Chapter 5- Infection Flashcards

(188 cards)

1
Q

What are important bacteria considerations before starting therapy

A

Viral infections should not be treated with antibacterial

Samples should be taken for culture to avoid blind antibacterial prescribing

Narrow spectrum are preferred unless there’s a clear clinical indication

Knowledge in the prevalent organism helps chose an antibacterial

The dose is dependent on many factors (age, weight, renal, hepatic function)

The route often depends on the severity of the infection

Duration of therapy depends on the nature of the infection and response to treatment and complete course

Follow national and local prescribing guidelines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which antibiotics are the most suitable during pregnancy

A

Penicillins and cephalosporins

Nitrofurantoin may also be used

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which antibiotics should be avoided in the Renally impaired and why

A
Tetracyclines 
Nitrofurantoin (eGFR<45)
Aminoglycosides 
Glycopeptide 
Amoxicillin

Theyre excreted by the kidneys so would accumulate with resultant toxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What antibiotics do aminoglycosides include

A
Amikacin
Gentamicin 
Neomycin
Streptomycin
Tobramycin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What’s the mechanism of action of aminoglycosides

A

They are bacteriocidal by irreversibly binding to ribosome to inhibit protein synthesis
Causes the cell to leak and the antibiotic to be taken up
Effective in gram +ive and -ive but mainly negative
Not effective in anaerobes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Indications for aminoglycosides

A

CNS infections, endocarditis, septicaemia, meningitis etc
Biliary tract infection, prostitis and pneumonia.

Streptomycin is active against TB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Side affects associated with aminoglycosides

A
May Cause neuromuscular transmission 
Irreversible ototoxicity 
Nephrotoxicity
Nausea and vomiting 
Antibiotic associated colitis 
Peripheral neuropathy 
Electrolyte disturbance
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Contraindications and cautions for aminoglycosides

A

Patients with clinical muscle weakness (eg: myasthenia gravis)

Avoid use with other ototoxic drugs (furosemide, ciaplatin)

Avoid use with nephrotoxic drugs (vancomycin and ciclosporin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Why are aminoglycosides generally given parenterally for systemic infections

A

They are not absorbed from the gut

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What’s the gentamicin dosing like in the Uk

A

Requires a loading dose as it has a narrow therapeutic index

Multiple daily dose regime:
One hour serum concentration (peak) should be 5-10mg/L (3-5 for endocarditis)
Pre-dose trough concentration should be <2mg/L (<1mg/L for endocarditis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Warning signs for aminoglycosides

A

Nephrotoxicity
Ototoxicity (hearing impairment)
Dehydration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Whats the MHRA ALERT for streptomycin

A

Side effects increase after a cumulative dose of 100g (shouldnt need to be exceeded except in exceptional circumstances)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are examples of carbapenem and what spectrum of activity do carbapenems have

A

Imipenam, meropenam and ertapenam

Broad spectrum which include many gram positive and gram negative bacteria and anaerobes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What’s the five generations of Cephalosporins

A
  1. Cefalexin and Cefradine
  2. Cefaclor and Cefuroxime
  3. Cefixime and Ceftriaxone
  4. Ceftaoline and Fosamil
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Mechanism of action of Cephalosporins

A

They prevent cell wall synthesis by binding to enzymes called penicillin binding proteins. They are bacteriocidal to both gram positive and gram negative activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

When are cephalosporins indicated

A

Pneumonia
Meningitis
Gonorrhoea
UTIs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Caution with cephalosporins

A

Hypersensitivity- 0.5-6% of penicillin allergic patients will be allergic to cephalosporins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Examples of glycopeptide antibiotics

A

Vancomycin
Teicoplanin
Telavancin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Mechanism of action of glycopeptide antibiotics

A

They inhibit cell wall synthesis by binding to the cell wall precursor components, this leads to interference of the penicillin binding protein enzymes preventing Cell wall synthesis.

