EMT units 22, 23, 24

Question 1

1) Which of the following individuals is likely in the incubation period of chickenpox?
A) A patient whose rash and fever went away a week ago
B) A patient who was exposed 6 days ago but does not yet have a fever or rash
C) A patient with a fever and a rash on the abdomen and back that began 3 days ago
D) A patient who was vaccinated last year, exposed 4 weeks ago, and shows no signs

Answer 1

B) A patient who was exposed 6 days ago but does not yet have a fever or rash

Question 2

2) Which of the following statements about bacteria is false?
A) Some bacteria inside the body are good and necessary to survival.
B) Bacteria need to be inside the body in order to reproduce.
C) Over time, bacteria have developed resistance to some antibiotics.
D) Sepsis is a serious and sometimes deadly complication of bacterial infection.

Answer 2

B) Bacteria need to be inside the body in order to reproduce.

Question 3

3) Which of the following preventive measures is useful against all communicable diseases?
A) Covering sneezes and coughs B) Hand washing C) Vaccination D) Standard Precautions

Answer 3

D) Standard Precautions

Question 4

4) Why is Lyme disease not considered a communicable disease?
A) A person can only pass the disease to another via contact with blood.
B) It is spread by an insect, not a bacteria, virus, or microbe.
C) A person with the disease cannot pass it to other people.
D) The condition is not fatal.

Answer 4

C) A person with the disease cannot pass it to other people.

Question 5

5) Which of the following most accurately describes the pathophysiology of sepsis?
A) The body overreacts to an infection and secretes substances that hurt cells, tissues, and organs.
B) An infectious agent in the body multiplies very rapidly, overwhelming the body’s natural immune response.
C) More than one type of infectious agent invades the body, limiting the immune system’s response to each agent.
D) Vasoconstriction and internal fluid retention lead to shock that does not respond to intravenous fluids.

Answer 5

A) The body overreacts to an infection and secretes substances that hurt cells, tissues, and organs.

Question 6

6) Which of the following statements about sepsis is true?
A) Infections of the lungs commonly lead to sepsis, but sepsis is not typically associated with cases of pneumonia.
B) Patients who use urinary catheters are at a decreased risk of sepsis because catheter use makes it harder for microbes to enter the urinary tract.
C) The exact pathway for the development of sepsis remains unclear, and most cases do not have a clearly defined source.
D) Treatment of sepsis has changed and improved over time, but the definition of the condition has remained relatively unchanged.

Answer 6

C) The exact pathway for the development of sepsis remains unclear, and most cases do not have a clearly defined source.

Question 7

7) Which of the following patients is at the lowest risk of developing sepsis?
A) An elderly patient who is recovering from abdominal surgery
B) A pediatric patient who has developed pneumonia in both lungs
C) A patient with a compromised immune system who has a permanent gastrostomy tube
D) A college-aged patient who breaks his arm in a skateboard crash

Answer 7

D) A college-aged patient who breaks his arm in a skateboard crash

Question 8

8) According to the signs of systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS), which of the following infection patients has an increased risk of sepsis?
A) A patient with respiratory rate of 19 and a heart rate of 112
B) A patient with a systolic blood pressure of 75 mmHg and a respiratory rate of 18
C) A patient with a heart rate of 88 and a temperature of 99.6°
D) A patient with a temperature of 95.4°F and a respiratory rate of 28

Answer 8

D) A patient with a temperature of 95.4°F and a respiratory rate of 28

Question 9

9) According to the systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS) system, which of the following criteria would not contribute to a patient’s likelihood of developing sepsis?
A) Temperature of 95.3°F B) Respiratory rate of 32 C) Heart rate of 87 D) Systolic blood pressure of 76

Answer 9

C) Heart rate of 87

Question 10

10) Which of the following best describes a difference between the systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS) and the quick sepsis-related organ failure assessment (qSOFA)?
A) SIRS creates a score based on the number of abnormal findings, whereas qSOFA uses the presence of two or more specific criteria.
B) SIRS is more commonly used in the intensive care setting, whereas qSOFA is more commonly used in field assessments.
C) SIRS is used to predict the likelihood a patient will develop sepsis, whereas qSOFA is used to predict the likelihood of patient death from sepsis.
D) SIRS relies on the measurement of exhaled carbon dioxide to detect sepsis, whereas qSOFA uses a variety of measures.

Answer 10

C) SIRS is used to predict the likelihood a patient will develop sepsis, whereas qSOFA is used to predict the likelihood of patient death from sepsis.

Question 11

11) What is the most important thing you can do for a stable septic patient?
A) Attempt to lower the patient’s temperature. B) Open and maintain the patient’s airway.
C) Notify the emergency department that the patient is septic. D) Assess the patient using capnography.

Answer 11

C) Notify the emergency department that the patient is septic.

Question 12

12) You are called to the scene of a 13-year-old male with a fever and cough. Upon assessment, you note a red blotch rash on the face and trunk, and small bluish-white spots on the inside of the cheeks. Based on this presentation, the patient likely has: A) chickenpox. B) measles. C) shingles. D) hepatitis A.

Answer 12

B) measles.

Question 13

13) Mumps infection is primarily spread through:
A) saliva and droplets. B) blood and saliva. C) airborne droplets and direct contact. D) all body fluids.

