Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

WAPS > Chapter 18 > Flashcards

Chapter 18 Flashcards

1
Q

The goal of the fitness program is to: (18.2.)

A

motivate all members to participate in a year-round physical conditioning program

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

The five major components of fitness are: (18.3.)

A

cardiorespiratory endurance, body composition, muscular strength, muscular endurance, and flexibility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

The five major components of fitness are cardiorespiratory endurance, body composition, muscular strength, muscular endurance, and flexibility. Cardiorespiratory endurance is: (18.3.1.)

A

the ability to perform large muscle, dynamic exercise for prolonged periods

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

The five major components of fitness are cardiorespiratory endurance, body composition, muscular strength, muscular endurance, and flexibility. Body composition is: (18.3.2.)

A

the relative portion of the body comprised of fat and fat-free tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

The five major components of fitness are cardiorespiratory endurance, body composition, muscular strength, muscular endurance, and flexibility. Muscular strength is: (18.3.3.)

A

the maximum force generated by a specific muscle or muscle group

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

The five major components of fitness are cardiorespiratory endurance, body composition, muscular strength, muscular endurance, and flexibility. Muscular endurance is: (18.3.4.)

A

repeated contractions of a muscle group over time resulting in muscular fatigue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

The five major components of fitness are cardiorespiratory endurance, body composition, muscular strength, muscular endurance, and flexibility. Flexibility is: (18.3.5.)

A

the ability to move a joint freely, without pain, through a range of motion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

A successful aerobic fitness/cardiovascular exercise program should include the principles of: (18.4.)

A

frequency, intensity, duration, and mode

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

A successful cardiovascular exercise program should include the principles of frequency, intensity, duration, and mode. Frequency is: (18.4.1.)

A

how often one exercises

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

A successful cardiovascular exercise program should include the principles of frequency, intensity, duration, and mode. Intensity is: (18.4.2.)

A

how hard one exercises

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

A successful cardiovascular exercise program should include the principles of frequency, intensity, duration, and mode. Duration is: (18.4.3.)

A

the time spent exercising

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

A successful cardiovascular exercise program should include the principles of frequency, intensity, duration, and mode. Mode is: (18.4.4.)

A

the type of exercise (jogging, swimming, etc)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

A successful strength and endurance training program should include the principles of: (18.5.)

A

specificity, regularity, recovery, balance, and variety

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

A successful strength and endurance training program should include the principles of specificity, regularity, recovery, balance, and variety. Specificity means: (18.5.1.)

A

targeting the specific muscle groups that need to be strengthened

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

A successful strength and endurance training program should include the principles of specificity, regularity, recovery, balance, and variety. Regularity means: (18.5.2.)

A

exercising regularly (three workouts per week are best for optimal gains)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

A successful strength and endurance training program should include the principles of specificity, regularity, recovery, balance, and variety. Recovery means: (18.5.3.)

A

allowing sufficient recovery time for the muscles to adapt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

A successful strength and endurance training program should include the principles of specificity, regularity, recovery, balance, and variety. Balance means: (18.5.4.)

A

exercising all the major muscle groups in both the upper and lower body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

A successful strength and endurance training program should include the principles of specificity, regularity, recovery, balance, and variety. Variety means: (18.5.5.)

A

changing equipment, exercises, or intensity to maintain enthusiasm and interest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

The two largest factors that contribute to maintaining a positive body composition are: (18.7.)

A

exercise and diet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

The best way to lose excessive body fat is: (18.7.1.)

A

a combination of exercise and diet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

A male Airman who is not under medical supervision when dieting requires a daily caloric intake of at least ______; women require at least ______ calories. (18.7.2.)

A

1,500; 1,200

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Exercise alone is not the best way to lose body fat, especially in large amounts. For an average-sized person, running or walking 1 mile burns about: (18.7.5.)

A

100 calories

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

The AFI that governs the Fitness Program is: (18.9.3.)

A

AFI 36-2905, Fitness Program

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

The Air Force uses a composite fitness score based on _______ to determine overall fitness. (18.10.1.)

A

aerobic fitness, muscular strength/endurance, and body composition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

The Air Force uses a composite fitness score to determine overall fitness. The minimum acceptable composite score, in addition to meeting the minimum component scores, is _______. (18.10.1.)

A

75

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Members taking the PT test will receive a composite score on a 0 to 100 scale based on the following maximum component scores: 60 points for aerobic fitness assessment and: (18.10.2.)

A

20 points for body composition, 10 points for push-ups, and 10 points for sit-ups

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What are the components that make up the PT Test? (18.10.2.)