Active against aerobic and anaerobic gram +ive bacteria including MRSA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Side-effects of glycopeptide antibiotics

A
Nephrotoxicity 
Blood disorders 
Ototoxicity
Red man syndrome
Thrombophlebitis at injection site 
Nausea 
Chills 
Fever
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Indication for glycopeptide antibiotics

A

More serious infections
C. Diff
Endocarditis
Surgical prophylaxis when high risk of MRSA

Should not be given orally except for c. Diff as it’s not significantly absorbed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Why is the loading dose required for vancomycin and what is the therapeutic range

A

Long half life

Therapeutic range: 10-15mg/L
15-20mg/ml for endocarditis and less sensitive MRSA strains

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are warning signs for patient taking glycopeptide antibiotics

A
Ototoxicity 
Blood disorders
Red man syndrome (flushing of the upper part of the body)
Phlebitis 
Nephrotoxicity 
Skin disorders
Hypotension
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Drug interactions with glycopeptide antibiotics

A

Increased risk of ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity when given with ciclosporin, aminoglycosides, anti fungal and loop diuretics (ototoxicity)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What’s the mechanism of action of Clindamycin
It binds to ribosomes inhibiting cell wall protein synthesis, it has bacteria static actions against gram positive aerobes and anaerobes
26
What’s the indication for clindamycin
Joint and bone infection, intraabdominal sepsis, cellulitis, skin and soft tissue infection
27
What’s an alarming symptom with clindamycin use?
Antibiotic associated colitis so if diarrhoea develops stop and contact GP
28
Examples of macrolides
Erythromycin Azithromycin Clarithromycin
29
Mechanism of action of macrolides
Binds to ribosomes inhibiting cell wall protein synthesis, similar activity to penicillin thus are an alternative in allergic patients
30
Indications for macrolides
Respiratory infection
31
Interactions of macrolides
Other drugs that prolong the QT interval Statins Calcium channel blockers Warfarin (increasing their concentration)
32
Mechanism of action of metronidazole
A prodrug that it’s active form binds to DNA to distrust its helical structure, inhibiting bacterial synthesis It has high activity against anaerobic bacteria and Protozoa
33
When is metronidazole indicated
An alternative to penicillin treatment for many awful infections where anaerobes are either resistant to penicillin or patients are allergic H. Pylori Oral infections Ulcers Pressure sores
34
Side effects of metronidazole
``` GI disturbances Taste disturbances (metallic) Furred tongue Anorexia Oral mucositis Discoloured urine (dark) ```
35
How should metronidazole be taken
With it after food Avoid alcohol
36
Penicillins mechanism of action
Inhibit bacterial wall synthesis by preventing peptoglycan cross linking. Cover both gram positive and negative
37
How should penicillin be taken?
On an empty stomach an hour before food or 2 hours after | Amoxicillin not affected by food
38
Side effects of penicillins
Hypersensitivity Anaphylaxis Diarrhoea CNS toxicity (encephalopathy) Jaundice with co-amoxiclav Hepatic disorders with flucloxacillin
39
Which penicillins are beta-lactamase sensitive
Penicillin G and V and amoxicillin
40
Which penicillin is penicillinase resistant
Flucloxacillin
41
MHRA alert for specific penicillins
Jaundice with co-amoxiclav | Hepatic disorders with flucloxacillin
42
Quinolone examples
``` Ciprofloxacin Levofloxacin Moxifloxacin Norfloxacin Ofloxacin ```
43
Mechanism of action of quinolone
Inhibits enzyme necessary for bacterial DNA replication | Active against gram positive and gram negative
44
Quinolone indications
Respiratory tract infections Anthrax Gonorrhoea UTI
45
What important interaction or side effects are important to note with quinolone
QT interval prolongation Quinolone may induce convulsion and taking NSAID at the same time increases the risk Rare risk of tendon damage within 48 hours of starting (risk increased if used with a steroid, history of tendon disorder or patient over 60) Reduce exposure to light to avoid photosensitivity reaction Less suitable in children due to risk of arthropathy
46
Example of diaminopyramides and it’s mechanism of action
Co-trimoxazole and trimethoprim They both block different steps in the synthesis of nucleic acids essential to many bacteria Effective against a wide range of gram positive and negative bacteria
47
Tetracycline examples and mechanism of action
Tetracycline Doxycycline Minocycline Taken up into bacterial cells and inhibit protein synthesis and hence cell growth
48
Tetracycline side effects
``` GI disturbances Hepatotoxicity Photosensitivity Hypersensitivity Headache and visual disturbances (indicate increased intracranial pressure) Oesophageal irritation ```
49
Contraindications and cautions on tetracycline
Hepatic and renal impairment | Avoid in children, pregnant women and breast feeding (affects growing bones and stain teeth)
50
Counselling points with tetracyclines
Take with food but avoid antacids, aluminium, calcium, iron, magnesium and zinc salts as these decrease absorption Swallow whole with plenty of fluid and sit up for Atleast 30 minutes to avoid oesophageal irritation Wear spf and avoid direct sunlight
51
What would you need to measure if you experience unexplained muscle weakness tenderness or cramps while taking Daptomycin
Creatinine kinase levels
52
Which MAOI medication can be given for bacterial infection and covers MRSA and vancomycin-resistant cocci
Linezolid
53
What needs to be monitored and what are MHRA alerts for linezolid
Full weekly blood count Severe optic neuropathy may occur if used for longer than 28 days
54
What does the initial stage of the management of tuberculosis consist of and what’s the aim (clue: RIPE)
``` Consists of 4 drugs - Rifampicin - Isoniazid - Pyrazinamide - Ethambutol It lasts for 2 months ``` Aim is to rapidly reduce the population of M. Tuberculosis to minimise bacterial resistance
55
What does the continuous phase of tuberculosis treatment consist of (Clue: RI)
Consists of 2 drugs: - Isoniazid - Rifampicin Lasting 4 months
56
What do you monitor for antituberculosis drugs
``` Drug levels Visual activity Blood counts Renal function Hepatic function Urinalysis Plasma levels Auditory function in elderly ```
57
What is nitrofurantoin used for and how does it work
Broad spectrum antibacterial active against the majority of urinary pathogens. (Mainly E. coli) It’s bactericidal in renal tissue and throughout the urinary tract
58
When should culture and sensitivity testing be carried out for the use of nirtofurantoin
``` In men In pregnant women In children under 3 In patients with upper UTI, complicated UTI or recurrent UTI If resistant organism suspected ```
59
What is co-amoxiclav
Amoxicillin with a beta-lactamase inhibitor called clavulanic acid
60
What does Tazocin contain and what is it used against?
Piperacillin and tazobactam It is a broad spectrum antibiotics effective against anaerobes
61
What needs to be counselled with nitrofurantoin
Should be taken with food and may colour the urine yellow or brown
62
Side effects of the TB antibiotics used
RIFAMPICIN: Liver toxicity (jaundice) Induces hepatic enzymes that accelerates metabolism (COC ineffective) Tears urine and sweat become orange/ red ISONIAZID: Peripheral neuropathy Vitamin B6 deficiency Hepatotoxicity ETHAMBUTOL: Visual problems Flatulence
63
What common antibiotics are used to treat C. Diff and for how long
First line: metronidazole Oral vancomycin 10-14 days
64
Which antibiotics or acute exacerbation of chronic bronchitis treated with
Amoxicillin or a tetracycline
65
