?
A) Bacterial toxin B) Bomb containing radioactive material
C) Vesicants D) Plastic explosives
C) Vesicants
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6) Dangerous organisms that grow inside of living cells and reproduce are known as:
A) viruses. B) bacteria. C) toxins. D) biologics.
A) viruses.
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7) Dangerous organisms that can grow in a variety of environments and are capable of producing toxic substances are known as: A) viruses. B) bacteria. C) toxins. D) biologics.
B) bacteria.
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8) Which of the following is a consideration when responding to a terrorist incident?
A) Presence of mass casualties B) Crime scene considerations
C) Presence of booby traps such as secondary explosive devices D) All of the above
D) All of the above
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9) You arrive on the scene of an unknown emergency. As you scan the surrounding area, you notice a large number of people wearing unique armbands and shouting anti-government comments though you are not aware of any public gathering scheduled for today. Your suspicions of a potential terrorist incident are the result of:
A) the location of the call. B) the type of event.
C) the timing of the event. D) on-scene warning signs.
D) on-scene warning signs.
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10) A type of harm that you may be exposed to as an EMT responding to a terrorist incident that is characterized by posttraumatic stress and survivor guilt is typically called:
A) etiologic harm. B) radiologic harm. C) psychological harm. D) thermal harm.
C) psychological harm.
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11) You are on the scene of a probable terrorist attack with several other agencies, both local and federal. In order to operate in an efficient manner, all agencies should follow the:
A) Incident Control System. B) Interagency Command System.
C) Incident Command System. D) Interagency Communication System.
C) Incident Command System.
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12) Which of the following may be a clue that an incident is the result of terrorist violence?
A) Function of the target B) Number of people present
C) Occurrence on the anniversary of a significant or symbolic historical event D) All of the above
D) All of the above
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13) A terrorist incident may have features in common with which of the following types of incidents?
A) Infectious disease B) Mass casualty C) Hazardous materials D) All of the above
D) All of the above
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14) An oxygen level of ________ is required for normal breathing.
A) 10.5 percent B) 16.5 percent C) 25.5 percent D) 19.5 percent
D) 19.5 percent
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15) You are on an ambulance responding to a mass-casualty incident at a shopping mall on a warm Saturday afternoon. En route, you listen to the incident commander broadcast information to dispatch and all inbound units about 20 patients complaining of respiratory difficulty and a burning sensation in their eyes. Your suspicions of a potential terrorist incident are the result of:
A) the location of the call. B) the type of event. C) the timing of the event. D) on-scene warning signs.
B) the type of event.
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16) The type of radiation that requires lead shielding for your protection is:
A) alpha. B) beta. C) delta. D) gamma.
D) gamma.
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17) The extent of radiation depends on which of the following factors?
A) Duration of exposure B) Distance from the source C) Shielding from the source D) All of the above
D) All of the above
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18) Which of the following is not a consideration in the general protection against agents used in terrorist attacks?
A) Immunization B) Distance from event C) Shielding from the agent D) Duration of exposure
A) Immunization
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19) Three methods for minimizing exposure to harmful incidents are:
A) time, decontamination, and shielding. B) technique, distance, and serum.
C) time, distance, and shielding. D) time, decontamination, and serum.
C) time, distance, and shielding.
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20) The formula dose multiplied by time represents which of the following?
A) Lethal dose B) Concentration C) Exposure D) Critical level
C) Exposure
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21) Which of the following types of radiation emits the most powerful rays?
A) Alpha B) Beta C) Delta D) Gamma
D) Gamma
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22) Terrorist incidents typically involve all of the following agents except:
A) explosives. B) biologic agents. C) allergens. D) nuclear agents.
C) allergens.
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23) Someone who has more hair than average on his body is at a higher risk than someone with less hair to be exposed to a toxin by which of the following routes?
A) Ingestion B) Injection C) Inhalation D) Absorption
D) Absorption
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24) Anthrax can infect an individual through which of the following routes of exposure?
A) Inhalation B) Skin C) Ingestion D) All of the above
D) All of the above
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25) Which of the following features increases the appeal of an infectious agent for use in terrorist attacks?
A) Low virulence B) Instability C) High infectivity D) Low potency
C) High infectivity
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26) Which of the following animals is the direct source of exposure to the bacterium that causes the plague in humans? A) Fleas B) Squirrels C) Rats D) Bees
A) Fleas
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27) The best way for a terrorist to weaponize and disseminate a chemical nerve agent to expose a large number of people would be to:
A) put it in a paper bag in a crowded mall and puncture the bag with a stick.
B) throw a paper bag loaded with nerve agent onto a busy subway train.
C) steal a truck that sprays for mosquitos and aerosolize the nerve agent into a crowded subdivision.
D) throw a Molotov cocktail loaded with nerve agent into a windshield of a passenger bus.
C) steal a truck that sprays for mosquitos and aerosolize the nerve agent into a crowded subdivision.
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28) Which of the following chemical agents prohibits the use of oxygen in the cells?
A) Nerve agents B) Blister agents C) Cyanide D) All of the above
C) Cyanide
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29) Which of the following does not have an impact on the behavior of a chemical in a mass-casualty incident?
A) Physical state of the agent B) Route of entry into the body
C) Whether it was an intentional or accidental exposure D) Volatility of the agent
C) Whether it was an intentional or accidental exposure
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30) Biologic warfare is most effective when the agent can gain access through which of the following routes?
A) Blood B) Gastrointestinal tract C) Respiratory tract D) Skin
C) Respiratory tract
186
31) Concerning the threat of nuclear devices used in terrorist attacks, which of the following is most likely to be used in such an attack?
A) Military nuclear device B) Improvised nuclear weapon
C) Radiologic dispersal device D) Sabotage of facilities for nuclear research
D) Sabotage of facilities for nuclear research
187
32) The most common fatal primary injury from a blast is:
A) an extremity fracture. B) a liver laceration. C) a lung injury. D) an impaled object.
C) a lung injury.
188
33) Which of the following is not traditionally a responsibility of an EMT on the scene of a hazardous materials incident caused by terrorism?
A) Scene size-up B) Establishing perimeter control
C) Identification of any indicators of a particular agent D) Activation of the notification process
B) Establishing perimeter control
189
34) Which body system is most likely to be affected by exposure to radiologic material?
A) Respiratory system B) Central nervous system
C) Urinary system D) Integumentary system
B) Central nervous system
190
35) You are on the scene of a blast from an incendiary device. You notice that several patients are walking around with minor injuries, but they do not respond when you ask the "walking wounded" to follow you to a specific location for treatment. What should you do?
A) Use signs to give directions. B) Speak louder.
C) Ignore them and start treating other patients. D) Start checking vital signs and tagging each patient.
A) Use signs to give directions
191
36) You are responding to a suspected terrorist incident, and first reports indicate this is a biologic incident. Which PPE will you need?
A) Self-contained breathing apparatus
B) Lead shielding
C) HEPA mask
D) Fire-protection clothing
C) HEPA mask