A

aerobic fitness assessment, body composition, push-ups, and sit-ups

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Members with a medical profile prohibiting them from performing one or more components of the fitness assessment will have a composite score calculated on: (18.10.3.)

A

the tested components

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Although members must complete the composite fitness assessment biannually, exemptions are granted, for a limited time, for: (18.10.3.1.)

A

members who are unable or unavailable to train or test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Fitness assessment exemptions categorize members as unable or unavailable to train or test for reasons beyond the control of the member. Based on medical recommendations, the commander may grant members exemption from: (18.10.3.2.)

A

aerobic and muscle fitness components

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What are the four fitness levels based on score and components tested? (Table 18.1.)

A

Excellent (all 4 components), Excellent (3 or less components), Satisfactory, Unsatisfactory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

If a member’s fitness level is Excellent (all 4 components), testing is required every 12 months. If a member’s fitness level is Unsatisfactory, then retesting is required: (Table 18.1.)

A

within 90 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Members must have a current fitness score on file prior to deployment. Members will not be considered exempt in the deployed location until: (18.10.5.)

A

their current fitness assessment expires

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

If, while deployed, an Airman reaches the 91-day mark after an Unsatisfactory fitness assessment but before the evaluation closes out, the Unsatisfactory score is no longer current and the evaluation will be marked: (18.10.6.)

A

EXEMPT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Deployed Airmen with Satisfactory and Excellent fitness assessment (FA) scores become “exempt” only when: (18.10.6.)

A

they reach the first day of the month, seven/thirteen months following the previous FA rating

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What activity will normally conduct the fitness assessment for all Airmen (Regular Air Force, Reserve, and Guard)? (18.11.1.)

A

the Fitness Assessment Cell (FAC)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

The Fitness Assessment Cell (FAC) will normally conduct the fitness assessment for all Airmen. Where no FAC exists, fitness assessments should be conducted by: (18.11.1.)

A

a certified physical training leader (PTL) from another unit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

The fitness screening questionnaire (FSQ) should be completed no earlier than 30 calendar days (90 days for Air Reserve Component) but no later than _______ prior to the fitness assessment to provide time for medical evaluation. (18.11.2.)

A

7 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Pregnant service members will engage in physical activity to maintain cardiovascular and muscular fitness throughout the pregnancy and postpartum period. Members are exempted from fitness testing during pregnancy and for: (18.11.4.)

A

180 days after the delivery date

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

All components of the fitness assessment must be completed within a 3-hour window on the same day. If extenuating circumstances occur, such as severe weather or safety issues, then all components must be completed within _______. (18.12.)

A

5 duty days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Which component is required to be assessed first during the fitness assessment? (18.12.)

A

body composition (height, weight, and abdominal circumference)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

The muscular fitness components (push-ups and sit-ups) may be accomplished before or after the 1.5-mile run but must be completed after the 1-mile walk. There is a minimum _______ rest period between components. (18.12.)

A

3-minute

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

The body composition assessment is performed by FAC members or trained augmentees. The body composition assessment consists of: (18.12.1.)

A

height and weight and Abdominal Circumference (AC)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

The aerobic component of the fitness assessment consists of: (18.12.2.)

A

a 1.5-mile run (or 1-mile walk for medically exempted members)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

The muscular fitness component of the fitness assessment consists of: (18.12.3.)

A

push-ups and sit-ups

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Members with an unsatisfactory fitness assessment score must attend the Balanced Eating, Work out Effectively, Living Longer (BE WELL) Program which is managed by: (18.13.1.)

A

the Health and Wellness Center (HAWC)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

The unit PT program success depends on many people. Whose responsibility is it to oversee the fitness program for the unit, notify the unit commander if members fail to attend scheduled fitness appointments, and provide fitness metrics and unit status reports to the unit commander? (18.14.2.)

A

Unit Fitness Program Manager (UFPM)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What training is required before assuming duties as Physical Training Leader (PTL)? (18.14.3.1. and 18.14.3.2.)

A

-basic life support training-automated external defibrillator training-completion of PTL course provided by the EP/FPM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What are the three main types of macronutrients? (18.15.1.)

A

carbohydrates, fats, and protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

The three main types of macronutrients are carbohydrates, fats, and protein. Which of these is known as the “energy powerhouse” because they are what our bodies need for fuel. (18.15.1.1.)

A

carbohydrates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Carbohydrates are known as the “energy powerhouse” because they are what our bodies need for fuel. The foods that provide carbohydrates are: (18.15.1.1.)

A

dairy, fruits, grains, starchy vegetables, and sweets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

There are two types of carbohydrates: (18.15.1.1.)