What is community-acquired pneumonia typically treated with
Amoxicillin and clarithromycin
66
What is hospital-acquired pneumonia and usually treated with
Co-amoxiclav or cefuroxime
67
What are urinary tract infections usually treated with
Trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin families
68
What is gonorrhoea and chlamydia usually treated with
Azithromycin
69
What is sepsis usually treated with
Tazocin or cefuroxime
70
Which macrolides can be sold OTC for patients over 16 with confirmed chlamydia
Azithromycin
71
For which antibiotics are oral contraceptives not effective and must use additional contraception
Penicillins and tetracyclines
72
Which antibiotics do you take on an empty stomach and a full glass of water
Macrolides Tetracyclines Quinolone
73
Which antibiotics should you avoid sun due to risk of burns from increased photosensitivity
Quinolone Tetracycline Sulfa drugs (trimethoprim)
74
Major side effect of cephalosporins
Bleeding so monitor platelet count | C. Diff
75
Which 2 antibiotics classes shouldn’t be mixed
Penicillin | Cephalosporins
76
Which are the most ototoxic and nephrotoxic drugs
Glycopeptide- vancomycin Aminoglycosides- tobramycin, gentamicin, neomycin
77
What’s the best way to administer vancomycin
Slow over 60 minutes to avoid red man syndrome | While monitoring BP
78
Which metronidazole symptom is a red flag
Skin peeling
79
What group of patients might receive antifungal drugs prophylactically and why
Immunocompromised patients as they’re at risk of fungal infections
80
Name the main antifungals drug classes
Triazole Imidazole Polyene Echinocandin
81
What role do triazole antifungals have
They have a role in the prevention and systemic treatment of fungal infections
82
Name antifungals in the triazole class
Fluconazole Itraconazole Posaconazole Voriconazole
83
What drugs does the Imidazole antifungals class include
``` Clotrimazole Econazole Ketoconazole Tioconazole Miconazole ```
84
What are Imodazole antifungals used for
Local treatment of vaginal candidiasis and for dermatophyte infections Miconazole for oral infections
85
What drugs does the polyene antifungals include
Amphotericin | Nystatin
86
How should polyene antifungals not be given
Orally as they’re not absorbed (local application or intravenous infusion)
87
What are cautions when prescribing Itraconazole
Heart failure and hepatotoxicity
88
What should be monitored with itraconazole
Liver function if high doses or longe term
89
Which triazole antifungals should not be given in pregnancy
Fluconazole
90
What’s important about the prescribing and administration of amphotericin
Prescribed by brand as not interchangeable Needs to be given intravenously but toxic (anaphylaxis can occur) via this route so side effects are common A test dose must be given and monitored for half an hour
91
What is the Antifungal of choice for prophylactic treatment
Oral Triazole antifungals
92
What’s the MHRA alert for ketoconazole
Restriction of ketoconazole use due to associated fatal hepatotoxicity
93
Monitoring requirements for Ketoconazole
ECG Adrenal function Hepatic function
94
When should systemic antifungal treatment be used
It topical treatment fails If many areas are affected If the site of infection is difficult to treat (eg nail)
95
What may fluconazole interact with
``` Statins Warfarin Diazepam Phenytoin Theophylline ```
96
What’s the drug of choice for helminth infections (eg: thread worm) and what’s the dosing
Mebendazole | One dose then another after 2 weeks to avoid reinfection (age > 6months)
97
What amphotericin B used for and what’s the adverse effects
Severe fungal infections Renal injury
98
What’s nystatin used for
Fungal infection (candidiasis) of the mouth, GI, nail, skin and the vagina
99
Give a few malaria preventative measures against bites
Long sleeves Trousers after dusk Mosquito nets DEET (diethyltoluamide) anyone over 2 months
100
Length of malarial prophylaxis
Generally one week before travel and 4 weeks after leaving 2-3 weeks before leaving for mefloquine 1-2 days before leaving for malarone and Stopped 1 weeks after return 1-2 days before leaving for doxycycline
101
What should the patient travelling from a high malaria endemic area look out for once returning
Any illness within 1 year of return especially within 3 months
102
What anti-malarial are not suitable for patients with epilepsy
Chloroquine and mefloquine due to neuropsychiatric reactions
103
What anti-malarial are not suitable for patients with renal impairment
Proguanil should be avoided malarone and chloroquine should not be used if eGFR < 30 (Doxycycline or mefloquine choice of drug)
104
Anti malarial advice during pregnancy
Avoid travelling to malarious areas as a whole Quinine can be taken If taking proguanil, folic acid should be given for the first trimester Doxycycline is contraindicated in pregnancy (can be used after 15 weeks gestation) Malarone should be avoided in pregnancy
105
Advice for anti-malarial for patients on anticoagulation
Travellers taking warfarin should begin chemoprophylaxis 2 to 3 weeks before departure INR should be stable before departure and should be measured before starting chemoprophylaxis, Seven days after starting and after completing the course
106
What do you treat malaria with if the infective species is not known
Quinine Malarone (atovaquone with proguanil) Riamet
107
How is uncomplicated malaria usually treated
Chloroquine
108
What antimalarials are available OTC for prophylaxis
Chloroquine and proguanil | Atovaquone and proguanil (malarone)
109
Prophylaxis regimes against malaria
(1) Chloroquine only (2) Chloroquine with proguanil (3) Atovaquone with proguanil OR doxycycline OR mefloquine
110
That’s the treatment options for malaria
Quinine Malarone (atovaquone with proguanil) Riamet Choloquine (non- falciparum malaria)
111
What group of drugs are used for HIV and what’s the treatment aims?
Antiretroviral Aim is to prevent mortality and morbidity associated with chronic HIV infection whilst minimising drug toxicity
112
Which antivirals are licensed for influenza and how do they work
Osteltamivir and zanamivir They reduce the replication of influenza A and B by inhibiting viral neuraminidase (Licensed for use up to 48hrs into a flu)
113
Why may oseltamivir be ineffective in neonates
They’re unable to metabolise it to its active form
114
What causes herpes simplex and where does it affect
HSV 1- mouth, lips and eyes | HSV 2 and HSV 1- genital infections
115
What is chicken pox caused by and when is treatment usually required
Varicella zoster Neonates should be treated with parenteral antiviral Antiviral may be needed in adolescents and adults
116
What’s shingles caused by and how is it treated
Herpes Zoster Treated with systemic antiviral within 72hrs of rash and contributed for 7-10 days
117
What’s the treatment of choice for herpes virus?
Aciclovir- active against HSV topically or systemically varicella-zoster (chicken pox) Famiciclovir- used in herpes zoster (shingles) and genital herpes Valciclovir- used in herpes zoster (shingles) and herpes simplex (HSV)
118
What’s the drug treatment of choice for chronic hepatitis B and when should it be contraindicated
Peginterferon alfa Contraindicated in liver disease
119
What’s the drug treatment of choice in chronic hepatitis C
A combination of ribavirin and peginterferon Alfa is used Peg Alfa can be used alone but ribavirin mono therapy is ineffective
120
Why should alcohol be avoided with metronidazole
Cause disulfiram like reaction Severe nausea and vomiting
121
Aminoglycosides must be monitored on everyone but mainly what groups of people
``` Elderly Obese Cystic fibrosis High doses Renally impaired ```
122
When should once daily regime of gentamicin be avoided
Crcl <20ml/min Burns covering >20% Endocarditis caused by HÁČEK or gram positive
123
What do you do if the gentamicin post dose peak is too high (above 5-10)
