Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

WAPS > Chapter 5 > Flashcards

Chapter 5 Flashcards

1
Q

AFI 10-2501 defines a major accident as an accident involving DoD materiel or DoD activities that is serious enough to: (5.6.1.)

A

warrant response by the installation Disaster Response Force (DRF)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

AFI 10-2501 defines a major accident as an accident involving DoD materiel or DoD activities that is serious enough to warrant response by the installation Disaster Response Force (DRF). Major accidents may occur at: (5.6.1.)

A

-home station-in transit or at deployment locations-during any phase of training, civil support, humanitarian support, or wartime operations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

The military installation nearest the scene of a major accident will respond to the accident unless otherwise directed by the MAJCOM or the Air Force Operations Center. This installation is known as the _______. (5.6.2.)

A

initial response base

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Upon witnessing a major accident, personnel should alert others in the immediate area and report the accident to the security forces, fire department, or installation command and control. After reporting the accident, personnel should not: (5.6.2.)

A

handle any material or component involved in the accident

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

When a natural disaster threatens or an incident affecting the base is imminent or in progress, personnel should: (5.8.)

A

-use the phone for emergency calls only-listen for a 3- to 5-minute steady or wavering siren-keep the radio or television on and listen for instructions and weather updates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

A 3-5 minute steady tone on siren or similar warning device indicates _______. (Fig 5.2.)

A

a disaster/incident affecting the base is imminent or in progress

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

A 3-5 minute wavering tone on siren or similar warning device indicates _______. (Fig 5.2.)

A

an attack/hostile act is imminent or in progress

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Each installation must develop natural and technological disaster response plans and policies. _______ is the vehicle for installation preparation and response. (5.9.)

A

Installation Emergency Management Plan (IEMP) 10-2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Where can Airmen obtain guidance on preparing for natural disasters? (5.11.)

A

-the Air Force Portal-the Air Force “Be Ready” Web site-the installation readiness and emergency management flight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Biological threats can cause _______ casualties. (5.12.)

A

-lethal or disabling-contagious-noncontagious

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

A growing concern is that widely available toxic industrial materials (TIMs) and toxic industrial chemicals (TICs) are potential tools for asymmetric attacks against air bases. Depending on the type and quantity of TIMs and TICs, a deliberate release could present: (5.12.)

A

short- or long-term hazards

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Examples of conventional weapons are: (5.12.2.)

A

rockets, mortars, missiles, and bombs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

The most effective individual protective equipment (IPE) for a conventional attack is: (5.12.2.)

A

a helmet and personal body armor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

The Air Force uses _______ to communicate the appropriate defense posture for in-place forces to take to transition to wartime operations. (5.13.)

A

a standardized alarm system and MOPP levels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

The Air Force uses a standardized alarm system and mission-oriented protective posture (MOPP) levels to communicate the appropriate defense posture for in-place forces to take to transition to wartime operations. Airbase attack preparation begins: (5.13.)

A

before a potential attack

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

The three phases of Passive Defense Attack Actions are attack preparation, response, and recovery. Attack response actions focus primarily on: (5.13.)

A

individual and weapon systems survival

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

The three phases of Passive Defense Attack Actions are attack preparation, response, and recovery. Recovery actions include: (5.13.)

A

saving lives, detecting and mitigating hazards, mission restoration, and sustainment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Effective wartime operations require coordinated and integrated actions at all levels. The _______ implements operational plans and priorities, controls and monitors mission-generation capabilities, and ensures installation survivability. (5.13.1.)

A

installation C2, in conjunction with the EOC and UCCs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Which of these is not one of the three phases of Passive Defense Attack Actions? (5.13.2.)

A

redeployment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

The three phases of Passive Defense Attack Actions are attack preparation, attack response, and attack recovery. Which phase involves the period of time from the present until the beginning of hostilities and begins upon receipt of the warning order to transition to wartime operations? (5.13.2.1.)

A

attack preparation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Which phase of Passive Defense Attack Actions begins upon receipt of the warning order or when the in-place forces are directed to transition to wartime operations? (5.13.2.1.)

A

attack preparation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Commanders use _______ to recall people to their duty locations. (5.13.2.1.1.)

A

a recall roster (a pyramid alerting system)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

When will contamination avoidance measures, defined as actions to avoid or reduce the effects of a CBRN attack, be used to protect critical resources? (5.13.2.1.2.)

A

at all levels and during all attack conditions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

If you hear “alarm green” or see a green flag, it indicates _______. (Figure 5.3.)

A

attack is not probable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What MOPP is required for alarm condition Green? (Figure 5.3.)

A

MOPP 0 or as directed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Commanders declare alarm conditions to initiate passive defense actions in wartime. If you hear “alarm yellow,” or see a yellow flag it indicates _______. (Figure 5.3.)

A

attack is probable in less than 30 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

There are four alarm conditions: green, yellow, red, and black. What MOPP is required for alarm condition Yellow? (Figure 5.3.)

A

MOPP 2 or as directed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

If you hear “alarm red,” see a red flag, or the siren is a wavering tone, it indicates _______. (Figure 5.3.)