A

simple and complex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

The three main types of macronutrients are carbohydrates, fats, and protein. Which of these is composed of amino acids and is necessary to build and repair muscle tissue, grow hair and fingernails, produce hormones, boost your immune system and replace red blood cells? (18.15.1.2.)

A

protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Amino acids are the building blocks of protein, which are necessary to build and repair muscle tissue, grow hair and fingernails, produce hormones, boost your immune system and replace red blood cells. The foods that provide protein are: (18.15.1.2.)

A

animal products, beans, nuts, lentils, and tofu

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Fat provides a ready source of energy, builds cell walls, transports and stores fat soluble vitamins, insulates, protects vital organs, and makes food taste better. Healthier fats are mono- and poly-unsaturated fats which are found mostly in: (18.15.1.3.)

A

-olive oil, canola oil, peanut oil, avocados, and most nuts-fatty fish such as tuna and salmon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Water is essential for life; the human body is made up of over _______ water. (18.15.1.4.)

A

50 percent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Weight loss should be a gradual process; _______ per week is considered to be a healthy and safe weight loss goal. (18.15.3.)

A

1 to 2 pounds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

In order to lose weight, calories in need to be less than calories out. However, active individuals should never go below _______ calories per day for women or _______ calories per day for men. (18.15.3.)

A

1,200; 1,500

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

The purpose of a pre-exercise meal or snack is to provide enough fluid to maintain hydration and enough carbohydrates to maintain proper blood sugar levels. A pre-exercise meal should be consumed _______ before starting the activity. (18.15.5.)

A

3 to 4 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

The purpose of a pre-exercise meal or snack is to provide enough fluid to maintain hydration and enough carbohydrates to maintain proper blood sugar levels. A pre-exercise snack should be consumed _______ before starting the activity. (18.15.5.)

A

30 to 60 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

The Alcohol and Drug Abuse Prevention and Treatment (ADAPT) and Demand Reduction (DR) Programs include: (18.16.1.)

A

substance abuse prevention, education, treatment, and urinalysis testing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

The Alcohol and Drug Abuse Prevention and Treatment (ADAPT) Program objectives are to: (18.16.2.)

A

-promote readiness, health, and wellness through the prevention and treatment of substance abuse-minimize the negative consequences of substance abuse to the individual, family, and organization-educate and treat substance abusers and return them to unrestricted duty status or civilian life

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Drug abuse is defined as the illegal, wrongful, or improper use, possession, sale, transfer, or introduction onto a military installation of any drug defined in AFI 44-121, Alcohol and Drug Abuse Prevention and Treatment (ADAPT) Program. “Wrongful” means: (18.17.1.)

A

without legal justification or excuse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Studies have shown that products made with hemp seed or hemp seed oil may contain varying levels of tetrahydrocannabinol, an active ingredient of marijuana. The ingestion of hemp seed oil is prohibited and is a violation of: (18.17.2.)

A

Article 92, Failure to obey order or regulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

The use of any intoxicating substance, other than the lawful use of alcohol or tobacco products, is prohibited. Failure to comply with this prohibition is a violation of: (18.17.3.)

A

Article 92, Failure to obey order or regulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What regulation provides guidance for the identification, treatment, and management of personnel with substance abuse problems and describes Air Force policy regarding alcohol and drug abuse? (18.18.1.)

A

AFI 44-121, Alcohol and Drug Abuse Prevention and Treatment (ADAPT) Program

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

AFMAN 31-116, Air Force Motor Vehicle Traffic Supervision, applies to: (18.18.2.)

A

everyone with military installation driving privileges

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Which AFI establishes guidance on court hearing procedures, convictions, non-judicial punishment, civilian administrative action, or appropriate punishment for violation of impaired and intoxicated driving policies? (18.18.2.)

A

AFMAN 31-116, Air Force Motor Vehicle Traffic Supervision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

AFMAN 31-116 prohibits driving while intoxicated. If a member has a blood alcohol percentage of 0.05 but less than 0.10, the person is presumed to be: (18.18.2.)

A

impaired

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Intoxicated driving is operating a motor vehicle under intoxication caused by: (18.18.2.)

A

alcohol or drugs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

In the United States, if a state uses a more stringent standard for driving while intoxicated (for example, 0.08 instead of 0.10), Air Force units will use the lower standard. Overseas, the limit is _______. (18.18.2.)

A

0.10 unless the Secretary of Defense sets a lower limit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

The supervisory role in recognizing potential drug- and alcohol-related problems is: (18.19.1.1.)

A

to identify subordinates with problems early and to motivate them to seek and accept help

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

The supervisory role in recognizing potential drug- and alcohol-related problems is to identify subordinates with problems early and to motivate them to seek and accept help. The responsibility for making a conclusive diagnosis of substance abuse belongs to: (18.19.1.2.)

A

ADAPT Program personnel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

There are basically five ways of identifying service members experiencing problems with substance abuse: (18.19.2.)

A

medical care referrals, commander’s identification, drug testing, medical purposes, and self-identification

75
Q

The five ways of identifying service members experiencing problems with substance abuse are medical care referrals, commander’s identification, drug testing, medical purposes, and self-identification. Medical care referrals means: (18.19.2.1.)

A

identification by medical personnel after treatment for an injury or illness

76
Q

The five ways of identifying service members experiencing problems with substance abuse are medical care referrals, commander’s identification, drug testing, medical purposes, and self-identification. Commander’s identification means: (18.19.2.2.)

A

identification by being referred for assessment by the Commander due to an incident

77
Q

The five ways of identifying service members experiencing problems with substance abuse are medical care referrals, commander’s identification, drug testing, medical purposes, and self-identification. Drug testing refers to: (18.19.2.3.)

A

identification by random drug testing results

78
Q

Drug testing is most effective as a deterrent if it reaches every Air Force member. Therefore, all military personnel are subject to testing regardless of _______. (18.19.2.3.)

A

-grade-status-position

79
Q

The best deterrent presently available against drug abuse is: (18.19.2.3.)

A

inspection testing

80
Q

There are two categories of drug testing: random inspection testing and commander-directed. Commander-directed testing should only be used as a last resort because: (18.19.2.3.)

A

the results cannot be used in actions under the UCMJ

81
Q

The most common method of testing in the Air Force and the best deterrent presently available against drug abuse is: (18.19.2.3. and 18.19.2.3.1.)

A

inspection testing

82
Q

Commander-directed drug testing should only be used as a last resort because, unless there is _______, the results cannot be used in actions under the UCMJ. (18.19.2.3. and 18.19.2.3.2.)

A

probable cause

83
Q

The five ways of identifying service members with substance abuse problems are medical care referrals, commander’s identification, drug testing, medical purposes, and self-identification. Medical purposes means: (18.19.2.4.)

A

identification by results of any examination conducted for a valid medical purpose

84
Q

The results of any examination conducted for a valid medical purpose, including emergency medical treatment, may be used to identify drug abusers. Results may be used: (18.19.2.4.)

A

-as evidence for disciplinary action under the UCMJ-to support administrative discharge action-for the characterization of discharge

85
Q

The supervisor’s role in the treatment process does not end with referring members. Supervisors will have daily interaction with their personnel and the treatment team (TT) which consists of: (18.20.)

A

commander, supervisor, member’s counselor, medical consultants, other appropriate helping agencies, and the member

86
Q

The central purpose of the Substance Abuse assessment is to: (18.21.)

A

determine the patient’s need for treatment and level of care required

87
Q

Substance Abuse treatment is divided into two services: (18.22.)

A

nonclinical and clinical

88
Q

Substance Abuse treatment is divided into two services: nonclinical and clinical. Nonclinical treatment is for: (18.22.1.)

A

members involved in alcohol-related misconduct who do not meet diagnostic criteria for alcohol dependence

89
Q

Substance Abuse treatment is divided into two services: nonclinical and clinical. Clinical treatment is for: (18.22.2.)

A

patients who meet the diagnostic criteria for alcohol abuse or alcohol dependence

90
Q

The commander is responsible for all administrative actions involving patients in the ADAPT Program. Administrative action should be based on _______ and not solely based on their involvement in the ADAPT Program. (18.25.)

A

the member’s unacceptable behavior

91
Q

A member’s substance abuse can lead to a Line of Duty (LOD) determination. A LOD determination is an investigation that determines whether or not: (18.26.)

A

-the illness, injury, or disease existed prior to service and if the condition was aggravated by military service-the illness, injury, disease, or death occurred while the member was absent from duty-the illness, injury, disease, or death was due to the member’s own misconduct

92
Q

A Line of Duty (LOD) Determination is significant because it may affect: (18.26.)

A

-disability retirement and severance pay-forfeiture of pay and period of enlistment-veterans’ benefits

93
Q

The Air Force’s goal concerning the use of tobacco is: (18.27.)

A

a tobacco-free force

94
Q

The single most preventable cause of disease and death in the United States is _______. (18.27.)

A

tobacco use

95
Q

Tobacco use affects all bodily systems, not just the mouth and lungs. Tobacco use: (18.28.1.)