Answer 13

A) saliva and droplets

Question 14

14) While caring for a patient known to have hepatitis B, you are splattered across the face with blood. You were not wearing eye protection at the time and some of the blood got onto your eyeball. You have never received your hepatitis B vaccination. Which of the following postexposure actions would not lower your risk of developing hepatitis B?
A) Washing your eye with water B) Receiving immune globulin
C) Having the vaccination D) Taking antiviral medication

Answer 14

D) Taking antiviral medication

Question 15

15) You have been called to the scene of a single vehicle crash. The victim lost control of the vehicle on an icy road and hit a tree. He shows signs of facial injury with bleeding, but is conscious and aware of his surroundings. Before you begin providing care to him, he tells you that he has HIV and is currently taking medication that has helped suppress his viral load. Based on this information, which of the following actions should you take?
A) Take Standard Precautions while providing care for the patient.
B) Call medical direction and ask how you should proceed.
C) Avoid direct contact with the patient but provide him with dressings he can apply himself.
D) Provide care without using precautions because his viral load is suppressed.

Answer 15

A) Take Standard Precautions while providing care for the patient.

Question 16

16) You are called to the scene of a patient with influenza. She tells you her symptoms started about 5 days ago and that she began taking antiviral medication 2 days ago. Her symptoms have not improved since taking the medication. What is the most likely reason the medication has been ineffective?
A) Antiviral medications for the flu work against the strains of the virus that are expected to be prevalent that year, and the medication isn’t effective against the strain this patient has.
B) Antiviral medications for the flu must be started within 2 days of symptom onset to be effective.
C) Antiviral medications are not effective against the flu because it is caused by bacteria rather than a virus.
D) Antiviral medication is often ineffective because the flu virus is capable of rapidly mutating inside the body.

Answer 16

B) Antiviral medications for the flu must be started within 2 days of symptom onset to be effective.

Question 17

17) You have been called to the scene of an 83-year-old woman with a high fever who reports chills and shortness of breath. She is tachypneic and showing signs of pain upon inspiration. You talk with her a bit and she seems confused and unaware of where she is, who she is, or who you are. Based on this presentation, the patient likely has:
A) pneumonia. B) pertussis. C) croup. D) tuberculosis.

Answer 17

A) pneumonia

Question 18

18) You have been called to the scene of a 19-year-old college student who is at his parents’ house for the weekend. The patient complains of sensitivity to light and nausea. He also has a headache and is covered in what appears to be a red rash that does not blanch when pressed. Your partner asks the patient to sit up straight and then bring his chin down to his chest. For which of the following diseases is your partner assessing this patient?
A) Tuberculosis B) Meningitis C) Hepatitis C D) Shingles

Answer 18

B) Meningitis

Question 19

19) What role do health care workers play in handling public crises related to newly recognized infectious diseases?
A) They implement the steps outlined by the CDC and other agencies to reduce the number of people who become infected.
B) They work closely with local health departments to determine the microbes responsible for the disease and how to treat them.
C) They report information about the outbreaks to the public and share information about the prevalence and spread of the conditions.
D) They disseminate information about diseases and their treatment to health care providers and institutions.

Answer 19

A) They implement the steps outlined by the CDC and other agencies to reduce the number of people who become infected.

Question 20

20) Which of the following is the most important thing you can do when treating patients during a public crisis related to a newly recognized infectious disease?
A) Gather data about patient signs and symptoms and report them to the local health department.
B) Follow the recommendations of the CDC and your local health department.
C) Share information with patients about the prevalence of the disease.
D) Tell patients not to worry because new reports exaggerate the severity of these diseases.

Answer 20

B) Follow the recommendations of the CDC and your local health department.

Question 21

hi

Question 22

The medical term for fainting​ is:
A.
syncope.
B.
vertigo.
C.
altered RAS status.
D.
dehydration.

Answer 22

A.
syncope.

Question 23

Looking at the following​ list, which of the items does NOT correctly compare the signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia and​ hyperglycemia?
A.
Hyperglycemia usually has a slower onset than hypoglycemia.
B.
The hypoglycemic patient usually complains of a​ headache, whereas the hyperglycemic patient does not.
C.
The hyperglycemic patient often has acetone​ breath, whereas the hypoglycemic patient does not.
D.
Hyperglycemic patients often have​ warm, red, dry​ skin, whereas hypoglycemic patients have​ cold, pale,​ moist, or clammy skin.

Answer 23

The hypoglycemic patient usually complains of a headache, whereas the hyperglycemic patient does not.

Question 24

The condition in which there is an insufficient amount of sugar in the blood is​ called:
A.
hyperglycemia.
B.
diabetic ketoacidosis.
C.
tachycardia.
D.
hypoglycemia.

Answer 24

D.
hypoglycemia.

Question 25

When assessing a conscious patient for a possible stroke using the Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke​ Scale, which of the following three functions should be tested by the​EMT? A. Ability to​ walk, control of facial​ muscles, and balance B. Ability to​ walk, ability to hold both arms in an extended position for 10​ seconds, and ability to name common objects C. Control of facial​ muscles, ability to​ speak, and ability to hold both arms in an extended position for 10 seconds D. ​Memory, ability to​ speak, and ability to track movement with the eyes

Answer 25

C. Control of facial​ muscles, ability to​ speak, and ability to hold both arms in an extended position for 10 seconds

Question 26

A hormone called insulin is secreted by​ the: A. islets of Langerhans in the liver. B. islets of Langerhans in the pancreas. C. gallbladder found in the pancreas. D. None of the above.

Answer 26

islets of langerhans in the pancreas

Question 27

f the blood sugar level is very​ high, which of the following may​ result? A. Excessive​ urination, excessive​ thirst, and excessive hunger B. ​Hyperactivity, excessive​ thirst, and polyuria C. Excessive​ insulin, excessive​ glucose, and excessive urination D. Polyuria and hyperactivity

Answer 27

excessive urine, excessive thirst, and excessive hunger

Question 28

For the​ EMT, which of the following is the most important question to ask of a diabetic patient or his family​ members? A. Do you have a family history of​ diabetes? B. Do you have a fruity taste in your​ mouth? C. When was the last time you had something to​ eat? D. What kind of insulin do you​ take?

Answer 28

C. When was the last time you had something to​ eat?

Question 29

What is​ epilepsy? A. A condition in which a person has generalized seizures that start in childhood B. A condition in which a person has multiple seizures usually controlled by medication C. A condition caused by congenital brain abnormalities that causes seizures only twice a year D. A condition in which a person has an aura followed by seizure usually caused by infection

Answer 29

B. A condition in which a person has multiple seizures usually controlled by medication

Question 30

A patient who demonstrates any one of the three symptoms from the Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale has​ a(n) ________% chance of having an acute stroke. A. 60 B. 70 C. 50 D. 80

Answer 30

B. 70

Question 31

our patient is a​ 21-year-old female with a history of epilepsy. She is having a convulsion upon your arrival. Which of the following should you​ do? A. Place a tongue depressor or spoon in the back of the mouth to prevent the patient from swallowing her tongue. B. Insert a bite​ block, cloth,​ wallet, or similar item between the​ patient's teeth to prevent her from biting her tongue. C. Move furniture and other objects away from the patient to prevent injury. D. Restrain the​ patient's extremities to prevent injury from flailing of the arms and legs

Answer 31

C. Move furniture and other objects away from the patient to prevent injury.

Question 32

Which of the following blood glucose levels is considered normal for an​ adult? A. 180​ mg/dL B. 80​ mg/dL C. 150​ mg/dL D. 40​ mg/dL

Answer 32

B. 80​ mg/dL

Question 33

Which of the following is NOT a sign of a hypoglycemic diabetic​ emergency? A. Anxiety B. ​Cold, clammy skin C. Slow heart rate D. Combativeness

Answer 33

C. Slow heart rate

Question 34

Which of the following is the LEAST important question in obtaining the history of a seizure patient in the prehospital​ setting? A. What was the patient doing before the​ seizure? B. Did the patient lose control of his​ bladder? C. How did the patient behave during the​ seizure? D. Does the patient have a family history of​ seizures?

Answer 34

Does the patient have a family history of seizures?

Question 35

The death of brain tissue due to deprivation of oxygen because of a blocked or ruptured artery in the brain is known as which of the​ following? A. Stroke B. Transient ischemic attack C. Seizure D. Aphasia

Answer 35

A. Stroke

Question 36

Compared to​ hypoglycemia, which of the following is TRUE of​ hyperglycemia? A. Its onset is more sudden. B. Its onset is more gradual. C. Its onset is preceded by an​ aura, such as hallucinations or detecting unusual odors. D. It is more easily treated in the prehospital environment than hypoglycemia.

Answer 36

Its onset is more gradual

Question 37

Which of the items below is NOT part of the Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke​ Scale? A. Test the patient for arm droop or lack of movement. B. Test for equal grip strength. C. Ask the patient to smile. D. Have the patient repeat a simple sentence.

Answer 37

B. Test for equal grip strength.

Question 38

You respond to a​ 32-year-old female who is having a seizure. You arrive on the scene to find the patient​ drowsy, confused, and complaining of a headache. This patient is demonstrating​ the: A. tonic phase. B. aura phase. C. postictal phase. D. clonic phase.

Answer 38

C. postictal phase.

Question 39

Your patient is an unresponsive​ 30-year-old male wearing a​ Medic-Alert bracelet indicating that he is a diabetic. The​ patient's coworkers came by his house to check on him when he did not show up for work and did not call in sick. Your assessment does not clearly indicate to you whether the patient may be hypoglycemic or hyperglycemic. Which of the following should you do​ next? A. Use your glucometer to check his blood sugar level. B. Use the​ patient's glucometer to check his blood sugar level. C. Apply oxygen and begin transport without taking further action. D. Administer oral​ glucose, as it will not cause additional harm in hyperglycemia but may prevent brain damage if the patient is hypoglycemic.

Answer 39

Apply oxygen and begin transport without taking further action

Question 40

Treatment of someone with a seizure disorder includes all of the following​ EXCEPT: A. removing objects that might harm the patient. B. placing the patient on the floor or ground. C. loosening restrictive clothing. D. placing a bite block in the​ patient's mouth so that he does not bite his tongue.

Answer 40

D. placing a bite block in the​ patient's mouth so that he does not bite his tongue.

Question 41

There are two types of​ seizures; if your patient is having a seizure that affects only one body part and does not cause her to lose​ consciousness, it is called​ a: A. partial seizure. B. generalized seizure. C. postictal seizure. D. ​tonic-clonic seizure.

Answer 41

partial seizure

Question 42

Your patient is a​ 44-year-old male with a history of diabetes. He is lying on the living room​ floor, unresponsive to all stimuli. He has a respiratory rate of 12 breaths per minute and heart rate of 112 beats per​ minute, and is pale and sweaty. Which of the following should you do to treat this​ patient? A. Apply oral glucose solution to a tongue depressor and insert it between the​ patient's cheek and gums. B. Place the patient in the recovery position to protect the airway and place oral glucose solution under the​ patient's tongue. C. Encourage the​ patient's family to administer his insulin. D. Place the patient in the recovery​ position, administer​ oxygen, and monitor his airway status.

Answer 42

D. Place the patient in the recovery​ position, administer​ oxygen, and monitor his airway status.

Question 43

Which of the following BEST describes status​ epilepticus? A. Two or more seizures with​ tonic-clonic activity without an intervening period of consciousness B. A seizure that occurs without a known cause C. A seizure involving convulsions on only one side of the body D. A period of drowsiness following​ tonic-clonic seizures

Answer 43

Two or more seizures with tonic-clonic activity without an intervening period of consciousness

Question 44

Your patient is waking up from a​ seizure; it was the​ patient's first seizure ever. When you ask what​ happened, the patient tells you she had the smell of fresh mown grass just before she seized. This sensation is known as​ a(n): A. aura. B. tonic phase. C. clonic phase. D. postictal phase

Answer 44

A. aura.

Question 45

Which of the following statements about seizures is NOT​ true? A. The most common seizure that EMTs are likely to be called on is a​ tonic-clonic seizure. B. A generalized seizure affects the entire brain. C. Many seizures are followed by an aura. D. A partial seizure affects one​ part, or one​ side, of the brain.

Answer 45

C. Many seizures are followed by an aura.

Question 46

Which of the following is the MOST critical piece of equipment to have immediately available for the seizure patient who has just stopped​ convulsing? A. Cervical collar B. Glucometer C. Bite block D. Suction

Answer 46

D. Suction

Question 47

Which of the following refers to difficulty in using words or understanding speech as a result of a​ stroke? A. Hemiparesis B. Ischemia C. Ataxia D. Aphasia

Answer 47

D. Aphasia

Question 48

Many diabetics today have an insulin pump. Which of the following statements about insulin pumps is NOT​ true? A. They are usually worn on the belt. B. They have a catheter that enters into the abdomen or thigh. C. They are about the size of a deck of cards. D. They are usually worn around the ankle.

Answer 48

D. They are usually worn around the ankle

Question 49

When someone is experiencing​ hypoglycemia, the body attempts to compensate by using the​ fight-or-flight mechanism of the autonomic nervous system. Which of the following is NOT one of the​ fight-or-flight responses? A. The heart pumps faster. B. Breathing accelerates. C. Blood vessels constrict. D. The skin is hot and dry.

Answer 49

D. The skin is hot and dry.

Question 50

The most common medical emergency for the diabetic is​ hypoglycemia, or low blood sugar. Which of the factors below is NOT a cause of​ hypoglycemia? A. Vomits a meal B. ​Over-exercises or​ over-exerts himself C. Takes too much insulin D. Reduces sugar intake by eating too much

Answer 50

D. Reduces sugar intake by eating too much

Question 51

You have arrived on the scene of a call for a possible stroke. On your​ arrival, the patient denies signs and​ symptoms, is alert and​ oriented, and moves all extremities well. Her husband states that before you arrived the patient could not move her right arm and the left side of her face seemed to be​ "slack." Which of the following has most likely​ occurred? A. The patient suffered a transient ischemic attack. B. The patient suffered a stroke. C. The patient has had a subarachnoid hemorrhage. D. The patient is suffering from aphasia.

Answer 51

A. The patient suffered a transient ischemic attack.

Question 52

Which of the following may result in hypoglycemia in the diabetic​ patient? A. Vomiting after eating a meal B. Lack of exercise C. Failure to take insulin or oral diabetes medications D. Overeating

Answer 52

A. Vomiting after a meal

Question 53

Your patient is a​ 59-year-old female with a sudden onset of slurred speech and weakness on her right side. Which of the following measures is​ appropriate? A. Keep the patient in a supine position. B. Test the​ patient's sensation with a series of​ pinpricks, beginning at the feet and working upward. C. Administer oral glucose and then assess the​ patient's blood sugar. D. Immediately transport the patient to a hospital with specialized treatment for stroke patients.

Answer 53

D. Immediately transport the patient to a hospital with specialized treatment for stroke patients.

Question 54

Which of the following is the most common cause of seizures in​ adults? A. Fever B. Head trauma C. Withdrawal from alcohol D. Failure to take prescribed medication

Answer 54

Failure to take prescribed medication

Question 55

Which of the following is the cause of most​ strokes? A. Blockage of an artery supplying part of the brain B. A ruptured cerebral artery due to an aneurysm C. A spasm in an artery supplying part of the brain D. A ruptured cerebral artery due to hypertension

Answer 55

A. Blockage of an artery supplying part of the brain

Question 56

Which of the following is LEAST important for the patient who has stopped seizing before the​ EMT's arrival at the​ scene? A. Requesting advanced life support B. Checking for mechanism of injury C. Suctioning D. Administering oxygen

Answer 56

A. Requesting advanced life support

Question 57

Which is NOT one of the steps in managing a patient experiencing dizziness and​ syncope? A. Apply cold packs to the​ patient's head. B. Loosen any tight clothing around the neck. C. Lay the patient flat. D. Administer oxygen.

Answer 57

A. Apply cold packs to the​ patient's head.

Question 58

Your patient is a​ 25-year-old female with a history of diabetes. She is​ confused, agitated, and verbally abusive to​ you, and she is very sweaty. Although she refuses to give a history of the present​ illness, which of the following should you suspect as the likely cause of the​ patient's presentation? A. Failure to intake sufficient sugar B. Excessive intake of foods high in​ sugar, such as soda or candy C. Failure to take her insulin D. A​ nondiabetic-related problem, such as a head injury or mental illness

Answer 58

A. Failure to intake sufficient sugar

Question 59

Which of the following is a typical cause of seizures in children 6 months to 3 years of​ age? A. Fever B. Chest pain C. Administration of glucose to a hyperglycemic patient D. Asthma

Answer 59

A. Fever

Question 60

The signs and symptoms of a transient ischemic attack​ (TIA) may last up​ to: A. 1 hour. B. 6 hours. C. 24 hours. D. 30 minutes.

Answer 60

C. 24 hours.

Question 61

During your primary​ assessment, you find your patient has an altered mental status. This could indicate which of the​ following? A. Problems with the RAS due to hypertension B. The need to complete a secondary assessment C. Failing respiratory system D. The need for suctioning of the airway

Answer 61

C. Failing respiratory system

Question 62

Which of the following is NOT a sign or symptom of​ stroke? A. Chest pain B. Vomiting C. Sudden impairment of vision D. Seizure

Answer 62

A. Chest pain

Question 63

Which of the following is characteristic of a patient with​ hyperglycemia? A. A​ "fruity" odor of the breath B. Use of excessive amounts of insulin or lack of adequate food intake C. Pale and sweaty​ skin, confusion, and increased heart rate D. Sudden onset of altered mental status

Answer 63

A. A​ "fruity" odor of the breath

Question 64

Which of the following is one of the most common characteristics of a​ stroke? A. ​Sudden, severe headache B. Weakness on one side of the body C. Projectile vomiting D. Sudden onset of violent behavior

Answer 64

B. Weakness on one side of the body

Question 65

Many factors that cause dizziness and syncope are generally related to​ the: A. lungs. B. kidneys. C. brain. D. heart.

Answer 65

C. brain.

Question 66

Your patient is a​ 70-year-old man whose wife called EMS because her husband began exhibiting unusual behavior. Upon your arrival you introduce yourself to the​patient, who​ responds, "Not until nine​ o'clock." This phenomenon is BEST described​ as: A. disorientation to time. B. expressive aphasia. C. receptive aphasia. D. unresponsive to verbal stimuli.

Answer 66

C. receptive aphasia.

Question 67

Most of the diabetic emergencies that you will be called to deal with will be related to hypoglycemia.​ However, occasionally you will experience an instance of hyperglycemia. In the list​ below, which item is NOT likely to be a sign or symptom of​ hyperglycemia? A. Reduced rate of breathing B. Nausea C. Excessive urination D. Chronic thirst

Answer 67

A. Reduced rate of breathing

Question 68

Which of the following is the role of glucose in the​ body? A. It provides energy for brain cells and other cells in the body. B. It is an essential building block for body​ tissues, such as muscle and bone. C. It allows the body to use insulin. D. It assists the pancreas in the manufacture of insulin.

Answer 68

A. It provides energy for brain cells and other cells in the body.

Question 69

Which of the following is an action of​ insulin? A. It assists the transfer of sugar from the stomach and small intestine to the bloodstream. B. It blocks the uptake of sugar by the​ body's cells. C. It helps the movement of sugar from the bloodstream to the cell. D. It increases the circulating level of glucose in the blood.

Answer 69

C. It helps the movement of sugar from the bloodstream to the cell.

Question 70

Which of the following is within the​ EMT's scope of practice for the treatment of the diabetic​ patient? A. Assisting the patient with the administration of his insulin B. Administration of oral glucose C. Rectal administration of glucose D. Both A and B

Answer 70

B. Administration of oral glucose

Question 71

Your patient is a​ 19-year-old female who is 7 months pregnant. She just experienced a seizure. Although she has no previous history of seizures or any other medical​condition, she was just diagnosed with​ pregnancy-induced hypertension. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the​ seizure? A. Hypoglycemia B. Trauma C. Eclampsia D. Any of the above

Answer 71

C. Eclampsia

Question 72

Many stroke patients are candidates for thrombolytic drugs. One of the most important things that an EMT can do to optimize the care of a stroke patient who is a candidate for the drugs​ is: A. transport to the closest hospital because the patient must go to the operating room as soon as possible. B. do a thorough physical exam of the patient. C. determine the exact time of onset of symptoms. D. transport the patient to a Level I trauma center.

Answer 72

C. determine the exact time of onset of symptoms.

Question 73

A seizure that occurs spontaneously from an unknown cause is​ called: A. toxinic. B. idiopathic. C. hypoglycemic. D. hypoxic.

Answer 73

B. idiopathic.

Question 74

Which of the following conditions may be mimicked by​ hypoglycemia? A. Intoxication B. Heart attack C. Respiratory distress D. All of the above

Answer 74

A. Intoxication

Question 75

With advances in​ clot-busting (thrombolytic)​ drugs, the patient has a window of​ ________ hours to receive treatment. A. 4 B. 6 C. 5 D. 3

Answer 75

D. 3

Question 76

You are on the scene of a​ 40-year-old male patient who is anaphylactic and still unresponsive following a single epinephrine injection. Prior to giving the​ injection, you inserted an oral airway and administered oxygen at 15 liters per minute by​ bag-valve mask and your partner found diminished lung sounds. Following the epinephrine​administration, your partner reassesses lung sounds and tells you that the patient is now wheezing loudly in all fields. What is the next action you should​ perform? A. Contact medical control and request to administer another dose of epinephrine. B. Place the patient on a nonrebreather mask. C. Discontinue bagging the patient. D. Hyperventilate the patient.

Answer 76

A. Contact medical control and request to administer another dose of epinephrine.

Question 77

Which of the following does not commonly lead to​ anaphylaxis? A. Cat dander B. Wasp stings C. Peanuts D. Penicillin

Answer 77

A. Cat dander

Question 78

You are treating a​ 28-year-old female who is 34 weeks pregnant. She has a history of bee sting anaphylaxis and was stung by a bee while in the garden. She is having severe respiratory distress and her blood pressure is​ 72/50 mmHg. Which of the following is the best option for the​ EMT? A. Administer the EpiPen® only on the advice of medical control. B. Immediately administer the​ patient's EpiPen®. C. Transport​ rapidly, bypassing the emergency department and taking the patient directly to the obstetrics unit of the hospital. D. Do not administer the EpiPen® under any circumstances.

Answer 78

A. Administer the EpiPen® only on the advice of medical control.

Question 79

Which of the following is the reason why infants rarely experience anaphylactic​ reactions? A. Allergens do not affect infants. B. Infants have not yet developed antibodies to allergens. C. Infants have received natural immunity to allergens from their mothers before birth. D. None of the above

Answer 79

B. Infants have not yet developed antibodies to allergens.

Question 80

Which of the following is not a sign or symptom of an allergic reaction involving the​ skin? A. Cyanosis B. Itching C. Flushing D. Hives

Answer 80

A. Cyanosis

Question 81

You respond to a local swim park for a​ 29-year-old male who was stung by a bee and​ "passed out." Upon​ arrival, you find the patient unresponsive to all stimuli with agonal respirations at 6 per minute. You insert an oral airway and administer oxygen at 15 liters per minute by​ bag-valve mask. You notice that it is difficult to bag the patient. Your partner listens to lung sounds and states they are very diminished in the upper fields and absent in the lower fields. What is the best​ action? A. Request orders from medical control to administer epinephrine. B. Request an ALS unit. C. Request orders from medical control for an emergency cricothyroidotomy. D. Hyperventilate the patient.

Answer 81

A. Request orders from medical control to administer epinephrine.

Question 82

Which of the following statements concerning severe allergic reactions is true​? A. A severe allergic reaction can be prevented by the use of an epinephrine​ auto-injector before exposure to the substance. B. Severe reactions often occur​ immediately, but they are occasionally delayed 30 minutes or more. C. Allergies do not develop until a person is in his late teens to early 20s. D. A severe allergic reaction occurs only when the patient has never been exposed to the substance before.

Answer 82

B. Severe reactions often occur​ immediately, but they are occasionally delayed 30 minutes or more.

Question 83

Which of the following is the result of histamine and other chemicals in the body during​ anaphylaxis? A. Urticaria occurs due to fluid being shunted from the​ skin, causing dehydration of tissue. B. Capillaries become​ leaky, bronchoconstriction​ occurs, and swelling appears in areas around the vocal cords. C. Blood vessels​ constrict, capillaries become​ leaky, and bronchoconstriction occurs. D. Bronchodilation​ occurs, blood vessels​ dilate, and swelling appears in areas around the vocal cords.

Answer 83

B. Capillaries become​ leaky, bronchoconstriction​ occurs, and swelling appears in areas around the vocal cords.

Question 84

Which of the following is the proper method of disposing of a used epinephrine​ auto-injector? A. Place the device in a rigid biohazardous sharps disposal container. B. Leave it at the scene for the patient or his family to dispose of. C. Bend the needle at an angle to prevent accidental punctures and place it in the trash. D. Take it to the hospital for disposal in the emergency department.

Answer 84

A. Place the device in a rigid biohazardous sharps disposal container.

Question 85

If a patient is having a myocardial infarction-not an allergic reaction-and receives an epinephrine​ auto-injection, which of the following will most likely​ occur? A. Bradycardia B. No reaction if administered inadvertently C. Stronger and faster heartbeat D. Relief of shortness of breath

Answer 85

C. Stronger and faster heartbeat

Question 86

After administering epinephrine per medical control via an​ auto-injector to an unresponsive anaphylactic adult​ patient, your partner reassesses the lung sounds. He tells you that the patient is now wheezing loudly in all fields whereas before the injection they were diminished in the upper fields and absent in the lower. What is your suspicion regarding the​ patient's condition? A. There is no change in the​ patient's condition. B. The​ patient's condition is improving. C. The patient is about to go into cardiac arrest. D. The​ patient's condition is worsening.

Answer 86

B. The​ patient's condition is improving.

Question 87

Your patient is a​ 7-year-old girl who was prescribed an antibiotic for an ear infection. After 4 days on the​ antibiotic, the patient is experiencing hives and itching on her​face, throat, and neck. Which of the following should you​ do? A. Advise the parents to call the pediatrician for a different antibiotic. B. Immediately administer EpiPen Jr.® C. Provide supportive care and monitor the​ patient's condition during transport to the hospital. D. Advise the parents that these symptoms are related to the ear infection and the antibiotic will take care of these symptoms if taken as directed.

Answer 87

C. Provide supportive care and monitor the​ patient's condition during transport to the hospital.

Question 88

You have responded to a park where you find a​ 23-year-old female sitting on a bench near a running trail. She states that she has been running for the past 30 minutes and suddenly cannot catch her breath. She states that this has never happened before and she usually runs 5 miles a day. Your assessment reveals that she is​flushed, her pulse is fast and​ weak, her respirations are fast and she is​ wheezing, and she has hives on her arms and chest. She is most likely suffering from which of the​ following? A. Hyperventilation syndrome B. Heat stroke C. Allergic reaction D. Anaphylaxis

Answer 88

D. Anaphylaxis

Question 89

Which of the following is included in the primary assessment of a conscious patient suffering from anaphylactic​ shock? A. Looking for hives and swelling B. Determining whether the​ patient's systolic blood pressure is over 100 mmHg C. Assessing whether the patient is able to speak without difficulty D. Finding out how the patient was exposed to the substance to which she is allergic

Answer 89

C. Assessing whether the patient is able to speak without difficulty

Question 90

Your patient is a​ 45-year-old female who is allergic to sesame​ seeds, which she accidentally ingested when she ate a deli sandwich. She is having difficulty breathing and she has​ hives, watery​ eyes, a weak pulse of 120 per​ minute, and swelling of the face and tongue. Which of the following is the best course of immediate​ action? A. Contact dispatch to see where the closest ALS unit is. B. Contact medical control for orders to administer the​ patient's epinephrine​ auto-injector. C. Insert an oropharyngeal airway​ (OPA). D. Transport immediately.

Answer 90

B. Contact medical control for orders to administer the​ patient's epinephrine​ auto-injector.

Question 91

You are called to a residence for a​ 60-year-old male complaining of chest pain. You find the patient seated in bed. His past medical history includes hypertension and high cholesterol. The patient presents with hives over the​ chest, stridor, a swollen​ tongue, and wheezing in the upper fields. He denies any shortness of breath or respiratory​ distress, but does so in short​ two- to​ three-word statements. What condition do you​ suspect? A. Asthma B. Anaphylaxis C. Acute myocardial infarction D. Angina pectoris

Answer 91

B. Anaphylaxis

Question 92

You are transporting a​ 41-year-old female suffering from severe anaphylaxis. Her respiratory rate is 42 per​ minute, she is​ cyanotic, and she has a decreased level of responsiveness. Which of the following is the highest priority of care for this​ patient? A. Search for an epinephrine​ auto-injector. B. Transport rapidly. C. Assist ventilations with a​ bag-valve mask. D. Elevate the​ patient's head.

Answer 92

C. Assist ventilations with a​ bag-valve mask.

Question 93

You are called to a residence for a​ 50-year-old male complaining of difficulty breathing. He is alert and oriented to​ time, place, and person. The patient presents with hives over the​ chest, stridor, a swollen​ tongue, and wheezing in the upper fields. He is breathing 32 times per minute. He is speaking in​ two- to​ three-word sentences. What is the best treatment for the​ patient? A. Oxygen at 15 liters per minute by​ bag-valve mask B. Oxygen at 15 liters per minute by nonrebreather mask C. Rapid transport to the nearest facility D. Administering epinephrine with consent from medical control

Answer 93

D. Administering epinephrine with consent from medical control

Question 94

Which of the following is not an indication that epinephrine is helping the anaphylaxis​ patient's condition? A. Increased blood pressure B. Increased heart rate C. Increased dyspnea D. Both B and C

Answer 94

C. Increased dyspnea

Question 95

Which of the following changes commonly occurs in the cardiovascular system during​ anaphylaxis? A. High blood pressure due to tachycardia B. Low blood pressure due to vasodilation C. High blood pressure due to vasoconstriction D. Low blood pressure due to bradycardia

Answer 95

B. Low blood pressure due to vasodilation

Question 96

Your patient has eaten a casserole that may have contained seafood. The patient is worried because he has a seafood allergy. Upon​ assessment, you find no signs or symptoms of anaphylaxis. The​ patient's vital signs are stable and he has an epinephrine​ auto-injector prescribed to him. Which of the following actions is most​appropriate? A. Assist him with the administration of his epinephrine​ auto-injector. B. Transport the patient rapidly before the onset of anaphylaxis. C. Try to find out if the casserole contained seafood. D. Advise the patient that he does not require treatment and transport at this time.

Answer 96

C. Try to find out if the casserole contained seafood.

Question 97

You are unsure whether a​ patient's condition requires the administration of an epinephrine​ auto-injector. Which of the following actions is most​ appropriate? A. Administer the​ epinephrine, just in case. B. Consult with a paramedic on your service for advice. C. Ask a family member if this is the type of situation when the patient usually takes his​ auto-injector. D. None of the above

Answer 97

D. None of the above

Question 98

When documenting the administration of an epinephrine​ auto-injector, which of the following should be​ included? A. Time the medication was administered B. Site of medication administration C. ​Patient's response to the medication D. All of the above

Answer 98

D. All of the above

Question 99

After activating the EpiPen® ​auto-injector, how long should it be held in place before removing it from the​ patient's thigh? A. 10 seconds B. It should be removed from the injection site immediately. C. 1 minute D. 30 seconds

Answer 99

A. 10 seconds

Question 100

Which of the following does a physician not take into consideration when writing a prescription for a patient to obtain an epinephrine​ auto-injector? A. Severity of previous allergic reactions B. ​Patient's medical history C. ​Patient's known allergies D. How far the patient lives from medical attention

Answer 100

D. How far the patient lives from medical attention

Question 101

You are called to a farmhouse on a sunny spring afternoon. Upon​ arrival, a frantic mother tells you that her​ 3-year-old daughter was playing in the​ yard, accidentally stepped on a​ hornets' nest, and was stung repeatedly. The patient is​ alert, screaming and​ crying, and can follow her​ mother's commands. Her arms and legs are swollen and show the marks of several stings. Her body is covered in hives. Her vital signs are blood pressure​ 90/40, pulse​ 110, respiratory rate​ 24, and oxygen saturation 99 percent. Her lung sounds are clear and equal bilaterally. Her mother states she put​ "nox-a-sting" on the bites but the bites only seemed to get worse. What condition is the patient suffering​ from? A. Moderate anaphylactic reaction B. Allergic reaction from the​ hornets' stings C. Anaphylactic reaction from the​ "nox-a-sting" swabs D. Minor anaphylactic reaction

Answer 101

B. Allergic reaction from the​ hornets' stings

Question 102

You are on the scene of a​ 22-year-old female patient who is unresponsive. The​ patient's mother states that she is deathly allergic to peanuts and accidentally ate stir fry cooked in peanut oil. The patient is unresponsive with agonal respirations at 6 per minute. What is your first​ action? A. Perform a complete assessment and confirm that the patient is actually in anaphylaxis. B. Administer epinephrine with medical control consent. C. Insert an oral airway and apply oxygen at 15 liters per minute by nonrebreather mask. D. Insert an oral airway and apply oxygen at 15 liters per minute by​ bag-valve mask.

Answer 102

D. Insert an oral airway and apply oxygen at 15 liters per minute by​ bag-valve mask.

Question 103

You are on the scene of a motor vehicle collision in which a car has driven off the roadway and is resting at the bottom of an embankment. The driver is in severe respiratory distress and is unable to speak. His skin is flushed and he has hives. A​ Medic-Alert bracelet indicates an allergy to peanuts. You notice a candy bar wrapper on the floor of the car. Which of the following should you do​ first? A. Search the patient for an epinephrine​ auto-injector. B. Read the candy wrapper to see if it contains peanuts. C. Perform rapid extrication. D. Administer​ high-concentration oxygen.

Answer 103

D. Administer​ high-concentration oxygen.

Question 104

Which of the following would you expect to hear when auscultating the lungs of a patient having an anaphylactic​ reaction? A. ​Fine, wet crackles or rales B. ​Coarse-sounding rhonchi C. ​Clear, adequate air movement D. Wheezing

Answer 104

D. Wheezing

Question 105

Which of the following is not a side effect of​ epinephrine? A. Pallor B. Vomiting C. Bradycardia D. Chest pain

Answer 105

C. Bradycardia

Question 106

Which of the following explains why a patient may experience difficulty breathing during​ anaphylaxis? A. Allergens clump together and block blood flow through the lungs. B. Swelling of the airway tissues causes difficulty breathing. C. Swelling in the brain decreases the respiratory drive. D. Allergens bind to​ hemoglobin, preventing it from carrying oxygen.

Answer 106

B. Swelling of the airway tissues causes difficulty breathing.

Question 107

Which of the following is an action caused by epinephrine in​ anaphylaxis? A. Bronchoconstriction B. Decreased heart rate C. Vasoconstriction D. All of the above

Answer 107

C. Vasoconstriction

Question 108

You are called to the local park on a hot summer day for an​ 8-year-old child in respiratory distress. The child can barely speak and appears to be getting sleepy. Vital signs are blood pressure​ 90/60, pulse​ 120, and respiratory rate 32. Your physical exam reveals a swollen​ tongue, inspiratory​ stridor, wheezing, and hives on the neck and chest. What condition do you​ suspect? A. Heat exhaustion B. Asthma C. Allergic reaction D. Anaphylaxis

Answer 108

D. Anaphylaxis

Question 109

Which of the following is a general term for a substance to which the body may have an anaphylactic​ reaction? A. Antibody B. Pathogen C. Pyrogen D. Allergen

Answer 109

D. Allergen

Question 110

A​ 35-year-old female has just eaten lobster and is now complaining of​ itchy, watery eyes. Her blood pressure is beginning to​ fall, but she denies difficulty breathing. Which of the following best describes her​ condition? A. Shock B. Anaphylaxis C. Dyspnea D. Mild allergy

Answer 110

B. Anaphylaxis

Question 111

Most epinephrine​ auto-injectors contain how many doses of​ epinephrine? A. Two B. One C. Three D. None of the above

Answer 111

B. One

Question 112

Your patient has a history of severe anaphylaxis and carries several​ auto-injectors. You have administered one of the​ auto-injectors, but the​ patient's condition continues to worsen. Which of the following is the next best course of​ action? A. Immediately administer a second​ auto-injector. B. Contact medical control. C. Continue supportive care en route to the hospital. D. Divert transport to a hospital with critical care capabilities.

Answer 112

B. Contact medical control.

Question 113

Which of the following happens to blood vessels during an anaphylactic​ reaction? A. Dilation B. No change C. Spasm D. Constriction

Answer 113

A. Dilation