Chapter 5: Integumentary System Flashcards
1
Q
abscess
A
localized collection of pus at the site of an infection
2
Q
acne
A
inflammatory disease of the sebaceous glands and hair follicles of the skin with characteristic lesions that include blackheads (comedos), inflammatory papule, pustules, nodules and cysts
3
Q
alopecia
A
partial or complete loss of hair resulting from normal aging, endocrine disorder, drug reaction, anticancer medication or skin disease
4
Q
Bowen disease
A
very early form of skin cancer which is easily curable and characterized by red, scaly patch on the skin
5
Q
what is Bowen disease’s other name
A
squamous cell carcinoma in situ
6
Q
cellulitis
A
diffuse (widespread) acute infection of the skin and subcutaneous tissue
7
Q
chloasma
A
pigmentary skin disorder usually occurring in yellowish-brown patches or spots
8
Q
comedo
A
typical small skin lesion of acne vulgarisms caused by accumulation of keratin, bacteria, and dried sebum plugging an excretory duct of the skin
9
Q
decubitus ulcer
A
(aka bed sore/ pressure ulcer) inflammation, sore, or skin deterioration caused by prolonged pressure from lying in one position that prevents blood flow to the tissues; usually in elderly bedridden patients
10
Q
ecchymosis
A
(bruise) skin discoloration of a large, irregularly formed hemorrhagic area with colors changing from bluish black to greenish brown/yellow
11
Q
eczema
A
chronic inflammatory skin condition that is characterized by erythema, papule, vesicles, pustules, scales, crusts, and scabs; accompanied by intense itching (pruritus)
12
Q
what is another name for eczema?
A
atopic dermatitis
13
Q
erythema
A
redness of the skin caused by swelling of the capillaries (mild sunburn or nervous blushing)
14
Q
eschar
A
dead matter that is sloughed off from the surface of the skin especially after a burn (crusty or scabbed)
15
Q
impetigo
A
bacterial skin infection characterized by isolated pustules that become crusted and rupture
16
Q
keratosis
A
thickened area of the epidermis or any horny growth on the skin (callus or wart)
17
Q
lentigo
A
small brown macule, especially on face and arms, brought on by sun exposure, usually in a middle-aged/ older person (freckles)
18
Q
pallor
A
unnatural paleness or absence of color in the skin
19
Q
pediculosis
A
infestation with lice, transmitted by personal contact or common use brushes, combs or headgear
20
Q
petechia
A
minute, pinpoint hemorrhage under the skin (smaller version of an ecchymosis)
21
Q
pruritus
A
intense itching
22
Q
psoriasis
A
chronic skin disease characterized by itchy red patches covered by thick, dry, silvery scales caused by excessive development of the basal layer of the epidermis
23
Q
purpura
A
any of several bleeding disorders characterized by hemorrhage into the tissues, particularly beneath the skin or mucous membranes, producing ecchymoses or petechiae
24
Q
scabies
A
contagious skin disease transmitted by the itch mite, commonly though sexual contact
25
tinea
fungal skin infection whose name commonly indicated the body part affected (also called ringworm)
26
urticaria
allergic reaction of the skin characterized by the eruption of pale red, elevated patches called wheals or hive s
27
verruca
epidermal growth caused by a virus (known as warts)
28
vitiligo
localized loss of skin pigmentation characterized by milk-white patches
29
allergy test
any test in which a suspected allergen or sensitizer is applied to or injected into the skin to determine the patient's sensitivity to it
30
intradermal allergy test
skin test that identifies suspected allergens by subcutaneously injecting small amounts of extracts of the suspected allergens and observing the skin for a subsequent reaction
31
patch allergy test
skin test that identifies allergic contact dermatitis by applying a suspected allergen to a patch, which is then taped on the skin, usually the forearm, and observing the area 24 hrs later for an allergic response
32
scratch allergy test
skin test that identifies suspected allergens by placing a small quantity of the suspected allergen on a lightly scratched area of skin, also called puncture or prick test
33
culture & sensitivity (C&S)
laboratory test to determine the presence of pathogens in patients with suspected wound infections and identify the appropriate drug therapy to which the organisms responds (sensitivity)
34
biopsy
representative tissue sample removed from a body site for microscopic examination
35
frozen section (FS)`
ultra thin slice of tissue from a frozen specimen for immediate pathological examination (commonly used for rapid diagnosis of malignancy after patient has been anesthetized in order to determine treatment)
36
needle (surgical)
removal of a small tissue sample for examination using a hollow needle usually attached to syringe
37
punch (surgical)