A

-is linked to some types of cancer, cardiovascular diseases, and other diseases-reduces endurance, night vision and fine motor coordination-causes cancer and exposes both smokers and non-smokers to a class “A” carcinogen

96
Q

There is a common but false belief that smokeless tobacco is less hazardous than smoking but oral cancers affect 30,000 people annually and the 5-year survival rate is very low: (18.28.2.)

A

only 50 percent of persons are alive 5 years after diagnosis

97
Q

The nicotine found in tobacco products is addictive and quitting can be a challenge. The best prevention is: (18.28.3.)

A

never using products containing nicotine

98
Q

The Air Force believes prevention in our younger Airmen is critical to reducing tobacco prevalence in the Air Force because: (18.28.3.)

A

nearly 100% of smokers started when they were 26 or younger

99
Q

The costs associated with tobacco use are both physical and financial. A recent study found that: (18.29.)

A

-tobacco use costs the DoD $1.6 billion annually in healthcare and reduced productivity-the cost of smoking a pack a day for a year is 1-month’s base pay for an airman basic

100
Q

What AFI provides Air Force policies on tobacco use and prohibits tobacco use in most Air Force facilities, housing, and recreational areas? (18.30.)

A

AFI 40-102, Tobacco Use in the Air Force

101
Q

AFI 40-102, Tobacco Use in the Air Force, expands tobacco-free environments. Tobacco use on a military installation is restricted to: (18.30.)

A

designated tobacco areas (DTA)

102
Q

AFI 40-102, Tobacco Use in the Air Force, prohibits tobacco use in all Air Force facilities except assigned Government housing. Who has the discretion to designate all unaccompanied housing as non-smoking? (18.30.)

A

the installation commander

103
Q

Formal, structured tobacco cessation programs designed to assist members in breaking the addiction to tobacco products are available at: (18.30.)

A

the HAWK

104
Q

The Military Health System (MHS) is a partnership of medical educators, medical researchers, and healthcare providers and their support personnel worldwide. This DoD enterprise consists of: (18.31.1.)

A

-the Office of the Assistant Secretary of Defense for Health Affairs-the medical departments of the Army, Navy, Marine Corps, Air Force, and Coast Guard-the Joint Chiefs of Staff, the Combatant Command surgeons, and TRICARE providers

105
Q

The Military Health System (MHS) mission is: (18.31.3.)

A

to provide optimal health services in support of our Nation’s military mission -anytime, anywhere

106
Q

As a major component of the Military Health System, TRICARE brings together the worldwide health resources of the Army, Navy, Air Force, Coast Guard, and commissioned corps of the public health service, which is referred to as _______. (18.32.1.)

A

direct care

107
Q

TRICARE brings together the worldwide health resources of the Army, Navy, Air Force, Coast Guard, and commissioned corps of the public health service, which is referred to as “direct care”. This is supplemented with networks of civilian health professionals and suppliers, which are referred to as: (18.32.1.)

A

purchased care

108
Q

The TRICARE mission is: (18.32.2.)

A

to enhance DoD and national security by providing health support for the full range of military operations and sustaining the health of all those entrusted to our care

109
Q

TRICARE is available worldwide and is managed in four separate regions: (18.34.)

A

three in the United States and one overseas (that is divided into three main areas)

110
Q

TRICARE is available worldwide and is managed in four separate regions: three in the United States and one overseas (which is divided into three areas). The three U.S. regions are: (18.34.)

A

North, South, and West

111
Q

TRICARE is available worldwide and is managed in four separate regions: three in the United States and one overseas (which is divided into three areas). The U.S. regions are North, South, and West. The overseas regions are: (18.34.)

A

TRICARE Eurasia-Africa, TRICARE Latin America and Canada, and TRICARE Pacific

112
Q

The three primary healthcare options offered to eligible TRICARE beneficiaries are: (18.35.)

A

TRICARE Prime, TRICARE Standard, and TRICARE Extra

113
Q

The three healthcare options for eligible members are: TRICARE Prime, TRICARE Standard, and TRICARE Extra. The option that provides care to active duty members and their families with no enrollment fees, annual deductibles, or copayments is _______. (18.35.1.)

A

TRICARE Prime

114
Q

TRICARE offers military members three options for their healthcare: TRICARE Prime, TRICARE Standard, and TRICARE Extra. The only option available to active duty service members is _______. (18.35.1.)

A

TRICARE Prime

115
Q

The TRICARE Prime option for those active duty service members and family members who live and work 50 miles or an hour’s drive from a military treatment facility is _______. (18.35.1.1.)

A

TRICARE Prime Remote (TPR)

116
Q

The three healthcare options for eligible members are: TRICARE Prime, TRICARE Standard, and TRICARE Extra. The option that is a fee-for-service plan available to all nonactive duty beneficiaries is _______. (18.35.2.)

A

-TRICARE Standard-TRICARE Extra

117
Q

TRICARE Standard and Extra are fee-for-service plans available to all non-active duty beneficiaries. The type of provider seen determines which option is being used. If visiting a non-network provider, the _______ option is being used. (18.35.2.)

A

Standard

118
Q

TRICARE Standard and Extra are fee-for-service plans available to all non-active duty beneficiaries. The type of provider seen determines which option is being used. If visiting a network provider, the _______ option is being used. (18.35.2.)

A

Extra

119
Q

This is a new, premium-based health care plan available for purchase by qualified dependents that provides TRICARE Prime and TRICARE Standard coverage worldwide. (18.35.3.)

A

TRICARE Young Adult (TYA)

120
Q

The TRICARE Dental Program (TDP) is a voluntary, premium-based insurance plan. Who is not eligible for the TDP? (18.36.)

A

active duty service members and Reservists on active duty for more than 30 days

121
Q

The third leading cause of death among Regular Air Force personnel is: (18.38.)

A

suicide

122
Q

Within the Air Force, the most common stressors seen in the lives of those who die by suicide are: (18.38.)

A

-work problems-relationship and mental health problems-financial hardship and legal problems

123
Q

Recent Air Force data shows that all age groups are at risk for suicide. However, men die by suicide at a rate _______ than that of women. (18.38.)

A

four times greater

124
Q

There are two personal perceptions that place someone at risk for suicide: (18.40.)

A

-a perception of a lack of belongingness with others-a perception that they are a burden to those around them

125
Q

There are two perceptions that place someone at risk for suicide: a perception of not belonging and of being a burden to those around them. A final factor that leads to suicide is: (18.40.)

A

acquiring the capability to take your own life

126
Q

In addition to the perceptions of not belonging or of being a burden to others, a final factor that leads to suicide is acquiring the capability to take one’s own life. The most common method of acquiring this capability in the Air Force is: (18.40.)

A

the acquisition of a firearm

127
Q

It’s important to understand that suicides: (18.41.)

A

are often preventable

128
Q

Common risk factors for suicide include: (18.42.)

A

-severe, prolonged, or unmanageable stress-lack of social support or social isolation-difficulty sleeping and feelings of hopelessness or depression

129
Q

The most dangerous time of year for suicides in the Air Force is _______. (18.48.4.)

A

statistics do not indicate a significant difference between the months

130
Q

Since CY09, 30 percent of Airmen who died by suicide were seen by an Air Force mental health provider in the month prior to their deaths, but 100 percent were seen by their supervisors and peers the month before their deaths. This means that: (18.51.3.)

A

successful risk identification rests with the potential victim’s peers and first-line supervisor

131
Q

The office of primary responsibility (OPR) for the Air Force Suicide Prevention Program is: (18.52.)

A

the Air Force Surgeon General (AF/SG)

132
Q

At the installation level, the mental health clinics typically assess individuals for whom suicide is a concern. Although information shared is private, mental health providers must notify the subject’s commander when aware of: (18.52.3.)

A

-safety issues-suicidal or violent thoughts-fitness for duty concerns

133
Q

The Limited Privilege Suicide Prevention (LPSP) Program is designed to aid: (18.54.2.9.)

A

members under criminal or administrative investigation

134
Q

The use of validated unit climate assessment tools is an excellent way for commanders to tap into the strengths and challenges within their organizations. These tools include: (18.54.2.10.)

A

-equal opportunity’s unit climate assessment-the A&FRC support and resilience inventory-the Air Force culture assessment safety tool

135
Q

Information on all Air Force suicides and suicide attempts are entered into a central database: (18.54.2.11.1.)

A

the DoD Suicide Event Report (DoDSER)

136
Q

Suicide prevention is the responsibility of: (18.55.)

A

everyone

137
Q

To facilitate personal engagement in suicide prevention, the Air Force developed an acronym to help people remember the key steps. The acronym is ACE which stands for: (18.55.1.)

A

ask, care, and escort

138
Q

The acronym, ACE, helps us remember the steps to suicide prevention and stands for Ask, Care, and Escort. Ask refers to: (18.55.1.1.)

A

asking questions to learn more about a person’s problems or concerns

139
Q

The acronym, ACE, helps us remember the steps to suicide prevention and stands for Ask, Care, and Escort. Care refers to: (18.55.1.2.)

