Musculoskeletal injuries can include injury to
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bones.
muscles.
tendons.
ligaments.
Which of the following is NOT a function performed by the musculoskeletal system?
A. Vital organ protection
B. A portion of the immune response
C. Storage of material necessary for metabolism
D. Hemopoietic activities
E. Efficient movement against gravity
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B. A portion of the immune response
The bone cell responsible for maintaining bone tissue is the
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osteocyte.
The bone cell responsible for dissolving bone tissue is the
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osteoclast.
The central portion of a long bone is called the
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diaphysis.
The transitional area between the end and central portion of the long bone is called the
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metaphysis.
The type of bone tissue filling the end of the long bone is called the
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cancellous bone.
The covering of the shaft of the long bones that initiates the bone repair cycle is the
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periosteum.
Immovable joints such as those of the skull are termed
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synarthroses.
The smooth, flexible structures that act as the actual articular surface of joints are the
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cartilages.
The elbow is an example of which type of joint?
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Monaxial
Bands of strong material that stretch and hold the joint together while permitting movement
are the
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ligaments.
The small sacs filled with synovial fluid that reduce friction and absorb shock are the
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bursae.
The most commonly fractured bone in the body is the
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clavicle.
Which of the following is a bone of the upper arm?
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Humerus
Which of the following is a bone of the palm of the hand?
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Metacarpal
Which of the following is the bone of the thigh?
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Femur
Skeletal maturity is reached by age
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age 20
The muscular system consists of about how many muscle groups?
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600 muscle groups
The muscle attachment to the bone that moves when the muscle mass contracts is the
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insertion
T/F - More than half the energy created by muscle motion is in the form of heat energy.
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True
T/F - Contusion can account for significant fluid loss into the more massive muscles of the body.
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True
A specific sign associated with compartment syndrome is
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pain when flexing the foot.
The condition in which exercise draws down the supply of oxygen and energy reserves and
metabolic waste products accumulate, limiting the ability of a muscle group to perform is
called
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fatigue.
The tissue that is normally damaged in a sprain is the
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ligament.
The overstretching of a muscle that presents with pain is a
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strain.
What fractures are relatively stable?
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Hairline & Impacted
Which of the following fractures is most likely to be open?
A. Fibula D. Humerus
B. Tibia E. Ulna
C. Femur
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Tibia
T/F - In serious long-bone fractures, especially those that are manipulated after injury, there is the
possibility of fat embolizing and becoming lodged in the lungs.
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True
Which of the types of fracture is likely to occur only in the pediatric patient?
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Greenstick.
The bones of the elderly are likely to be
A. less flexible.
B. more brittle.
C. more easily fractured.
D. more slow to heal.
E. all of the above.
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E. all of the above.
T/F - The dislocation, or fracture, in the area of a joint is generally less significant than the
long-bone shaft fracture because it does not have as high an incidence of vascular and nervous
injury.
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False
T/F - The energy and degree of manipulation needed to cause further injury after a bone has broken
are much less than was initially needed to cause the fracture.
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True
The growth of bone that comes after a fracture and encapsulates the fracture site is called the
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callus.
What is caused by a buildup of uric acid crystals in the joints?
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Gout
An inflammation of the small synovial sacs that reduces friction and cushions tendons from
trauma is
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Bursitis.
Which of the following is an indication for fluid resuscitation in the patient with skeletal
injury?
A. Pelvic fracture D. Hip dislocation
B. Serious tibial fracture E. Both A and C
C. Femur fracture
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E. Both pelvic fracture & femur fracture
With which fractures should you consider immediate transport of the patient because
of possible internal blood loss?
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Both pelvic fracture & femur fractures
When assessing a limb for possible fracture, you should examine distally for
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sensation.
crepitus.
motor strength.
circulation.
A patient complains of a deep burning pain out of proportion with the apparent injury, and a
serious crushing-type mechanism has caused his calf to feel “almost board hard.” What injury
would you suspect?
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Compartment syndrome
An elderly patient who has suffered a fracture because of bone degeneration is expected to
experience what level of pain when compared to a traumatic fracture?
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Less pain
T/F - the effects of the fight-or-flight response wear off, the symptoms of fracture will become
less evident.
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False
It is essential to tell the patient that limb alignment will cause some increased pain because this
will help maintain his confidence in you.
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True
In general, long-bone shaft fractures should be splinted
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aligned, except if resistance is experienced.
T/F - Any fracture within 3 inches of the joint should be treated the same way as a dislocation.
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True
What position is ideal for the immobilization of most extremity injuries?
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Neutral
Ascending to altitude in a helicopter will cause the pressure in the air splint to
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increase
The traction splint is designed to splint which musculoskeletal injury?
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Midshaft femur fracture
Which of the following is a disadvantage of the vacuum splint when applying it
fractures?
A. It is difficult to apply.
B. It is bulky and heavy.
C. It shrinks slightly during application.
D. It takes more than two rescuers to apply.
E. All of the above.
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C. It shrinks slightly during application.
Align a seriously angulated long-bone fracture unless
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you meet with resistance.
If after moving a limb to alignment you notice the distal pulse is absent, you shoud
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gently move the limb to restore the pulse.
T/F - With joint injury you should not move the limb, even to restore circulation or sensation.
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False
Early reduction of a dislocation usually results in which of the following?
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Less stress on the ligaments
Better distal sensation
Less stress on the joint structure
Better distal circulation
Signs that a reduction of a dislocation has been effective include
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feeling a “pop.”
less deformity of the joint.
patient reports of less pain.
greater mobility in the joint.
Heat may be applied to a muscular injury
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after 48 hours.
The splinting device recommended for a painful and isolated fracture of the femur is
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the traction splint.
The splinting device recommended for a painful and isolated fracture of the tibia is the
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padded board splint.
The splinting device(s) recommended for an isolated fracture of the humerus is (are) the
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sling and swathe & the padded board splint.
The fracture of the forearm close to the wrist that presents with the “silver fork” deformity is
called:
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Colles’ fracture.
An anterior hip dislocation normally presents with the
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foot turned outward.
T/F - In general, anterior dislocations of the hip can be reduced in the prehospital setting.
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False
Which of the following is NOT a sign of patellar dislocation?
A. Knee in the flexed position
B. Significant joint deformity
C. Extremity drops at the knee
D. Lateral displacement of the patella
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Extremity drops at the knee
If a patient presents with an ankle deformed with the foot turned to the side, you would suspect
which type of ankle dislocation?
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Lateral ankle dislocation
If a patient presents with an ankle deformed with the foot pointing upward, you should suspect
which type of ankle dislocation?
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Anterior ankle dislocation
When a patient’s shoulder appears “squared-off,” the patient complains of severe pain, and she
cannot move her arm, you should suspect what type of shoulder dislocation?
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Anterior shoulder dislocation
T/ F - The elbow dislocation is a simple injury but one that is essential to reduce in the field.
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False
Which injuries can be adequately splinted by using the short padded board
splint, placing the hand in the position of function, and slinging and swathing the extremity?
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Radial fractures
Finger fractures
Ulnar fractures
Wrist fractures
Morphine in the prehospital setting
A. reduces anxiety.
B. reduces the perception of pain.
C. sedates the patient.
D. may cause respiratory depression
E. all of the above.
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E. all of the above.
Which of the following is NOT an analgesic that is used to control the pain of musculoskeletal
injuries?
A. Meperidine D. Diazepam
B. Morphine E. Astramorph
C. Nalbuphine
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D. Diazepam
The “I” within the acronym RICE used by athletic trainers stands for
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Ice for the first 48 hours.
What percentage of multisystem trauma patients has significant musculoskeletal injuries?
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80 percent
The bone cell responsible for laying down new bone tissue is the
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osteoblast.
The widened end of a long bone is called the
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epiphysis.
The bone tissue making up the central portion of the long bone is called the
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compact bone.
The penetration through the compact bone that permits blood vessels to enter and exit the shaft of
the long bones is the
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perforating canal.
The body joints that permit free movement are termed
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synovial joints and diarthroses.
The shoulder and hip are examples of which type of joint?
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Triaxial joints
What are the bones of the forearm?
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Radius & Ulna
What is the bump of the elbow?
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Olecranon
What is the major bone of the lower leg?
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Tibia
At what age does the degeneration of bone tissue generally begin?
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40 years old
Which of the following is NOT a classification of muscle tissue?
A. Cardiac D. Involuntary
B. Smooth E. Contractile
C. Voluntary
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Contractile
The strong bands of connective tissue securing muscle to bone are the
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tendons.
The muscle attachment to the bone that does NOT move when the muscle mass contracts is the
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origin.
The condition that is caused by overstretching of some muscle fibers and that produces pain in
the affected muscle group is called
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strain.
The partial displacement of a bone end from its location within a joint capsule is a
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subluxation.
Which of the following fractures is caused by a rotational injury mechanism
A. Hairline D. Comminuted
B. Oblique E. Spiral
C. Transverse
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Spiral
T/F - The greenstick fracture is an incomplete fracture that occasionally must be completely broken to
permit proper healing.
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True
A common and serious type of fracture occurring in the pediatric patient that may prevent normal
bone growth is the
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epiphyseal.
A chronic, systemic, and progressive deterioration of the connective tissue in the peripheral joints
describes
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rheumatoid arthritis.
A degenerative disease related to the normal wear and tear of the joint tissue describes:
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osteoarthritis.
If a fracture of the pelvis or bilateral femurs is suspected and patient vital signs are stable, the
PASG should be
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inflated until immobilization is achieved.
What are signs reflective of a fracture?
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Distal pulse loss
Deformity
Crepitus
False motion
An elderly patient who has suffered a fracture due to bone degeneration is expected to experience
what level of pain when compared to the traumatic fracture pain experienced by a younger adult
patient?
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Less pain
T/F - Musculoskeletal injuries associated with sports are generally less severe than trauma-induced
injuries and should merit a quick return to competition if possible.
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False
T/F - Only attempt manipulation of a dislocation if a neurovascular deficit is noted.
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True
T/F - In general, most fractures should be left in the position found because the splints of today are
very effective in immobilizing a limb in that position.
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False
Descending in altitude in a helicopter will cause the pressure in the air splint to
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decrease.
The traction splint is designed to splint which musculoskeletal injury?
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Femur fracture
Align an angulated long-bone fracture unless
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there is a significant increase in pain.
If after moving a limb to alignment you notice distal sensation is absent, you should
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gently move the limb to restore the pulse.
List some signs that a reduction of a dislocation has been effective?
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Feeling a “pop”
Patient reports less pain
Joint becomes more mobile
Joint deformity lessens
T/F - If the reduction is successful and pulses and sensation are intact, splint the limb in the position of function and transport.
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True
The splinting device recommended for a pelvic fracture is the
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pelvic sling.
The traction splint is recommended for treatment of the
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midshaft femur fracture.
The splinting device recommended for an isolated fracture of the clavicle is the
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sling and swathe.
A posterior hip dislocation normally presents with the
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knee turned inward.
foot turned inward.
knee flexed.
The ankle is deformed with the foot pointing downward. Which type of ankle dislocation do you
suspect?
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Posterior ankle dislocation.
The patient’s arm is internally rotated and the elbow and forearm are held away from the chest.
What type of dislocation of the shoulder should you suspect?
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Posterior Shoulder dislocation
The arm is held locked above the head. What type of dislocation of the shoulder do you suspect?
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Inferior shoulder dislocation
T/F - The elbow dislocation should NOT be reduced in the field.
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True
Which of the following injuries can be adequately splinted using the full-arm air splint and
placing the hand in the position of function?
A. Radial fracture D. Finger fracture
B. Ulnar fracture E. All of the above
C. Wrist fracture
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E. All of the above
The normal initial dose of fentanyl for pain is
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25 to 50 mcg.
For which of the following will naloxone reverse the drug effects?
A. Fentanyl
B. Morphine
C. Nalbuphine
D. Diazepam
E. A, B, and C
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E. A, B, and C
The “C” in the acronym RICE used by athletic trainers stands for
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compression.