A

attack by in-direct fire, air, or missile is imminent or in progress

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

If you hear “Ground Attack” or a bugle playing “Call to Arms” or see a red flag, it indicates _______. (Figure 5.3.)

A

attack by ground forces is imminent or in progress

30
Q

If you hear “alarm black”, the siren sounds a steady tone, or see a black flag, it indicates _______. (Figure 5.3.)

A

attack is over and CBRN contamination and/or UXO hazards are suspected or present

31
Q

There are four alarm conditions: green, yellow, red, and black. Which MOPP is required for alarm conditions Red and Black? (Figure 5.3.)

A

MOPP 4 or as directed

32
Q

The three phases of Passive Defense Attack Actions are attack preparation, attack response, and attack recovery. Which phase is occurring when attack is imminent or in progress and action takes place immediately before and during an enemy attack? (5.13. and 5.13.2.2.)

A

attack response

33
Q

Commanders declare alarm conditions to initiate passive defense actions in wartime. _______ are always used in conjunction with alarm conditions to quickly increase or decrease individual protection against CBRN threats. (5.13.2.2.1.)

A

MOPP levels

34
Q

_______ let individuals know what to wear for minimum CBRN protection. (5.13.2.2.1.2.)

A

MOPP levels

35
Q

MOPP levels let individuals know what to wear for minimum protection. As MOPP levels increase, an individual’s efficiency _______. (5.13.2.2.1.2.)

A

decreased

36
Q

As MOPP levels increase, an individual’s efficiency decreases. _______ must be used as a tool to maintain consistent work levels and to prevent heat-related casualties. (5.13.2.2.1.2.)

A

Work-rest cycles

37
Q

What is the normal wartime IPE level when the enemy has a CBRN capability? (Fig 5.4.)

A

MOPP 0

38
Q

Which MOPP is appropriate when attacks could occur with little or no warning? (Fig 5.4.)

A

MOPP 1, MOPP 2, and MOPP 3

39
Q

What MOPP levels require wearing the overboot? (Fig 5.4.)

A

MOPP 2, MOPP 3, and MOPP 4

40
Q

This MOPP level may be used as a post-attack protective posture when contamination is present but there is a negligible contact or percutaneous vapor hazard and Airmen require increased dexterity. (Fig 5.4.)

A

MOPP 3

41
Q

Which MOPP levels require wearing the protective mask? (Fig 5.4.)

A

MOPP 3 and MOPP 4

42
Q

When is MOPP Level 4 appropriate? (Fig 5.4.)

A

-when a CBRN attack is imminent or in progress-when CBRN contamination is present or suspected-when the highest level of protection is required

43
Q

Which MOPP level provides the maximum individual protection to personnel? (Fig 5.4.)

A

MOPP 4

44
Q

What is the only MOPP level that requires the gloves to be worn? (Fig 5.4.)

A

MOPP 4

45
Q

Which MOPP level is appropriate during periods of increased alert when the potential of chemical, biological, radiological and nuclear (CBRN) capability exists but, there is no indication of CBRN use in the immediate future? (Fig 5.4.)

A

MOPP Ready

46
Q

The three phases of Passive Defense Attack Actions are attack preparation, attack response, and attack recovery. Which phase begins after an attack when the installation assesses damage and repairs mission-critical facilities? (5.13.2. and 5.13.2.3.)

A

attack recovery

47
Q

In a CBRNE threat environment, rapid detection and reports of contaminated hazard areas and UXOs are critical. Because CBRNE personnel cannot accomplish this task by themselves, the base populace must cultivate a philosophy of: (5.13.2.3.1.)

A

“every Airman is a detector”

48
Q

After an attack in a CBRNE threat environment, the base populace must accomplish comprehensive contamination avoidance measures. Contamination avoidance involves: (5.13.2.3.2. - 5.13.2.3.2.2.)

A

-avoiding kneeling, sitting, or walking in contaminated areas-not touching anything unless absolutely necessary-closing windows, doors, canopies, etc., when notified of a pending attack

49
Q

Which of these is not a method of decontamination? (5.13.2.3.3.)

A

gloves and overboots

50
Q

If a chemical agent gets on the skin or protective equipment, it must be removed: (5.13.2.3.3.)

A

immediately

51
Q

If a chemical agent gets on the skin or protective equipment, it must be removed immediately. _______ are the most effective methods of removing chemical agents. (5.13.2.3.3.)

A

reactive skin decontamination lotion (RSDL) and M295 individual decontamination kit

52
Q

The reactive skin decontamination lotion (RSDL) and M295 individual decontamination kits are the most effective methods of removing chemical agents. In the absence of an individual decontamination kit, what can be used to remove the chemical agent from equipment? (5.13.2.3.3.)

A

a 5% chlorine bleach solution

53
Q

The reactive skin decontamination lotion (RSDL) and M295 individual decontamination kits are the most effective methods of removing chemical agents. In the absence of an individual decontamination kit, what can be used to remove chemical agents from the skin? (5.13.2.3.3.)