A

showing care and concern for those at risk by talking to them

140
Q

The acronym, ACE, helps us remember the steps to suicide prevention and stands for Ask, Care, and Escort. Escort refers to: (18.55.1.3.)

A

escorting a person to the person or agency that can provide assistance

141
Q

Most individuals who experience a traumatic event _______ develop Posttraumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD). (18.56.)

A

do not

142
Q

Most individuals who experience a traumatic event do not develop Posttraumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD). Although it is common to experience posttraumatic stress symptoms after a traumatic event, the symptoms: (18.56.)

A

are usually temporary

143
Q

Posttraumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD) involves six components: exposure to a traumatic event, re-experiencing the event, avoidance or emotional numbing, persistent arousal symptoms, symptom duration of greater than 1 month, and significant distress or impairment. PTSD rates among total force Airmen are: (18.56. and 18.57.)

A

low

144
Q

Posttraumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD) rates have been relatively low among total force Airmen. PTSD symptoms are four to five times more frequent with: (18.57.)

A

combat exposure

145
Q

Posttraumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD) rates have been relatively low among total force Airmen. Certain occupations are more likely to be exposed to trauma and have higher incidences of PTSD: (18.57.)

A

-Security Forces-Explosive Ordinance Disposal-Medics

146
Q

Prevention of Posttraumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD) is achieved through: (18.58.)

A

screening and training

147
Q

Units that have a moderate or high chance of being exposed to a traumatic event and developing PTSD can enhance their psychological resilience with the following preparation principles: (18.58.6.)

A

Engage in Realistic Training and Strengthen Perceived Ability to Cope

148
Q

Units that are at risk of being exposed to a traumatic event and developing PTSD can enhance their psychological resilience with the preparation principles of Engage in Realistic Training and Strengthen Perceived Ability to Cope. Engage in Realistic Training means to: (18.58.6.1.)

A

train using exposure to realistic events such as body handling, survival training, and mock captivity training

149
Q

Units that are at risk of being exposed to a traumatic event and developing PTSD can enhance their psychological resilience with the preparation principles of Engage in Realistic Training and Strengthen Perceived Ability to Cope. Strengthen Perceived Ability to Cope means to: (18.58.6.2.)

A

teach coping mechanisms during training in order to strengthen coping skills in anticipation of actual trauma

150
Q

Today, there are effective treatments available for Posttraumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD). The most effective type of counseling for PTSD appears to be: (18.59.)

A

cognitive behavioral therapy

151
Q

Cognitive behavioral therapy appears to be the most effective type of counseling for Posttraumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD). The Air Force provides two forms of cognitive behavioral therapy to Airmen with PTSD: (18.59.)

A

cognitive processing therapy and prolonged exposure therapy

152
Q

There are a range of treatments available for Posttraumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD) including cognitive behavioral therapy, eye movement desensitization and reprocessing therapy, and medication. _______ of PTSD patients never require a medical board. (18.59.)

A

Seventy five percent

153
Q

Hans Selye, an endocrinologist, defined stress as: (18.60.1.)

A

the nonspecific response of the body to any demand made upon it

154
Q

Hans Selye, an endocrinologist, defined stress as “the nonspecific response of the body to any demand made upon it”. The demand in Selye’s definition is commonly called: (18.60.1.)

A

a stressor

155
Q

According to Selye, stress can be defined as “the nonspecific response of the body to any demand made upon it”. The demand in Selye’s definition is commonly called a stressor. A stressor can be more accurately defined as: (18.60.2.)

A

any factor (demand) that has the potential to cause stress

156
Q

Hans Selye, an endocrinologist widely regarded as the father of stress research, concluded that the body’s reaction to stress was the same regardless of whether the source was good or bad. He labeled the stress experienced from positive factors as: (18.60.2.)

A

eustress

157
Q

Hans Selye, an endocrinologist, concluded that the body’s reaction to stress was the same regardless of whether the source was good or bad. He labeled the stress experienced from negative factors as: (18.60.2.)

A

distress

158
Q

Hans Selye found that there are two types of stress: positive stress (eustress) and negative stress (distress). What type of stress results from losing, failing, overworking, or not coping effectively? (18.60.2.)

A

distress

159
Q

Hans Selye found that there are two types of stress: positive stress (eustress) and negative stress (distress). What type of stress results from exhilarating experiences such as winning and achieving? (18.60.2.)

A

eustress

160
Q

We are in daily contact with many types of stressors. For the most part, we can categorize them into two major areas: (18.60.3.)

A

organizational stressors and extra-organizational stressors

161
Q

In general, we can categorize the stressors we encounter every day into two major areas: organizational stressors and extra-organizational stressors. Organizational stressors are: (18.60.3.1.)

A

the type of factors experienced in the work environment

162
Q

In general, we can categorize the stressors we encounter every day into two major areas: organizational stressors and extra-organizational stressors. Extra-organizational stressors are: (18.60.3.2.)

A

-stressors occurring in one’s personal life-family issues, marital issues, and financial issues-the type of factors experienced outside the work environment

163
Q

How do you know if you’re stressed? The key to recognizing stress is: (18.60.4.)

A

to understand what is normal for you so you can recognize when something changes

164
Q

How do you know if you are stressed? Stress reactions appear in three different categories: (18.60.4.)

A

emotional, behavioral, and physica

165
Q

Stress management programs and methods vary, but they all have common goals. Individual stress management methods aim at strengthening your ability to manage stressors and the stress response. Organizational stress management methods aim more at: (18.60.6.)

A

altering potential stressors themselves

166
Q

There are many individual stress management methods. Which one consists of identifying potential stressors before they cause problems and developing strategies to avoid their effects? (18.61.1.)

A

Planning

167
Q

There are many individual stress management methods. Which one consists of using effective time management skills and tools, like developing a task list and prioritizing tasks, to reduce stress? (18.61.2.)

A

Time Management

168
Q

There are many individual stress management methods. Which one relieves stress by identifying and avoiding busy work, delegating or empowering others when possible, learning to say no, and attempting to negotiate unreasonable deadlines? (18.61.3.)

A

Overload Avoidance

169
Q

Organizational stress management methods focus on identifying and removing stressors in the workplace. Which organizational stress management method examines the job itself to determine if there is a need for the task and if the task is feasible? (18.62.1.)\

A

Job Design

170
Q

Which organizational stress management method examines environmental factors such as temperature, noise, and light levels and makes necessary improvements? (18.62.2.)

A

Improving the Work Environment

171
Q

Which organizational stress management method focuses on improving communication and keeping your subordinates informed? (18.62.3.)

A

Improving Organizational Communication

172
Q

Which organizational stress management method involves matching individuals to their assigned positions? (18.62.4.)

A

Personnel Selection and Job Placement

173
Q

Which organizational stress management method involves monitoring the work environment and managing substance abuse problems that have a negative effect on the mission, morale, and readiness? (18.62.5.)

A

Substance Abuse Programs

174
Q

The goal of the redeployment support process is to ensure personnel readiness by providing timely support for our military members and their families. Redeployment support is _______. (18.63.)

A

an ongoing process

175
Q

The intent of the redeployment support process is to provide continuous, integrated support from the area of responsibility (AOR) to home station and to assist in the transition from the deployed environment to: (18.63.)

A

family life and work site

176
Q

After a long deployment, a recovery period provides time for returning Airmen to tend to personal needs. What agency is responsible for establishing personnel recovery (leave, passes, attribution, and retention) policies for returning combat forces? (18.64.)

A

each MAJCOM

177
Q

Although it’s important to support returning forces as they transition back to their normal environment, they must be ready for further deployments. While there is no one correct rule for reconstitution planning, consideration must be given to: (18.65.)

A

-recovering lost training-aspects determined by the unit based on the situation-prioritizing and restoring levels of consumables expended during the crisis

178
Q

While there is no one correct rule set for reconstitution planning, consideration must be given to prioritizing and restoring levels of consumables expended during the crisis, and recovering lost training. What AFI provides further guidance? (18.65.)

A

AFI 10-401, Air Force Operations Planning and Execution

179
Q

The Air Force redeployment support process applies to all personnel deployed to: (18.66.)

A

-an AOR-remote assignments-continental United States locations in support of contingencies

180
Q

The Air Force redeployment support process applies to personnel deployed to an AOR, to CONUS locations in support of contingencies, and to remote assignments. Key determinants for participation are: (18.66.)

A

lengthy family separation and significant family-related stressors prior to redeployment

181
Q

The Personnel Readiness function will ensure procedures are established to account for members returning from deployments. These procedures will be incorporated into: (18.68.1.)

A

installation reconstitution planning and the installation deployment Plan

182
Q

As part of the redeployment support process, returning units and individuals will inprocess with the personnel readiness function within _______ of redeployment day. (18.68.1.)

A

two duty days

183
Q

Chaplain service members support personnel, families, and base populations during contingencies in accordance with: (18.68.2.)

A

AFI 52-104, Chaplain Service Readiness

184
Q

These protocols help bases respond to increased childcare needs during contingencies and during the Air and Space Expeditionary Force cycle: (18.68.4.)

A

Force Support Squadron and Family Member Program Protocols

WAPS (13 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions