Quiz 11, 12, 13 Flashcards
(159 cards)
1
Q
scene size-up
A
steps taken when approaching the scene
(checking scene safety, taking standard precautions, noting injury)
2
Q
Nature of the call
A
Determining why EMS has been called
– Mechanism of injury
– Nature of illness
3
Q
Mechanism of Injury
A
- Force(s) that may have caused injury
- Understanding forces can predict injury patterns.
- Can be very useful in predicting injuries associated with
certain types of motor vehicle crashes
4
Q
Mechanism of Injury
* Motor-vehicle collisions
A
– Head-on collisions
▪ Up-and-over injury pattern
▪ Down-and-under injury pattern
clues of this can be windshield damage
– Rear-end collisions
– Side-impact collisions (broadside or “T-bone”)
– Rollover collisions
– Rotational impact collisions
▪ Cars are struck then spin.
▪ Initial impact often causes subsequent impacts.
5
Q
Mechanism of Injury
Falls
A
– Adult
▪ More than twenty feet
– Child under fifteen years
▪ More than ten feet (two to three times child’s height)
6
Q
What are the steps of scene size-up?
A
- Check scene safety
- Taking standard precautions (BSI)
- Note mechanism of injury or nature of illness
- Determine number of patients
- Decide what additional resources are needed
7
Q
What should you do when approaching the scene?
A
- Look and listen for other emergency vehicles
- Look for signs of collision-related power outages
- Look for traffic flow
- Look for smoke in the direction of the collision
8
Q
What should you do when within the sight of the scene?
A
- Look for things that signify HAZMAT
- Look for collision victims on/near road
- Look for smoke
- Look for broken utility poles and downed wires
- Look for people walking around scene
- Look for signals of police and other EMS providers
9
Q
What should you do as you reach the scene?
A
- Wear appropriate PPE
- Follow instructions of incident commander
10
Q
How should you establish the danger zone?
A
Evaluate hazard and restrict it based on on threat level (different levels of danger require bigger danger zones)
11
Q
What should you do when there are downed power lines?
A
Establish the danger zone beyond each intact pole for a full span and to the sides for the distance that the severed wires could reach. Stay out of danger zone until utility company has deactivated the wires or rescuers have moved and anchored them.
12
Q
What should you do when a vehicle is on fire (no other hazards involved)?
A
Park ambulance at least 100 feet away and park upwind
13
Q
What should you do when there is hazardous material threatened by a fire?
A
The size of danger zone is determined by the type of material. Use binoculars to read the placard on the truck and refer to Emergency Response Guidebook. Park upwind.
14
Q
What should you do when there is spilled fuel?
A
Park upwind from direction of spill. If not possible, park as far away from possible, avoiding anything that may carry the spill to the parking site.
15
Q
How hot is the ambulances catalytic converter?
A
1,000 F
16
Q
What should you do when there is HAZMAT?
A
Park upwind. If the type of material is known, seek advice through CHEMTREC through the incident commander
17
Q
What should you look for when evaluating for threat of violence?
A
- Fighting/Loud voices
- Weapons
- Signs of alcohol/drug use
- Unusual silence
- Knowledge of prior violence
18
Q
What is the nature of the call?
A
Why EMS has been called
1. Mechanism of injury
2. Nature of illness
19
Q
What is the mechanism of injury?
A
The forces that caused the injury (can predict possible injuries)
20
Q
What injuries often occur in a head-on collision?
A
Up and Over injury pattern
Down and Under injury pattern
21
Q
What are the types of motor vehicle collisions?
A
Head-on
Rear-end
Rollover
Rotational
22
Q
What 5 things should you look for in any motor vehicle accident?
A
- Ejection
- Deformaties in the vehicle
- Amount of vehicle deformities
- Seatbelt use
- Airbag deployment
23
Q
What is considered a severe fall?
A
Adults: More than 20 feet
Children under 15: More than 10 feet or 2-3X child’s hight
24
Q
What are 4 important factors to consider regarding falls?
A
- Hight which the patient fell from
- Surface patient fell onto
- Part of patient that hit the ground
- Anything that interrupted fall
25
What is important to consider when there are low velocity injuries?
1. Damage limited to area penetrated
2. May be multiple wounds
26
What are medium-velocity injuries?
Handgun/Shotgun
arrow or ballistic knife
27
What are high-velocity injuries?
Rifle
28
What are some possible damages from velocity injuries?
Damage from bullet itself and damage from cavitation
29
What is blunt-force trauma?
An injury caused by a blow that strikes body but does no penetrate. Signs are often hard to pick up on
30
What should you consider when evaluating the number of patients?
How many patients are there?
Are there enough resources to care for all the patients?
31
What special resources may you need to contact? (6)
1. Fire
2. Technical Rescue
3. HAZMAT response
4. Highway dept (DPW)
5. Light Department
6. Police
32
according to the book, what is the primary assessment?
the first element in the patient assessment; steps taken for the purpose of discovering or dealing with any life-threatening problems. the six parts are:
- forming general impression
- assessing mental status
- assessing airway
- assessing breathing
- assessing circulation
- determining priority for treatment and transport
33
what are some general considerations to take into account when deciding the sequence of your primary assessment?
vomit that may choke the patient
life-threatening bleeding
breathing
evaluate for shock
33
if the person has an altered mental status, what are possible causes you should be aware of during the primary assessment?
hypoxia, diabetes, overdose, seizure, vomitus blocking airway
34
what is a general impression?
impression of the patient's condition formed on first approaching the patient, based on the patient's environment, chief complaint, and appearance
35
during the primary assessment, a patient appears anxious, pale, and sweaty. these indicate what?
shock, rapid pulse and respirations
36
what is Levine's sign?
the classic sign of chest pain, a fist clenched over chest
37
what is the chief complaint?
the reason EMS was called, usually in the patient's own words
38
what is clinical judgement?
judgement based in experience in observing and treating patients
39
what is a patient's mental status?
level of responsiveness
40
what does AVPU and when should you do it?
primary assessment
alert, verbal response, painful response, unresponsive
41
what are solutions to a compromised airway?
suction, adjunct, jaw-thrust, head-tilt chin-lift, oro or nasopharyngeal airway
42
if the patient is in respiratory arrest with a pulse, you should...
perform rescue breathing
43
if the patient is not alert and their breathing is inadequate, you should...
provide positive pressure ventilations with 100% O2
44
if the patient has some level of alertness and inadequate breathing, you should...
assist with ventilations with 100% O2, synchronize ventilations with patient's own respirations so they are working together
45
if the patient's breathing is adequate but there are signs and symptoms suggesting respiratory distress or hypoxia, you should...
provide O2 based on need, the patient's complaint and level of stress, and pulse oximetry readings
46
what are high priority conditions?
poor general impression
unresponsive
responsive, but not following commands
difficulty breathing
shock
complicated childbirth
chest pain consistent witih cardiac problems
uncontrolled bleeding
severe pain anywhere
47
how long should capillary refill take on a child?
less than 2 seconds, keep in mind environment - if it is cold, may take longer
48
what pulse is considered tachycardic?
above 100 beats per min
49
what pulse is considered bradychardic?
less than 60 beats per min
50
what is the normal pulse for an adult?
60-100 bpm
51
in an emergency, it is not uncommon for an adult's pulse to be between.....
100-140 bpm
52
in an emergency, if the pulse stays above ____ or below ____ consider immediate transport
120, 50
53
on an infant or child, is a high or low pulse worse? what can it mean?
low pulse, cardiac arrest imminent
54
if the pulse rate, rhythm, or force is not normal, you should...
take the pulse for a whole minute
55
what special considerations are there for someone with a ventricular assist device?
can't fell pulse or BP because it is pumping blood constantly
56
if the respirations are above _____ or below ____ for an adult, it is serious
24, 10
57
what does a patient with snoring respirations need?
airway opened
58
gurgling respirations mean...
patient needs suction
59
wheezing during breath means the patient may need...
help with medication (asthma)
60
where are the best places to evaluate skin on adults?
insides of cheeks, nail beds, and the inside of the lower eyelids
61
where are the best places to evaluate skin on children and infants?
palms of hands and soles of feet
62
where is the best place to evaluate skin on someone with dark skin?
lips and nail beds
63
what is mottling and what does it mean? what age group is it more common in?
blotchy, means shock, most common for children and elderly
64
if the patient's forehead is cold, what should you do to further assess?
feel the abdomen
65
for infants and children under 6, you need to assess...
capillary refill, needs to refill in less than 2 seconds
66
when checking the eyes, make sure to _____ to make sure that they are both reactive
shine the light in one eye at a time
67
if a patient is above ____/____, it is considered hypertension
140/90
68
when the systolic is below ____ it is seriously low BP
90
69
what ranges are prehypertension?
121-81 or 139-89
70
the cuff should cover __/__ of the arm
2/3
71
release the BP bulb at _____-_____ per second
5-10mm
72
blood pressure is reported in (even/uneven) numbers
even
73
stable patients need vitals checked every ___ minutes
15
74
unstable patients need vitals checked every ___ minutes
5
75
what does febrile mean?
feverish
76
what is a tympanic thermometer?
one that goes in the ear, not very accurate
77
older people have (higher/lower) temps than younger people
lower
78
a rectal temp is ___ degree higher than the oral, and auxillary is ___ degree lower
1 and 1
79
a normal temp is between...
96-100 degrees
80
what is the normal range for O2?
69-100 percent
81
91-95% O2 means...
mild hypoxia
82
86-90% O2 means...
significant or moderate hypoxia
83
85% or less O2 means...
severe hypoxia
84
the oximiter is inaccurate in what situations?
shick, hypothermic, CO2 poisoning, patent moving too much, nail polish, cigarettes
85
a blood glucose meter measures glucose in...
milligrams
86
a normal glucose is at least... and no more than...
60-80, 120-140
87
what does a reflective vest have to be approved by?
ANSI
88
when there are no apparent hazards, how far should the ambulance be parked from a collision?
at least 50 feet from all directions
89
what disease requires a N-95 or HEPA mask?
tuberculosis
90
what is MOI?
mechanism of injury - a force or forces that may have caused injury
91
how many collisions are there in a motor-vehicle accident and what are they?
vehicle to object, person to vehicle, organs to person
92
what constitutes a low velocity trauma?
objects propelled by hand: knives
93
what is blunt force trauma?
injury caused by a blow that does not penetrate the skin or other body tissues
94
what is index of suspicion?
awareness that there may be injuries
95
what is the nature of the illness?
what is medically wrong with a patient
96
A 31-year-old female is experiencing an acute asthma attack. She is conscious and alert, but in obvious respiratory distress. After assisting her with her prescribed MDI, you should:
reassess the patient and document her response to the medication
97
Which of the following is NOT determined in a scene size-up?
A.
Need for additional resources
B.
Potential hazards to the EMS crew
C.
Mechanism of injury
D.
Chief complaint
D.
Chief complaint
98
As you are assessing a 32-year-old asthmatic woman who has called EMS due to difficulty breathing, her husband enters the home through a back door and shouts, "Get your hands off her; she doesn't need your help. She needs to be taught a lesson about her smart mouth." Which of the following is the best course of action?
A.
Request police backup immediately and consider leaving the scene.
B.
Attempt to remove the patient from the home and continue treatment en route to the hospital.
C.
Let the husband know that his behavior is inappropriate, and if it continues you will call for the police.
D.
Continue assessment and respond that the patient is sick and needs medical attention.
A.
Request police backup immediately and consider leaving the scene.
99
Which of the following situations will NOT require additional resources at the scene?
A.
A call for a sick person at home during which an odor of natural gas is detected
B.
A 300-pound woman complaining of back pain
C.
A call to a manufacturing plant where a worker has his hand caught in a machine
D.
A patient with emphysema who is on oxygen therapy at home
D.
A patient with emphysema who is on oxygen therapy at home
100
Which of the following may be a hazard at the scene of a vehicle collision?
A.
Electrocution
B.
Other emergency vehicles
C.
Hazardous materials
D.
All of the above
D.
All of the above
101
As you approach the scene of a motorcycle accident, you see an EMR trying to stop the bleeding on the patient's left arm. You notice that the EMR has blood covering the front of his shirt and running down his arms. What Standard Precautions are needed?
A.
Gloves, gown, and face mask with eye shield are needed.
B.
There is no need for Standard Precautions because you have no open injuries.
C.
Gloves, gown, eye protection, and an N-95 or HEPA respirator are needed.
D.
Gloves and gown only are needed.
A.
Gloves, gown, and face mask with eye shield are needed.
102
You and your partner are en route to a motor vehicle crash involving a tanker truck on a rural road. Dispatch informs you that fluid is leaking from the truck, that there are several bystanders passed out on the ground near the cab of the truck, and that a caller has reported the code that appears on a placard attached to the tanker truck. You should:
A.
consult the Emergency Response Guidebook.
B.
remove the bystanders from the scene.
C.
park downwind from the tanker truck.
D.
park about 50 feet from the truck.
A.
consult the Emergency Response Guidebook.
103
You are on the scene of an explosion at a suspected methamphetamine manufacturing operation. You and your partner are the first to arrive and note two middle-aged men and a woman on the front lawn with burns and cuts on their faces and arms. The fire department is en route. Which of the following resources should be the LEAST important to be requested by the EMT during the scene size-up?
A.
Law enforcement
B.
One or two additional ambulances
C.
Hazardous material clean-up crew
D.
Gas company
C.
Hazardous material clean-up crew
104
Your patient fell out of a tree while putting the roof on a tree house. A 15-foot ladder is required to enter the tree house and there is enough room for an adult to stand up inside. Your patient should be transported to:
A.
an urgent care center.
B.
a trauma center.
C.
the closest hospital.
D.
a neurosurgery center.
B.
a trauma center.
105
You are dispatched to a local bar for the report of an unresponsive female patient found in the bathroom. As you approach the scene, you notice a large crowd outside the front door holding beer bottles. The group has pulled the patient outside. As you approach the scene, people from the group start yelling, "Do something! She's not breathing." What concerns you the most about this scene?
A.
The crowd stating the patient is not breathing
B.
The fact that the patient has been moved from where she was found
C.
The possibility that the patient may be intoxicated
D.
The large crowd that has been drinking and is now yelling at you
D.
The large crowd that has been drinking and is now yelling at you
106
Your patient, a 29-year-old female, was the front seat passenger in a vehicle that was struck in the passenger's side door by another vehicle that ran a red light. Which of the following is most likely to have occurred?
A.
The patient's body was pushed forcefully out from under her head, causing injury to the cervical spine.
B.
The patient took the "down and under" pathway, causing trauma to her lower extremities.
C.
The patient took the "up and over" pathway, striking her head on the windshield.
D.
The patient impacted the steering wheel with her chest, causing a fracture of the sternum.
A.
The patient's body was pushed forcefully out from under her head, causing injury to the cervical spine.
107
In which of the following situations should the EMT consult the Emergency Response Guidebook?
A.
Downed power lines at the scene of a vehicle collision
B.
Patient with a suspected infectious disease
C.
Chlorine gas leak at a public swimming pool
D.
Domestic disturbance with the potential for violence
C.
Chlorine gas leak at a public swimming pool
108
You and your partner respond to a residence for a fall. You arrive to find a group of approximately 30 adults surrounding a middle-aged man who appears to be unconscious. A police car pulls in behind you. You should:
A.
leave the area and stage until the scene is cleared of people.
B.
have the police officer drag the victim over to the ambulance.
C.
enter the scene ahead of the police officer to provide care.
D.
wait for the police officer to assess the safety of the scene.
D.
wait for the police officer to assess the safety of the scene.
109
Which of the following is true concerning the potential for violence at the scene of an EMS call?
A.
An unusual lack of activity at the scene may signal impending violence against the EMT.
B.
Signs of impending violence are obvious if you know what to look for.
C.
The chance for violence is very low at emergency scenes.
D.
You do not need to worry about violence at an emergency scene once the police have secured it.
A.
An unusual lack of activity at the scene may signal impending violence against the EMT.
110
Which of the following situations requires additional action by the EMT during scene size-up?
A.
The sound of a barking and growling dog upon approaching the door to a residence.
B.
A vehicle collision where bystanders are recording video on their phones.
C.
A bystander who is smoking a cigarette at the scene of an assault at a local park.
D.
A news media helicopter arrives and hovers overhead at the scene of a vehicle collision.
A.
The sound of a barking and growling dog upon approaching the door to a residence.
111
You should have a keen awareness that there may be injuries based on your scene size-up. This is known as which of the following?
A.
Nature of illness
B.
Index of suspicion
C.
Mechanism of injury
D.
Law of inertia
B.
Index of suspicion
112
You are called to a motor vehicle collision where the car is on fire. You should ensure safety by:
A.
using your fire extinguisher to put out the fire.
B.
remaining a safe distance from the car until the fire is out.
C.
borrowing turnout gear from the fire department.
D.
putting your unit back in service and leaving the scene.
B.
remaining a safe distance from the car until the fire is out.
113
Which of the following will deliver a medium velocity impact?
A.
Ice pick
B.
Bullet from an assault rifle
C.
Bullet from a handgun
D.
Butcher knife
C.
Bullet from a handgun
114
As you arrive at the scene of a house fire, a very upset man screams at you to help his young son, who is trapped under a piece of burning wood on the ground. Which of the following should you do first?
A.
Size-up the scene before acting.
B.
Perform an initial assessment on the patient.
C.
With the father's help, grab the boy by the arms and pull him from underneath the wood.
D.
Use a blanket to put out the fire on the piece of wood.
A.
Size-up the scene before acting.
115
You have just arrived on the scene of a motor vehicle collision in which a compact car was struck from behind by a delivery truck. The driver of the delivery truck is standing outside his vehicle talking to police when you arrive, but the driver of the car is still seated in the driver's seat. You have noted moderate damage to the rear of the car. For which of the following injuries should you have the highest level of suspicion?
A.
Fractures of the lower extremities
B.
Chest injury
C.
Abdominal injuries
D.
Neck injury
D.
Neck injury
116
An injury caused by an object that passes through the skin or other body tissue is known as which of the following?
A.
Cavitating trauma
B.
Penetrating trauma
C.
Impaling trauma
D.
Puncturing trauma
B.
Penetrating trauma
117
At what point is the scene size-up complete?
A.
Upon stabilization of the c-spine
B.
At the end of the call
C.
When the number of patients has been determined
D.
When crashed vehicles have been stabilized
B.
At the end of the call
118
What law of physics explains why a patient's liver can be injured from the impact of his car with a tree?
A.
Law of kinetic energy
B.
Law of inertia
C.
Second law of motion
D.
Newton's law of moving energy
B.
Law of inertia
119
At which of the following points should you begin your scene size-up?
A.
When you arrive on the scene, but before exiting the ambulance
B.
When the patient or family member opens the door to the residence
C.
After exiting the ambulance, but before making patient contact
D.
As you approach the scene in the ambulance
D.
As you approach the scene in the ambulance
120
When considering the potential for injury from a fall, which of the following is LEAST important?
A.
Patient's weight
B.
Type of surface onto which the patient fell
C.
Height of the fall
D.
Whether the patient struck anything with his body on the way down
A.
Patient's weight
121
When should the EMT evaluate the need for Standard Precautions?
A.
An evaluation should be made throughout the call.
B.
An evaluation should be made before arrival on-scene.
C.
No evaluation is ever needed, since the precautions are the same for every call.
D.
An evaluation should be made once a general impression of the patient has been formed.
A.
An evaluation should be made throughout the call.
122
A fall is considered severe anytime an adult patient has fallen more than ________ feet.
A. 10
B. 15
C. 20
D. 8
C.
20
123
You are on the scene of a tanker truck versus passenger vehicle collision on a rural highway. The vehicles are just beyond a curve in the roadway and there is a distinct odor of diesel fuel. It is dark and there is little traffic. Which of the following should be used to alert oncoming traffic to the situation?
A.
Yellow crime scene tape
B.
Flares
C.
Flashing lights on the ambulance
D.
Reflective triangles
D.
Reflective triangles
124
Which of the following BEST describes blunt-force trauma?
A.
The object is not sharp, but it penetrates the body when enough force is used.
B.
An object strikes the body, but it does not penetrate the body tissues.
C.
The object penetrates soft tissue, but it cannot penetrate bone.
D.
A rounded object impacts the body tissues.
B.
An object strikes the body, but it does not penetrate the body tissues.
125
Which of the following is NOT a consideration that should be used by the EMT in establishing the size of the danger zone?
A.
Presence of hazardous materials
B.
Wind direction
C.
Fire
D.
Amount of equipment needed
D.
Amount of equipment needed
126
Where should the EMT assess for injury when caring for a patient who had a two-story fall and landed square on his feet?
A.
Patient's lower back
B.
Patient's femur
C.
Patient's ankles
D.
All of the above
D.
All of the above
127
When determining possible injuries suffered from a gunshot wound, which of the following is true?
A.
Bullets pass in a straight line through the body from the point of entry to the exit wound.
B.
The EMT must be aware that bullets cause damage in more than one way.
C.
The EMT must ask the patient or bystanders exactly where the shooter was standing.
D.
The EMT must determine the caliber of ammunition involved.
B.
The EMT must be aware that bullets cause damage in more than one way.
128
At the scene of a vehicle collision in which there are no apparent hazards, which of the following guidelines should be followed for establishing a danger zone?
A.
The danger zone should be 15 feet in all directions.
B.
The danger zone should be 150 feet in all directions.
C.
The danger zone should be 50 feet in all directions.
D.
There is no need to establish a danger zone when there are no apparent hazards.
C.
The danger zone should be 50 feet in all directions.
129
Which of the following is true concerning scene size-up?
A.
The need for additional resources must be determined on both medical and trauma calls.
B.
Information from bystanders is not important on trauma calls.
C.
Determining the number of patients is not important on a medical call.
D.
Scene size-up does not play a role in determining the nature of the illness.
A.
The need for additional resources must be determined on both medical and trauma calls.
130
What BEST defines the immediate sense of the patient's degree of distress, formulated from the patient's immediate environment, appearance, and chief complaint?
a. General impression
b. Primary assessment
c. Scene size-up
d. Secondary assessment
a. General impression
131
In EMS, what does mental status refer to?
a. Patient's level of awareness of his surroundings
b. Any history of mental illness that the patient may have
c. Patient's general level of intelligence
d. None of these
a. Patient's level of awareness of his surroundings
132
Which of the following represents the correct order of assessment for the EMT during the primary assessment from start to end?
a. General impression, mental status, airway, breathing, circulation, patient priority
b. Mental status, general impression, airway, breathing, circulation, patient priority
c. Patient priority, general impression, mental status, airway, breathing, circulation
d. None of these
a. General impression, mental status, airway, breathing,
133
You are at the scene where a 19-year-old female college student has been drinking large quantities of alcohol throughout the evening. On your arrival, the patient is lying on her back with no signs of trauma, has vomited, and has slow, wet sounding respirations. Which of the following should you do next?
a. Determine the respiratory rate.
b. Check for carotid and radial pulses.
c. Assist respirations with a bag-valve-mask device.
d. Open the patient's airway using a head-tilt, chin-lift maneuver.
d. Open the patient's airway using a head-tilt, chin-lift maneuver.
134
A patient whose mental status can be described as "verbal" is able to:
a. tell you his or her name, his or her location, and what day it is.
b. respond only to a stimulus such as the EMT rubbing his sternum with his knuckles.
c. talk spontaneously and respond to the EMT's questions.
d. respond to speaking or shouting by opening the eyes.
d. respond to speaking or shouting by opening the eyes.
135
For which of the following patients would capillary refill be a reliable sign of circulatory status?
a. 24-year-old homeless man who has spent the night outside in the rain
b. 92-year-old man complaining of weakness on his right side
c. 50-year-old woman complaining of chest pain
d. 3-year-old child with a fever and cough
d. 3-year-old child with a fever and cough
136
During the primary assessment of a responsive adult patient, where should the pulse be checked?
a. At the radial artery
b. At the femoral artery
c. At the brachial artery
d. At the carotid artery
a. At the radial artery
137
Which of the following differences should be expected when assessing a pediatric patient, as compared to the adult patient?
a. The normal pulse rate is slower.
b. Capillary refill is not as reliable an indicator of circulatory status.
c. The normal respiratory rate is faster.
d. An adult's tongue is proportionally larger than that of a child and should always be considered as a potential airway obstruction.
c. The normal respiratory rate is faster.
138
During the primary assessment of an unresponsive two-month old infant, which pulse should be palpated?
a. Brachial
b. Carotid
c. Umbilical
d. Radial
a. Brachial
139
You are approaching an adult female lying supine on the ground with snoring respirations. You should:
a. open her airway with a jaw-thrust maneuver.
b. insert an oropharyngeal airway.
c. insert a nasopharyngeal airway.
d. ventilate with a bag-valve mask.
a. open her airway with a jaw-thrust maneuver.
140
When the heart contracts and forces blood into the arteries, the pressure created is known as the:
a. pulse pressure.
b. systolic blood pressure.
c. diastolic blood pressure.
d. central venous pressure.
b. systolic blood pressure.
141
A patient with a pulse rate of 120 beats per minute is considered which of the following?
a. Dyscardic
b. Normocardic
c. Tachycardic
d. Bradycardic
c. Tachycardic
142
The first set of vital sign measurements obtained are often referred to as which of the following?
a. Baseline vital signs
b. Normal vital signs
c. Standard vital signs
d. None of these
a. Baseline vital signs
143
You are unable to find a radial pulse on a patient from a motor vehicle crash. You should:
a. listen for heart sounds
b. begin chest compressions.
c. attempt to find the carotid pulse.
d. apply the pulse oximeter.
c. attempt to find the carotid pulse.
144
The increase in the work of breathing is reported as:
a. labored breathing.
b. troubled breathing.
c. noisy breathing.
d. obstructed breathing.
a. labored breathing.
145
Which of the following is the BEST way to assess a patient's skin temperature?
a. Place your cheek against the patient's forehead.
b. Place the back of your hand against the patient's forehead.
c. Place your cheek against the patient's abdomen.
d. Place the back of your hand against the patient's abdomen.
b. Place the back of your hand against the patient's forehead.
146
When the EMT checks the pupils he or she is checking for what three things?
a. Movement, gaze, and equality
b. Color, equality, and reactivity
c. Reactivity, gaze, and equality
d. Size, equality, and reactivity
d. Size, equality, and reactivity
147
when taking blood pressure, the cuff should be inflated to what point?
a. 30 mmHg beyond the point where the pulse disappears
b. Until the patient says it hurts
c. Until the Velcro starts to crackle
d. Until the gauge reads 200 mmHg
a. 30 mmHg beyond the point where the pulse disappears
148
What category would include a patient with a blood pressure of 134/84 mmHg?
a. Hypotension
b. Normotension
c. Hypertension
d. Prehypertension
d. Prehypertension
149
The patient was a driver in a lateral impact motor vehicle collision. During the assessment of his chest, the EMT notes a segment of the chest wall moving in the opposite direction from the rest of the chest. Which of the following BEST describes this finding?
a. Flutter segment
b. Tension pneumothorax
c. Paradoxical movement
d. Intercostal retractions
c. Paradoxical movement
150
You are called for a patient who is complaining of being weak and dizzy. He reports that he does not have enough money to pay for his medications so he has not gotten them refilled. Your service has an automatic blood pressure machine and you use it to measure the patient's blood pressure while you count his respirations. The blood pressure machine reports a blood pressure of 280/140. What should you do next?
a. Call immediately for ALS response.
b. Begin transport immediately.
c. Continue with vital sign assessment.
d. Take a manual blood pressure.
d. Take a manual blood pressure.
151
Your 76-year-old female patient is having trouble breathing. When you auscultate her lungs, you hear crackles (rales) and you are concerned that she may have pulmonary edema. Her oxygen saturation is 92%, so you place her on 100% oxygen via a nonrebreather mask. Her breathing gets a little easier with the oxygen. You decide to expedite transport since she is anxious about her condition. Later, as you are completing your reassessment, you see that her respirations have slowed to 8 times per minute and she is barely staying awake. What should you do next?
a. Ask your partner to pull over and wait for ALS backup.
b. Assist her with using her metered-dose inhaler.
c. Shake her to keep her awake.
d. Begin ventilating her with a bag-valve mask.
d. Begin ventilating her with a bag-valve mask.
152
Your patient is a 22-year-old college student complaining of abdominal pain. She is alert and oriented, although somewhat uncomfortable. Which of the following should be your first action?
a. Take the patient's roommate aside and ask about the patient's medical history.
b. Palpate the patient's abdomen for tenderness and guarding.
c. Ask the patient to describe the pain and find out if she has other complaints.
d. Perform a rapid head-to-toe physical examination.
c. Ask the patient to describe the pain and find out if she has other complaints.
153
In medical terms, bruises are known as which of the following?
a. Abrasion
b. Discoloration
c. Blemish
d. Contusion
d. Contusion
154
You have responded for a patient with shortness of breath. He reports that his breathing problems began this morning and have gotten worse over the last few hours. You ask if he has taken anything to help his symptoms and he tells you that he has used his inhaler several times in the last hour. The information you have just gathered can be classified as:
a. the history of present illness.
b. relevant past medical history.
c. results of a rapid physical exam.
d. part of the SAMPLE history.
a. the history of present illness.
155
When using the memory aid SAMPLE, which of the following would you do to determine L?
a. Look at the patient's pupils.
b. Ask, "When was the last time you took your medicine?"
c. Listen to the patient's lung sounds.
d. Ask, "When was the last time you had anything to eat or drink?"
d. Ask, "When was the last time you had anything to eat or drink?"
156
On which of the following patients should a reassessment be performed?
a. All patients should be reassessed
b. Patient with chest pain
c. Patient with a gunshot wound
d. Patient having difficulty breathing
a. All patients should be reassessed
157
The process by which an EMT forms a field diagnosis is known as:
a. critical thinking.
b. differential thinking.
c. clinical thinking.
d. diagnostic thinking.
a. critical thinking.
158
A description of a patient's condition that assists a clinician in further evaluation and treatment is known as which of the following?
a. Red flag
b. Critical thinking
c. Diagnosis
d. Clinical decision
c. Diagnosis