A

a 0.5% chlorine bleach solution

54
Q

The eyes are very vulnerable when exposed to nerve and blister agents. If one of these agents gets in the eyes, the eyes should be irrigated with _______. (5.13.2.3.3.)

A

water

55
Q

Successful base recovery efforts require: (5.13.2.3.4.)

A

-a coordinated and integrated approach-a combined effort from personnel trained to operate as a team-immediate action to treat casualties, assess damage, and contain contamination

56
Q

The major CBRN passive defense elements are contamination avoidance/control and protection. Which of these includes actions to prevent contamination from getting on mission-essential resources and personnel such as covering and limiting entry to facilities, detecting, identifying, and predicting? (5.13.3. and 5.13.3.1.)

A

contamination avoidance/control

57
Q

The major CBRN passive defense elements are contamination avoidance/control and protection. Which element includes the physical measures taken to protect people and resources from the effects of CBRN weapons such as individual protection, collective protection, and hardening? (5.13.3. and 5.13.3.2.)

A

protection

58
Q

When contamination cannot be avoided, protection provides forces with survival measures to enable them to operate in a CBRN environment. Protection is provided through individual protection, collective protection, and hardening. Which of these are threat specific? (5.13.3.2.)

A

-collective protection-hardening

59
Q

Protection in a CBRN environment is provided through individual protection, collective protection, and hardening. Vaccinations and the use of individual protective equipment are examples of what type of CBRN protective measure? (5.13.3.2.1.1.)

A

individual protection

60
Q

Regardless of the type of agent, concentration, or method of attack, the best immediate protective equipment against chemical agents is: (5.13.3.2.1.2.)

A

the ground crew ensemble

61
Q

The whole-body system that protects the wearer against chemical-biological warfare agents, toxins, and radiological particulates and includes a protective mask, overgarments, protective gloves, and footwear covers or overboots is _______. (5.13.3.2.1.2.)

A

the ground crew ensemble

62
Q

Medical representatives issue nerve agent antidotes and pretreatment during increased readiness. Additionally, medical representatives will issue pyridostigmine bromide tablets (P-tabs) if: (5.13.3.2.2.)

A

they anticipate use of a specific type of nerve agent

63
Q

The major CBRN passive defense elements are contamination avoidance/control and protection. The protection element is broken down into individual protection, collective protection, and hardening. Which type of protection provides personnel rest and relief (breaks and sleeping), work relief, and protection of logistics storage areas? (5.13.3.3.1.)

A

collective protectioning

64
Q

The major CBRN passive defense elements are contamination avoidance/control and protection. The protection element is broken down into individual protection, collective protection, and hardening. Sandbags and steel drums filled with earth are examples of which type of protection? (5.13.3.3.2.)

A

-collective protection-hardening

65
Q

Base personnel will use communication security to provide information to the UCC or the EOC. They will use: (5.13.5.)

A

the most expedient means possible and any means available (telephones, radios, or runners)

66
Q

Base personnel will use the S-A-L-U-T-E report as a quick and effective way to communicate enemy ground attack information up the chain of command. The “S” in S-A-L-U-T-E represents: (5.13.5. and Table 5.1.)

A

Size - The number of persons and vehicles seen or the size of an object

67
Q

Base personnel will use the S-A-L-U-T-E report as a quick and effective way to communicate enemy ground attack information up the chain of command. The “A” in S-A-L-U-T-E represents: (5.13.5. and Table 5.1.)

A

Activity - Description of enemy activity (assaulting, fleeing, observing)

68
Q

Base personnel will use the S-A-L-U-T-E report as a quick and effective way to communicate enemy ground attack information up the chain of command. The “L” in S-A-L-U-T-E represents: (5.13.5. and Table 5.1.)

A

Location - Where the enemy was sighted (grid coordinate or reference point)

69
Q

Base personnel will use the S-A-L-U-T-E report as a quick and effective way to communicate enemy ground attack information up the chain of command. The “U” in S-A-L-U-T-E represents: (5.13.5. and Table 5.1.)

A

Unit - Distinctive signs, symbols, or identification on people, vehicles, aircraft, or weapons

70
Q

Base personnel will use the S-A-L-U-T-E report as a quick and effective way to communicate enemy ground attack information up the chain of command. The “T” in S-A-L-U-T-E represents: (5.13.5. and Table 5.1.)

A

Time - Time activity is observed

71
Q

Base personnel will use the S-A-L-U-T-E report as a quick and effective way to communicate enemy ground attack information up the chain of command. The “E” in S-A-L-U-T-E represents: (5.13.5. and Table 5.1.)

A

Equipment - Equipment and vehicles associated with the activity

72
Q

According to JP 1-02, DOD Dictionary of Military and Associated Terms, the calculated use of unlawful violence or threat of unlawful violence to inculcate (instill) fear, intended to coerce or to intimidate governments or societies in the pursuit of goals that are generally political, religious, or ideological, is the definition of _______. (5.14.1.)

A

terrorism

WAPS (13 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions