Chapter 9-Foundations of Group Behavior Flashcards
1
Q
What sort of groups is defined by the organization's structure? A) informal B) task C) friendship D) interest E) formal
A
E) Formal
2
Q
When do informal groups appear?
A) in response to the need for social contact
B) in reaction to formal groups
C) as a result of social needs
D) most frequently in bureaucracies
E) when formal groups cannot meet their goals
A
A) in response to the need for social contact
3
Q
Julia, Bree and David work in different departments, but often eat lunch together. They are an example of what type of group? A) formal B) informal C) command D) task E) reactant
A
Informal
4
Q
Which of the following is not one of the most common reasons people join groups? A) security B) status C) equity D) power E) goal achievement
A
C) equity
5
Q
Most common reasons people join groups:
A
- Security
- Status
- Power
- Goal Achievement
6
Q
Which of the following is true?
A) All groups provide the same benefits to their members.
B) Different groups provide different benefits to their members.
C) Different groups provide the same benefits to their members.
D) Group members seldom reap any benefits from their membership. E) all of the above
A
B) Different groups provide different benefits to their members.
7
Q
When group members "test the waters" to determine what behaviors are acceptable, they are most likely in which stage of group development? A) forming B) storming C) norming D) performing
A
A) forming
8
Q
John's group has developed a strong sense of group identity and has assimilated a common set of expectations defining appropriate member behavior. John's group has most likely completed which stage of group development? A) forming B) storming C) norming D) performing
A
C) norming
9
Q
Which of the following is NOT one of the five stages of the group development model? A) forming B) storming C) joining D) adjourning
A
C) joining
10
Q
The curriculum committee members are resisting some of the newly created policies and are in conflict over who will chair the committee. They are most likely in which stage of group development? A) forming B) storming C) norming D) adjourning
A
B) storming
11
Q
For permanent work groups, which is the last stage in the group's development? A) forming B) storming C) norming D) performing
A
D) performing
12
Q
Which of the following statements is true concerning the five stage group development model?
A) Stage IV (performing) is always the most preferable.
B) Several stages can go on simultaneously.
C) Groups in Stage III will outperform those in Stage II.
D) Groups proceed clearly from one stage to the next sequentially.
A
B) Several stages can go on simultaneously.
13
Q
What term is used for a set of expected behavior patterns associated with a particular position in a social unit? A) role B) role perception C) role identity D) role expectation E) identity
A
A) role
14
Q
Our view of how we are supposed to act in a given situation is A) role identity. B) role ambiguity. C) role expectation. D) role perception. E) role conflict.
A
D) role perception.
15
Q
When Judith became a doctor she modeled her manner on her observations of more experienced doctors, and also on the behavior of doctors in medical dramas she had enjoyed watching as a child on TV. What is Judith modeling her manner upon? A) the role behaviors of doctors B) her role perception of doctors C) the role identity of doctors D) her role expectation of doctors E) the core role actions of doctors
A
B) her role perception of doctors
16
Q
Which of the following is true of role identity?
A) Role perception creates the attitudes and actual behaviors consistent with a role. B) People have the ability to shift roles rapidly when the situation requires change.
C) There is considerable inertia in role identity after roles are changed.
D) Everyone is required to play one specific role in every situation.
E) No two people ever agree on what constitutes a role.
A
B) People have the ability to shift roles rapidly when the situation requires change.
17
Q
Several years ago you began a small retail store to sell computer parts. The store grew and the business expanded to offer computer repair and custom programming. You have noticed that people have definite expectations about what their appropriate roles within the expanding company should be. You can help the people in the company understand their roles and the roles of other people by explaining some common facts about roles. Which of the following is not true?
A) Each person will be expected to play a number of diverse roles.
B) Most people have the ability to shift roles rapidly when they recognize that the situation and its demands require major changes.
C) Role perception is how people believe others are expected to act in their given roles.
D) It may be helpful for them to view role expectations through the perspective of a psychological contract.
E) People can be flexible in the roles that they play.
A
C) Role perception is how people believe others are expected to act in their given roles.
18
Q
John is expected to help customers in the retail store as well as perform computer repair work. He feels that every time he gets started on a repair, he is interrupted and doesn't know whether to finish his repair or wait on the customer. John suffers from role \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. A) conflict B) expectations C) perception D) identity E) duality
A
A) conflict
19
Q
Most people assume that a police officer should behave in a lawful manner, and not show any favoritism to any particular group, and do their best to uphold the law. What term is used for this kind of belief? A) a norm B) a norm identity C) a role expectation D) a role perception E) a norm violation
A
C) a role expectation
20
Q
Zach is devout and very active in his church. He is also a very dedicated employee. His manager offers him a promotion but the new role will require him to work Sundays. Zach would like the promotion, but realizes that it would force him to miss some church activities. It is likely that Zach is experiencing which of the following? A) role conflict B) role expectation C) role perception D) psychological conflict E) cognitive reactance
A
A) role conflict
21
Q
Zimbardo’s experiment at Stanford University demonstrated which of the following?
A) Individuals will often do anything as long as it’s consistent with their role identity.
B) Roles are defined by external authority figures.
C) Divergent role expectations create role conflict.
D) All groups have established norms.
E) People will conform even when they know they are wrong.
A
A) Individuals will often do anything as long as it’s consistent with their role identity.
22
Q
What term is used for acceptable standards of behavior that are shared by a group's members? A) norms B) rules C) standards D) codes of behavior E) explicit contracts
A
A) norms
23
Q
Which of the following is an example of a performance norm? A) how hard group members should work B) how the job should be performed C) how much tardiness is appropriate D) all of the above
A
D) all of the above
24
Q
Which of the following is NOT a finding of the Hawthorne studies?
A) A worker’s behavior and sentiments are closely related.
B) Group standards are highly effective in establishing individual worker output.
C) Money was less a factor in determining worker output than were group standards, sentiments, and security.
D) Competition between groups will maximize group output.
E) Group influences are significant in affecting individual behavior.
A
D) Competition between groups will maximize group output.
25
The Hawthorne researchers began by examining
A) the relation between the physical environment and productivity.
B) the role of money in determining worker output.
C) the role of group standards in determining worker output.
D) Mayo's research at Harvard.
E) the bank wiring group.
A) the relation between the physical environment and productivity.
26
What is the most often cited finding of the Hawthorne studies?.
A) A group's performance is significantly affected by being observed.
B) Increases in illumination increase productivity.
C) Role identities often lead to role expectations.
D) Cohesive groups always perform at high levels.
E) Groups are gentle and subtle when enforcing their norms with their members.
A) A group's performance is significantly affected by being observed.
27
In the follow-up portion of the Hawthorne studies with the bank wiring group, interviews determined that the group was operating well below its capability. Members were afraid that if they significantly increased their output,
A) the unit incentive rate would be cut.
B) the expected daily output will be increased. C) layoffs might occur.
D) slower workers will be reprimanded.
E) all of the above
E) all of the above
28
```
What term is used for the process by which an individual's desire for acceptance by the group and the pressure by the group on individual members to match its standards results in a change in individual attitudes and behaviors?
A) conformity
B) coercion
C) commitment
D) convergence
E) confluence
```
A) conformity
29
```
38) The important groups to which people belong or hope to belong are known as
A) conformist groups.
B) status groups.
C) reference groups.
D) command groups.
E) nonconformist groups.
```
C) reference groups.
30
```
In Asch's experiment, what percent of the subjects gave at least one answer that conformed to an option which they knew was wrong but was consistent with the replies provided by the other group members?
A) 10
B) 20
C) 40
D) 60
E) 75
```
E) 75
31
The major contribution of the Asch study was to demonstrate the impact of ________.
A) group norms pressing us toward conformity
B) how seating arrangements create conformity
C) convergence
D) status
E) cognitive dissonance
A) group norms pressing us toward conformity
32
Since Asch's studies were conducted in the early 1950s, what updates have been identified in the research since that time?
A) Asch's findings are considered culture bound.
B) The levels of conformity have steadily increased.
C) Conformity to social norms has been found to be lower in collectivist cultures.
D) Conformity to norms is no longer as powerful a force in groups.
A) Asch's findings are considered culture bound.
33
```
What term is used for antisocial actions by organizational members who voluntarily violate significant norms and that result in negative consequences for the organization, its members, or both?
A) ethical dilemmas
B) deviant workplace behavior
C) abnormal behavior
D) discommitment behavior
E) reactive affirmation behavior
```
B) deviant workplace behavior
34
```
What percentage of employees have reported having suffered incivility in the workplace?
A) 10
B) 20
C) 50
D) 75
```
C) 50
35
Sally works as a salesperson in a department store. Whenever a customer asks for an item that is in stock but not on display, she usually tells them that the product is out of stock. "It's a pain going into the stock-room to find an item," says Sally "Nobody in my department ever tells a customer the truth about what is in stock." This example illustrates which of the following facts about deviant workplace behavior?