Reduce dose
124
What do you do if the pre dose trough level of gentamicin is too high (>2)
Increase interval
125
What’s the general rule of thumb for common bacterial infections
``` Staphylococci- flucloxacillin MRSA- vancomycin Streptococci- benzylpenicillin or phenoxymethylpenicillin Anaerobic bacteria- metronidazole Pseudomonas aeruginosa- aminoglycosides ```
126
What’s endocarditis treated with
Amoxicillin +/- Gentamicin
127
What’s the initial treatment for meningitis
Benzylpenicillin
128
Common eye infection and treatment
Conjunctivitis Chlorophenicol
129
What’s dental infections usually treated with?
Metronidazole 200mg TDS 3 times a day
130
Which antifungal causes phototoxicity and an alert card should be carried
Voriconazole
131
What do you give for thrush
Oral thrush: Nystatin or miconazole Vaginal thrush: Fluconazole or clotrimazole (imidiazole)
132
What do you give for fungal nail infection and when do you refer
Amorolfine When more than 2 nails is infected
133
What’s the standby treatment for malaria?
Quinine | Take 1 if you cannot access medical care in 24hours of fever onset
134
What are the long term malaria prophylaxis
>5 years chloroquine and proguanil 2 years doxycycline 1 year mefloquine, malarone
135
If Gentamicin and ciprofloxacin are the only suitable antibiotics for a specific treatment, which one would you go for and why?
Ciprofloxacin as it’s oral Gentamicin is IV so patient would have to remain an inpatient Oral> IV
136
What’s the interaction between erythromycin and theophylline
Erithromycin increases theophylline conc
137
What’s the scoring system for CAP and HAP
CAP- crb65 HAP- curb65
138
Signs and symptoms of an infection
``` Fever, malaise, aches and pains Pus, swelling or inflammation Drowsiness in children Confusion in elderly Worsening renal function ```
139
Clinical markers of an infection
Low blood pressure Raised blood glucose High ESR, CRP, temperature, RR and pulse
140
What’s a superinfection
Clindamycin and broad spec antibiotics kill normal flora and allow selective organism to thrive Causing antibiotic associated colitis (c. Diff) and thrush (candida)
141
Side effect of trimethoprim
Anti folate (teratogenic) Blood dysrasias Hyperkalaemia
142
What’s chloramphenicol reserved for
Reserved for life threatening infections
143
Why should broad spectrum-antibiotics not be given blindly for sore throats
Causes maculopapular rash in Glandular fever
144
Give examples of narrow spectrum, broad spectrum, penicillinase resistant and anti pseudomonal penicillins
Narrow spec: Benzylpenicillin (pen G) Phenoxymethylpenicillin (pen V) Broad spec: Ampicillin Amoxicillin Penicillinase resistant: Flucloxicillin Antipseudomonas (extended spectrum): Piperacillin (tazobactam) Ticaricillin (with clauvic acid)
145
When should you monitor multiple dose regimes of aminoglycoside and vancomycin
After 3 or 4 doses and after a dose change
146
Antibiotics most likely to cause c. Diff
Clindamycin Ampicillin/ amoxicillin 2nd 3rd gen cephalosporin Quinolone
147
Treatment for c. Diff
Metronidazole 10-14 days Then try oral vancomycin Loperamide is contraindicated
148
Treatment for CAP
Mild= Amoxicillin (alternative: clarithromycin or doxycycline) for 7 days Moderate= amoxicillin + clarithromycin Severe= benzylpenicillin + Clari/doxy Add fluclox if staph suspected Add vancomycin if MRSA suspected
149
Treatment for HAP
Early onset or < 5 days Co amoxiclav or cefuroxime Severe or > 5 days Antipseudomonal penicillin or broad spectrum cephalosporin or quinolone Add fluclox if staph suspected Add vancomycin if MRSA suspected
150
Causative agent for meningitis and treatment
Neisseria meningitidis Benzylpenicillin
151
Treatment for osteomyelitis
Flucloxacillin Clindamycin of penicillin allergic Add vancomycin if MRSA suspected
152
How long should aninoglycoside treatment generally not exceed
7 days
153
Drugs to avoid in hepatic impairment
Chloramphenicol Co wmoxiclav Tetracycline Co trimoxazole
154
Treatment for impetigo and what is it
Bacterial skin infection mainly in children First line fusidic acid
155
What macrolide can you give in pregnancy
Erythromycin
156
What varies with increasing generation of cephalosporins
It cover more gram negative as it goes from from 1 to 5
157
Which antibiotic is least likely to cause c diff or the best treatment for c diff
Vancomycin
158
When should another dose be taken to treat lice
7 days
159
Why is pyridoxine given with isoniazid for TB treatment
Peripheral neuropathy
160
Which antibiotic is likely to cause sedation
Quinolones- ciprofloxacin
161
What type of infection is ringworms
Fungal
162
Which antibiotics are used for common GU infections like chlamydia, BV and pelvic inflammatory disease
Azithromycin- used in chlamydia And gonorrhoea Doxycycline- alternative in chlamydia and pelvic inflammatory disease Metronidazole- used in BV and pelvic inflammatory disease
163
What class is amikacin and when is it usually indicated
Aminoglycosides Indicated for gentamicin resistant infections as amikacin is more stable to enzyme inactivation
164
Which aminoglycoside is too toxic to be administered parenteral Therefore taken by mouth
Neomycin | Used for bowel sterilisation before surgery
165
What antibiotics require reporting on blood disorders/ rash
Co-trimoxazole (contains trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole) Trimethoprim Penicillamine
166
Which antibiotic has been associated with myopathy/ muscle effects
Daptomycin Monitor creatinine kinase every 2 days of muscle effects reported
167
Which antibiotics can cause choke static jaundice
Co amoxiclav Nitrofurantoin Fluoxacillin (even up to 2 months after)
168
Which antibiotics are associated with visual problems
Linezolid- optic nephropathy Quinolones- retinol detachment Ethambutol (used for tb)- ocular toxicity Rifampicin- colours tears/ contacts red Rifambutin- uveitis (eye inflammation)
169
What conditions can tetracyclines exacerbate
``` Systemic lupus Myasthenia gravis (increased muscle weakness) ```
170
Which antibiotics can cause a false positive on urinary glucose tests
Cephalosporin
171
Which antibiotics is a folate synthesis inhibitor and therefore teratogenic
Trimethoprim Co trimoxazole
172
Which antibiotics/ anti fungal S can cause Steven Johnson’s syndrome
Cotrimoxazole Clindamycin Fluconazole
173
What skin condition may terbinafine (antifungal) exacerbate
Psoriasis
174
What antibiotic should be used for resistant strains of pneumonia
Co amoxiclav
175
What can chloremphenicol cause in babies
Grey baby syndrome
176
What’s an important side effect of tetracycline that would require you to stop
Benign intracranial hypertension Stop if headache or visual disturbances occur
177
Tetracyclines should be avoided in renal impairment except which ones
Doxycyclines | Minocycline
178
Which tetracyclines need to counselled to avoid exposure to sunlight and wear spf
Doxycycline | Demeclocycline
179
Which tetracycline have decreased absorption when taken with antacids so need to be counselled to avoid taking antacid 2 hours before and after
Demeclocycline Oxytetracycline Tetracycline
180
Which tetracyclines can cause oesophageal irritation so need to be counselled to swallow tablet whole
Doxycycline Minocycline Tetracycline
181
What infections should quinolones be avoided in
MRSA
182
What’s clarithromycin commonly used to treat
Chest infections
183
What can azithromycin 1g as a single dose otc be used to treat
Chlamydia
184
Which macrolides should be taken 2 hours after ingestion remedies
Azithromycin | Erythromycin
185
Side effects of macrolides
GI effects QT prolongation Heptotoxicty Otoxicity at high doses
186
What antibiotic is first line for treating animal bites
Co-amoxiclav
187
Can pregnant women take mebendazole
No
188
Treatment for scarlet fever
Phenoxymethylpenicillin (pen V) | Qds for 10 days