Chapter 7 High Yield Flashcards

(142 cards)

1
Q

What kind of tumor is derived from glands and applied to benign epithelial neoplasms?

A

Adenoma

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2
Q

What benign epithelial neoplasm has visible finger like or warty projections?

A

Papilloma

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3
Q

A poly with glandular tissue is called what?

A

Adenomatous polyp

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4
Q

Malignant tumors arising from solid mesenchymal tissues are called what?

A

Sarcoma

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5
Q

Malignant neoplasms of epithelial cell origin are called what?

A

Carcinomas

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6
Q

What is the most common mixed tumor?

Capable of producing what?

A

Salivary gland mixed tumor

Epithelial and myoepithelial cells

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7
Q

What is the term applied to a heterotopic rest of cells?

A

Choristoma

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8
Q

What refers to variation of size and shape of cancer cells?

A

Pleomorphism

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9
Q

What best describes carcinoma in situ?

A

Dysplastic changes are marked and involve the full thickness of the epithelium

Lesions DO NOT penetrate the BM

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10
Q

What malignant cancers invade early but rarely metastasize?

A

Gliomas

Basal cell carcinoma of the skin

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11
Q

What are the 3 pathways of spread of cancer?

A

Direct seeding of body cavities or surfaces
Lymphatic spread
Hematogenous spread

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12
Q

In direct seeding of body cavities, sometimes appendiceal carcinomas or ovarian carcinomas fill the peritoneal cavity with what?

A

Pseudomyxoma peritonei

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13
Q

Where do carcinomas of the breast in the upper outer quadrant disseminate 1st to?

Inner quadrants?

A

Axillary LN

LNs along internal mammary arteries

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14
Q

Where do carcinomas of the lung in the major respiratory passages metastasize first to?

A

Perihilar tracheobronchial and mediastinal nodes

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15
Q

Renal cell carcinoma invades what structure?

A

Renal vein then the IVC

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16
Q

Hepatocellular carcinoma often penetrates what?

A

Portal and hepatic radicles

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17
Q

Breast carcinoma preferentially spreads to where?

A

Bone

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18
Q

Bronchogenic carcinoma preferentially spreads to where?

A

Adrenals and brain

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19
Q

Neuroblastoma preferentially spreads to where?

A

Liver and bones

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20
Q

Describe the following for malignant cancers:

Differentiation
Rate of growth
Local invasion
Metastasis

A

Lack differentiation (anaplasia)
Erratic, slow or rapid
Locally invasive
Frequent

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21
Q

Describe the following for benign cancers:

Differentiation
Rate of growth
Local invasion
Metastasis

A

Well differentiated
Progressive and slow
Cohesive
Absent

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22
Q

What are the most common tumors in Men?

Bitches?

A

Prostate, lung, colon

Breast, lung, colon

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23
Q

What is responsible for a large majority of cervical carcinoma and increasing fraction of head and neck cancers?

A

HPV

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24
Q

What cancer is associated with benzene?

A

AML

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25
What cancer is associated with beryllium?
Lung carcinoma
26
What cancer is associated with cadmium?
Prostate carcinoma
27
What cancer is associated with vinyl chloride?
Hepatic angiosarcoma
28
What cancer is associated with chromium?
Lung carcinoma
29
What cancer is associated with nickel?
Lung and oropharyngeal carcinoma
30
What is the etiologic agent of osteomyelitis? What neoplasm?
Bacterial infection Carcinoma in draining sinuses
31
What is the classic example of a benign, neoplastic, precursor lesion?
Colonic villous adenoma
32
Mutation in ABL gene results in what cancer?
CML | ALL
33
What gene mutation causes breast carcinoma?
ERBB2 (HER2)
34
What gene mutation causes adenocarcinoma of the lung?
ERBB1 (EGFR)
35
Mutation of JAK2 gene causes what?
Myeloproliferative disorders | ALL
36
Mutation of ALK gene causes what cancers?
Adenocarcinoma of lung Lymphomas Neuroblastomas
37
PDGFB mutation causes what cancer?
Astrocytoma = glioblastoma
38
TGFA mutation causes what cancer?
astrocytoma
39
90% of what type of cancer contains RAS mutations?
Pancreatic adenocarcinomas
40
T(9;22) of BCR-ABL results in what?
CML | ALL
41
What are examples of myeloproliferative disorders? What gene mutation causes these?
PEP Polycythemia Vera Essential thrombocytosis Primary myelofibrosis JAK2
42
T (8;14) is seen in what? What is located on chromosome 8 and 14?
Burkitt lymphoma MYC - 8 Ig heavy chain - 14
43
What responds to growth suppressors such as TGF-B?
p27
44
What is induced by p53? What does it inhibit?
p21 CDK4-cyclin D thus maintaining RB in active state
45
What chromosome is p53 located on? Acts mainly through what? What negatively regulates p53?
17 P21 MDM2
46
What inhibits MDM2 activity? What does this do?
p14 Increases p53 activity
47
What specifically binds to cyclinD-CDK4 to inhibit the cell cycle?
p16
48
What are the key initiators of p53 activity following DNA damage or cellular exposure to hypoxia?
ATM | ATR
49
Tumors with wild type or mutated TP53 alleles are more susceptible to chemotherapy? What kind of cancers?
Wild type Testicular teratocarcinomas and childhood ALL
50
Mutated TP53 alleles are mostly resistant to chemotherapy and irrigation and include what cancers?
Lung and colorectal
51
What is an abundant collagenous stroma called? How can this also be described?
Desmoplasia Scirrhous
52
What chromosome is the RB gene located? How is it inherited?
13 Autosomal dominant
53
When is the RB gene active? Is E2F sequestered or released When RB is active?
Hypophosphorylated Sequestered
54
Mutation of APC causes what cancer? Inherited how? Inhibits what?
Carcinoma of stomach, colon, pancreas, melanoma Autosomal dominant WNT signaling
55
NF1 gene mutation causes what cancer? Inhibits what?
Neuroblastoma Juvenile myeloid leukemia RAS/MAPK signaling
56
NF2 mutation causes what Cancer? What is its function?
Schwannoma Meningioma Cytoskeleton stability
57
BRCA1 mutation causes what cancer What specifically for men?
Familial breast and ovarian carcinomas Carcinomas of male breast
58
What cancer is specific to a mutation in BRCA2?
Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
59
Mutation of VHL gene causes what cancer? What syndromes? What does it inhibit?
Renal cell carcinoma Cerebellar hemangioblastoma, retinal angioma HIF1a
60
What gene mutation is responsible for causing gastric carcinoma and lobular breast carcinoma? What is the fx?
CDH1 Cell adhesion, inhibition of cell motility
61
What is the function of GADD45? What induces it?
DNA repair p53
62
What does CDKN2A activate?
p16 and p14
63
How does the Warburg effect work (3 ways)?
PI3K/AKT signaling RTK activity MYC
64
What opposes the actions of the Warburg effect via blockage of PI3K/AKT signaling?
PTEN
65
Mutation of PTEN results in what? Located on what chromosome?
Cowden syndrome 10
66
What is loss of adhesion to the BM called? Triggers what?
Anoikis Apoptosis
67
T(14;18) results in what kind of cancers?
Follicular lymphoma
68
What protein is often found overexpressed in drug-resistant cancers?
MCL-1
69
What are the 6 methods of evasion of apoptosis?
``` Loss of p53 -> reduction of BAX Upregulation of BCL2, BCL-XL, MCL-1 Loss of APAF1 Upregulation of IAPs Reduced CD96 Inactivation of FADD ```
70
What terminates the vascular quiescence in situ tumors experience?
Angiogenic switch
71
What are the main pro angiogenic factors? GOF mutations in what may upregulate them?
VEGF, bFGF RAS or MYC
72
What is the 1st step of invasion?
Loss of E-Cadherins
73
What is the 2nd step of invasion?
Degradation of the BM and interstitial CT
74
What proteases are involved in tumor cell invasion (2nd step)?
MMPs Cathepsin D Urokinase plasminogen activator.
75
What is the 3rd step in invasion?
Attachment of tumor cells to ECM proteins via Integrins
76
What is the final step in invasion?
Locomotion, propelling tumor cells through the degraded BM and zones of matrix proteolysis
77
Solid tumors and normal T lymphocytes use what to spread to LNs and other metastatic sites?
CD44 binding to hyaluronate on HEVs
78
Where do most metastasis occur? What organs?
First capillary bed available Lung and liver
79
What areas of the body rarely have metastasis?
Spleen | Skeletal muscle
80
What are the oncofetal antigens whose expression at high levels indicates cancer on normal tissue?
CEA (carcinoembryonic antigen) | AFP (a-fetoprotein)
81
What mucins are expressed on ovarian carcinomas?
CA-125 | CA19-9
82
Where is MUC-1 expressed?
Ovarian and breast carcinomas
83
What is expressed on all normal mature B cells and may be used in cancer treatment to leukemia?
CD20
84
What is expressed on T cell lymphomas and Hodgkin lymphomas and antibodies to it may be used as treatment?
CD30
85
What are the anti-tumor effector mechanisms?
CTL NK Macrophages
86
What mode of inheritance is hereditary nonpolyposis colon cancer (HNPCC)? Defect in what? Genome shows what?
Autosomal dominant Mismatch repair system Microsatellite instability
87
Mutations in what genes account for 30% of HNPCC?
MSH2 and MLH1
88
People with xeroderma pigmentosum are at increased risk for what? Defect in what?
Cancer of skin due to UV radiation -> pyrimidine dimers NER
89
Defects in the homologous recombination DNA repair system results in what?
Bloom syndrome Ataxia-Telangiectasia Fanconi anemia
90
Lymphoid neoplasms result from genomic instability caused by what mutations?
RAG1/2 | AID
91
Infiltrating cancers invoke chronic inflammatory states with what classic symptoms?
Anemia Fatigue Cachexia
92
What is used as treatment for familial adenomatous poylposis?
COX2 inhibtors
93
T (15;17) causes what? Production of what fusion gene?
AML PML-RARalpha
94
T (8;21) causes what?
AML
95
T (8;14) causes what? What is on genes 8 and 14?
Burkitt lymphoma 8 - MYC 14 - IGH
96
Ewing sarcoma is a result of what translocation?
T(11;22)
97
Mantle cell lymphoma is from what translocation?
(11;14)
98
What chromosome is implicated in all translocations of prostatic adenocarcinoma? Translocations?
21 | 7;21 (17;21)
99
Gene amplification of NMYC results in what? ERBB2?
Neuroblastoma Breast cancer
100
What kind of cancers is chromothrypsis prevalent in?
Osteosarcomas and other bone cancers | Gliomas
101
What are miRs and how/what do they act?
Small, noncoding, ssRNA inhibitors of mRNA translation Act through RISC
102
What miR is believed to be important in invasiveness and metastasis?
MiR-200
103
What miR is overexpressed in B cell lymphomas and upregulates MYC?
miR-155
104
Deletions of what miRs lead to CLL? Their deletion upregulates what?
miR-15 and miR-16 BCL-2
105
Defects in DICER lead to what cancers?
Ovarian and testicular tumors
106
Describe the steps in Carcinogenesis in the colon:
Loss of APC at ch. 5 Activation of RAS Loss of TP53 (ch. 18)
107
What carcinogen does Aspergillus make? Causes what cancer?
Aflatoxin B1 Hepatocellular carcinoma in Africa and Far East
108
What is responsible for the induction of cutaneous cancers? Do to what? What wavelength?
UVB Formation of pyrimidine dimers (NER) 280-320nm
109
What is filtered out by the ozone layer surrounding the earth and is insignificant? Wavelength?
UVC 200-280nm
110
What are the most frequent radiation-induced tumors?
Myeloid leukemia, thyroid (only in the young) Intermediate: breast, lung salivary glands
111
What sites are relatively resistant to radiation-induced neoplasia?
Skin, bone, gi tract
112
What is the main oncogenic RNA virus? What does it cause? Endemic where?
HTLV-1 Adult T-cell leukemia/lymphoma (ATLL) Japan, Caribbean, South America, Africa
113
What protein is responsible for the transforming activity and essential for viral replication in HTLV-1?
Tax
114
What DNA virus is associated with squamous cell carcinomas of the cervix?
HPV 16 and 18
115
What binds to and mediates the degradation of p53? What does it stimulate? Polymorphism of Arg72 in p53 leads to what?
E6 protein TERT cervical carcinoma
116
What binds RB protein and displaces E2F? What can it inactivate? What can it activate?
E7 protein p21 and p27 Cyclins E and A
117
HPV itself is not sufficient for Carcinogenesis, what else does it need for full malignant transformation?
Co-transfection with mutated RAS
118
What are the most common EBV associated tumors?
derived from B cells | Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
119
What does EBV use to infect B cells?
CD21
120
What does EBV use as an oncogene? How does it act?
LMP-1 Stimulates CD40 and/or NF-KB and JAK/STAT signaling
121
What is the core protein in HBV and HBC? Where is HBV endemic?
HBx Far East and Africa
122
H.pylori causes what cancers? What associated gene is present?
Gastric adenocarcinoma and gastric lymphomas CagA
123
What is characteristic of neoplasms in the gut and urinary tract?
Melena and hematuria
124
Grading of tumors is based on what?
Cytologic appearance based on differentiation
125
What are the 3 things staging is graded on?
T - size of primary lesion N - extent of spread to regional LNs M - presence or absence of blood-borne metastases
126
T0 means what?
In situ lesion
127
What screening technique is used for carcinoma of the cervix, endometrial carcinoma, lung carcinoma, bladder and prostatic tumors, etc
Cytologic smears
128
What technique is used for assessment of breast, thyroid, and LN cancer?
Fine needle aspiration (FNA)
129
What does ALK indicate?
Lung cancer and lymphoma
130
What does cytokeratins indicate?
Epithelial carcinoma
131
HCG is a marker for what?
Testicular tumor
132
CA-125 is a marker for what?
Ovarian tumor | IG in multiple myeloma
133
AFP is a marker for what?
Liver cell cancer
134
Neuron specific enolase associated with what tumor?
Small-cell cancer of lung, neuroblastoma
135
What cancers is Cushing syndrome associated with?
Small-cell carcinoma of the lung Pancreatic carcinoma Neural tumor
136
What cancers is Hypercalcemia associated with?
Squamous cell carcinoma of lung Breast carcinoma Renal carcinoma ATLL
137
What cancers is myasthenia gravis associated with?
Bronchogenic carcinoma | Thymic neoplasms
138
What cancers is acanthosis nigricans associated with? Due to what?
Lung, uterine, gastric carcinomas EGF secretions
139
What cancers is hypertrophic osteoarthropathy associated with?
Big Ten Hype Bronchogenic carcinoma Thymic neoplasms
140
What cancers is Migratory thrombophlebitis (Trousseau's) associated with?
Bronchogenic and pancreatic carcinoma
141
What cancers is DIC associated with?
AML Prostatic carcinoma DICAP-itated
142
What cancer is associated with polycythemia? What mechanism?
Renal and hepatic carcinoma Cerebellar hemangioma EPO