removal of a small core of tissue using a hollow punch (on your forearm)
38
shave (surgical)
removal of elevated lesions using a surgical blade
39
Mohs (surgery)
procedure that involves progressive removal and examination of layers of cancer-containing skin until only cancer free tissue remains; also called micrographic surgery
40
skin graft
transplantation of healthy tissue to an injured site
41
allograft
transplantation of healthy tissue from one person to another person (also called homograft)
42
autograft
transplantation of healthy tissue from one site to another site on the same individual
43
synthetic (skin graft)
transplantation of artificial skin produced from collagen fibers arranged in a lattice pattern
44
xenograft
transplantation (dermis only) from a foreign donor (usually a pig) and transferred to a human; also called heterograft
45
chemical peel
chemical removal of the outer layers of the kin to treat acne scarring and general keratoses; also called chemabrasion
46
cryosurgery
use of subfreezing temperature (commonly fluid nitrogen) to destroy or eliminate abnormal tissue, such as tumors, warts, and unwanted cancerous or infected tissue
47
débridement
removal or necrotized tissue from a wound by surgical excision, enzymes, or chemical agents
48
dermabrasion
rubbing (abrasion) using wire brushes or sandpaper to mechanically scrape away (abrade) the epidermis
49
fulguration
tissue destruction by means of high-frequency electric current; also called electrodesiccation
50
photodynamic therapy (PDT)
procedure in which cells selectively treated w an agent called a photo sensitizer are exposed to light to produce a reaction that destroys the cells (used to treat cancer, actinic keratosis, and macular degeneration)
51
Bx, bx
biopsy
52
BCC
basal cell carcinoma
53
C&S
culture and sensitivity
54
FS
frozen section
55
ID
intradermal
56
I&D
incision and drainage
57
IMP
impression (synonymous w/ diagnosis)
58
IV
intravenous
59
TNM
tumor-node-metastasis
60
ung
ointment
61
XP, XDP
xeroderma pigmentosum
62
what is the therapeutic action of anti acne agents?
reduce acne through multiple mechanisms
63
what is the therapeutic action of antifungals?
alter the cell wall of fungi or disrupt enzyme activity, resulting in death
64
what is the therapeutic action of antihistamines?
inhibit allergic reactions of inflammation, redness, and itching caused by the release of histamine
65
what is the therapeutic action of antiparasitics?
kill insect parasites, such as mites and lice
66
what is the therapeutic action of antiseptics?
topically applied agents that inhibit growth of bacteria, thus preventing infections in cute, scratches, and surgical lesions
67
what is the therapeutic action of corticosteroids?
decrease inflammation and itching by suppressing the immune system's inflammatory response to tissue damage
68
what is the therapeutic action of keratolytics?
destroy and soften the outer layer of skin so that it is sloughed off or shed
69
what is the therapeutic action of protectives?
cover, cool, dry or soothe inflamed skin (such as lotions/ointments)
70
what is the therapeutic action of topical anesthetics?
block sensation of pain by numbing the skin layers and mucous membranes
71
what are the three accessory organs of the skin?
hair, glands and nails
72
what are the two distinct layers of the skin?
the epidermis and the dermis
73
what are the three layers of the epidermis (order of superficial first)
1) Epidermis
2) Stratum corneum
3) Basal layer
74
what is the epidermis?
outer most layer of the skin
75
what is the stratum corneum?
composed of dead, flat, skin cells that lack blood supply and sensory receptors
76
what is the basal layer?
deepest layer of epidermis, ONLY layer of epidermis composed of living cells (this is where new cells are formed); the cells move towards the stratum corneum to replace cells, they die and then become filled w keratin
77
what is keratin?
structural protein that has waterproof characteristics that prevents body fluids from evaporating
78
what does the basal layer also contain?
melanocytes (produce black pigment called melanin) that provides barrier from damaging effects of the sun and is responsible for different skin colors
79
what are the two layers of the dermis?
1) dermis / corium
| 2) subcutaneous layer/ hypodermis
80
what is the dermis / corium? what does this layer contain?
lies directly beneath the epidermis and is composed of living tissue (contains capillaries, lymphatic vessels, & nerve endings) also contains hair follicles and glands
81
what is the subcutaneous layer / hypodermis? what does this layer contain?
this layer binds the dermis to the underlying structures
and is composed of loose connective tissues & adipose (fat) tissue interlaced w/ blood vessels. This layers stores fat, insulates & cushions the body and regulates body temp.
82
what role do integumentary glands play?
plays an important role in defending the body against disease and maintaining homeostasis
83
what are the two important glands in the integumentary glands?
1) sudoriferous glands (sweat glands)
| 2) sebaceous glands (oil glands)
84
what gland classification are sudoriferous and sebaceous glands?
exocrine glands because they secrete substances through ducts to the outer surface of the body
85
how to sudoriferous glands work and what is their main function?
secrete sweat onto surface of the skin through pores and their main function is to cool the body by evaporation, excrete waste productions and moisten surface cells
86
how do sebaceous glands work?
filled w cells whose centers contain fatty droplets which yield an oily secretion called sebum and if these ducts become blocked acne may result
87
what is sebum?
found in sebaceous glands and its acidic nature helps destroy harmful organisms on the skin preventing infection
88
what is alopecia?
it is baldness and occurs when hairs on the scalp are not replaced because of death of papillae
89
what is the papilla?
cluster of epithelial cells laying over papilla reproduces and is responsible for the eventual formation of hair shaft (as long as these cells are alive the hair will regenerate)
90
where is the nail formed?
at the nail root
91
what is the nail composed of?
keratinized, stratified, squamous epithelial cells
92
why does the nail body appear pink?
because of the underlying vascular tissue
93
what is the half moon shaped area at the base of the nail called and this is the site of what?
it is the lunula and is the region where new nail growth occurs
94
what are lesions?
areas of tissue that have been pathologically altered by injury, wound, or infection
95
what are the two main types of classification for lesions?
primary or secondary
96
what is a primary lesion? what are the two types?
initial reaction to pathologically altered tissue and may be flat or elevated
97
what is a secondary lesion? what is the only type called?
changes that take place in the primary lesion as a result of infection, scratching, trauma, or various stages of disease and these lesions are depressed
98
what is the only type of primary flat lesion? and what is it?
a macule; flat, pigmented, round area less than 1 cm in diameter and an example is a freckle or mole
99
what are the two categories of primary elevated lesions?
solid or fluid filled
100
what is a papule?
primary, solid, elevated lesion less than 1 cm in diameter example is wart, pimple, eczema or psoriasis
101
what is a nodule?
primary, solid, elevates lesion that is larger and deeper than a papule (.6 to 2 cm in diameter) and extends into dermal area examples include, benign or malignant tumor
102
what is a tumor?
primary, solid, elevated lesion larger than 2 cm in diameter and extends into the dermal and subcutaneous layers; example includes lipoma
103
what is a wheal?
primary, solid, elevated firm lesion with localized skin edema (swelling) that varies in size, shape, and color examples include hives and insect bites
104
what is a vesicle?
primary, fluid filled, elevated lesion less than .5 cm in diameter and examples include poison ivy, shingles and chickenpox
105
what is a pustule?
primary, fluid filled, elevated lesion that contains pus usually less than 1 cm in diameter examples include acne, pustular psoriasis and scabies
106
what is a bulla?
vesicle or blister that is primary, fluid filled, elevated lesion larger than 1 cm in diameter and examples include second degree burns, severe poison oak, and poison ivy
107
what is an excoriation?
secondary, depressed linear scratch marks or traumatized abrasions of the epidermis and examples include scratches, abrasions, chemical or thermal burns
108
what is a fissure?
secondary, depressed, small slit or crackle sore that extends into the dermal layer which could be caused by continuous inflammation or drying
109
what is an ulcer?
secondary, depressed open sore or lesion that extends into the dermis and usually heals with scarring examples include pressure sores and basal cell carcinoma
110
what are burns?
tissue injuries caused by contact w thermal, chemical, electrical or radioactive agents
111
what is a fist degree burn? what is it commonly caused by? symptoms?
'superficial burn' least serious type bc only injures the epidermis; commonly caused by thermal burn (sunburn) or chemical burn; local effects such as erythema (skin redness), acute sensitivity to touch and heat and cold (hyperesthesia)
112
what is a second degree burn? what is it commonly caused by? symptoms?
'partial thickness burns' deep burn that damage epidermis and part of dermis. Caused by contact w flames, hot liquids or chemicals. Symptoms mimic those of first degree burns but have fluid filled blisters that form
113
what is a third degree burn? what is it commonly caused by? symptoms?
'full thickness burn' epidermis and dermis are destroyed and some underlying connective tissue. Caused by corrosive chemicals, flams, electricity, or extremely hot objects. Symptoms include ulcerating wounds that develop and the body attempts to heal itself but forms scar tissue in that attempt
114
what is the rule of 9s?
a formula for predicting the % of adult body surface area affected by burns
115
what are neoplasms?
abnormal growths of new tissue that are classified as benign or malignant
116
what are benign neoplasms?
noncancerous growths that are composed of the same type of cells as the tissue in which they are growing
117
what are malignant neoplasms?
cancer that is composed of cells that tend to be invasive and spread to remote regions of the body (metastasis)
118
what is tumor grading?
cells from the tumor site are evaluated to determine how closely the biopsied tissue resembles normal tissue; the greater the difference the more serious the grade of cancer
119
what are the four grades and characteristics of tumor grading?
```
Grade 1 (tumor cells well differentiated) = close resemblance to tissue of origin; best prognosis for full recovery
Grade 2 (tumor cells moderately/poorly differentiated) = less resemblance to tissue of origin, increased mitosis
Grade 3 (tumor cells poorly differentiated) = increased abnormality in appearance w only remote resemblance to tissue of origin
Grade 4 (tumor cells very poorly differentiated) = abnormal appearance to extent that recognition of tumor tissue origin is difficult; poorest prognosis
```
120
what is tumor staging?
most common tumor staging system is the tumor, node, metastasis (TNM system)
121
what does the TNM system stand for?
T: size and invasiveness of the primary tumor
N: area lymph nodes involved
M: invasiveness (metastasis) of the primary tumor
122
(TNM system) what does TX mean?
primary tumor that cannot be evaluated
123
(TNM system) what does T0 mean?
no evidence of tumor
124
(TNM system) what does Tis mean?
Stage 1: carcinoma in situ, which indicates that the tumor is in a defined location and shows no invasion into surrounding tissues
125
(TNM system) what does T1, T2, T3, T4 mean?
Stage 2: primary tumor size and extent of local invasion, where T1 is small with minimal invasion, and T4 is large w extensive local invasion into surrounding organs and tissues
126
(TNM system) what does NX mean?
regional lymph nodes that cannot be evaluated
127
(TNM system) what does N0 mean?
regional lymph nodes that show no abnormalities
128
(TNM system) what does N1, N2, N3, N4 mean?
Stage 3: degree of lymph node involvement and spread to regional lymph nodes, where N1 is less involvement w minimal spreading and N4 is more involvement w extensive spreading
129
(TNM system) what does MX mean?
Distant metastasis that cannot be evaluated
130
(TNM system) what does M0 mean?
No evidence of metastasis
131
(TNM system) what does M1 mean?
Stage 4: presence of metastasis
132
what is basal cell carcinoma? what causes it? describe it?
Basal cell carcinoma, most common type of skin cancer, is malignancy of the basal layer of the epidermis (rarely metastasize). Commonly caused by overexpose to sunlight. Slow growing develop crusting that is firm to the touch.
133
what is squamous cell carcinoma? what causes it? two types?
squamous cell carcinoma arises from skin that undergoes pathological hardening (keratinizing) of epidermal cells. caused by repeated overexposure to the sun. Two types: 1) in situ (confined to original site) 2) invasive (those that penetrate the surrounding tissue)
134
what is malignant melanoma? what causes it?
malignant melanoma is a malignant growth of melanocytes. This tumor is highly metazoic and is the most lethal of cancers. Caused by excessive exposure to sunlight / severe sunburn multiple times in childhood.
135
what are the ABCs for determining malignancy?
A: asymmetry, B: border, C: color, D: diameter, E: evolving
136
adipose
pertaining to fat
137
androgen
usually refers to a hormone that stimulates the development of male characteristics
138
lipocele (or adipocele)
hernia containing fat or fatty tissue
139
cutaneous
beneath the skin
140
melanoma
cancerous tumor / growth
141
scleroderma
chronic hardening of the skin
142
seborrhea
excessive secretion
143
pyoderma
pyogenic infection of the skin
144
abscess
Pocket full of pus in a contained sac
145
carbuncle
Red, painful, numbs (boyles)
146
comedo
Plugged hair follicle (acne)
147
hirsutism
Male patterned growth seen on women (associated with POS)