A) Deviant workplace behavior will arise when tasks that an employee is supposed to perform are unpleasant or difficult.
B) Most workers do not consider lying to a customer be deviant workplace behavior.
C) Workers will lie to customers as long as the customers do not complain about it.
D) Deviant workplace behavior flourishes where it's supported by group norms.
E) Groups will come to their own conclusions about what is and isn't appropriate.
D) Deviant workplace behavior flourishes where it's supported by group norms.
36
Which of the following is NOT considered a deviant workplace behavior? A) leaving early
B) lying about hours worked
C) gossiping and spreading rumors
D) blaming coworkers
E) helping a co-worker complete a project
E) helping a co-worker complete a project
37
A recent study suggested that individuals working in a group were more likely to lie, cheat, and steal than those working alone. This may be due to the fact that
A) it's easier to steal in numbers.
B) groups provide a shield of anonymity.
C) conformity is not critical with deviant behaviors.
D) it's easier to rationalize deviant behavior than appropriate work behaviors in groups.
B) groups provide a shield of anonymity.
38
```
What term is used for the socially defined position or rank given to groups or group members by others?
A) regency
B) authority
C) status
D) command
E) magnus
```
C) status
39
Which of the following people are likely to have low status in a group?
A) people who can allocate resources
B) a group's formal leader
C) people whose contributions are critical to the group's success
D) people who have little control over the group's outcomes
E) the outstanding performers
D) people who have little control over the group's outcomes
40
```
People who control the outcomes of a group through their power tend to be perceived as ________.
A) high conformists
B) deviants
C) high status
D) low status
E) highly anonymous
```
C) high status
41
Which of the following statements about status is NOT true?
A) Status is an important motivator.
B) Possession of personal characteristics that are positively valued by the group will give a member higher status.
C) Low-status members are given more freedom to deviate from norms than are other members.
D) High-status members are better able to resist conformity pressures than lower status members.
E) Conformity is affected by status.
C) Low-status members are given more freedom to deviate from norms than are other members.
42
```
Low-status people ________.
A) speak out more often
B) criticize more often
C) are not likely to be fully utilized
D) interrupt others more
E) state more commands
```
C) are not likely to be fully utilized
43
```
High-status people tend to ________.
A) be more assertive
B) assist more
C) be more reflective
D) have superior insight
E) be well liked
```
A) be more assertive
44
A group is most likely to tolerate deviation from a group's conformity norms by which of the following individuals?
A) a high-status individual who does not care about the social rewards the group provides
B) a high-status individual who is tightly integrated into the group's social structure
C) a low-status individual who has only recently entered the group
D) a low-status individual who strongly wishes to integrate within the group E) a low-status individual who is not well regarded by the rest of the group
A) a high-status individual who does not care about the social rewards the group provides
45
```
If your group is engaged in problem solving, which of the following is likely to be the most effective group size?
A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 5
E) 7
```
E) 7
46
```
What term is used for the tendency for individuals to spend less effort when working collectively than when working individually?
A) groupthink
B) the rule of diminishing returns
C) social loafing
D) groupshift
E) clustering
```
C) social loafing
47
Which of the following is an effective means of countering social loafing? A) Increase the rewards the group is given if it succeeds.
B) Increase the amount by which the group's progress is monitored.
C) Provide means by which individual efforts can be identified.
D) Increase the size of the group.
E) Increase the group's workload.
C) Provide means by which individual efforts can be identified.
48
Joe is restructuring departments and is creating teams to increase the effectiveness of his departments. Joe remembers that he has learned in an OB course that ________.
A) small groups are good for developing ideas
B) large groups are better at taking action
C) social loafing is the tendency for individuals to expend less effort when working collectively
D) team spirit always spurs individual effort and enhances the group's overall productivity
E) groups composed of all men or all women are the most effective groups, in general
C) social loafing is the tendency for individuals to expend less effort when working collectively
49
```
A common stereotype that the sense of team spirit spurs individual effort and enhances the group's overall productivity was challenged in a rope-pulling exercise conducted by ________.
A) Mayo
B) Ringelmann
C) Hawthorne
D) Janis
E) Maslow
```
B) Ringelmann
50
What did Ringelmann conclude after he compared the results of individual and group performance?
A) The larger the group, the greater the individual productivity.
B) Individual productivity goes down as group size goes up.
C) Total productivity tends to decline in large groups.
D) Group size is not a determinant of individual productivity.
E) Groups served little purpose in organizations.
B) Individual productivity goes down as group size goes up.
51
Social loafing may be attributed to ________.
A) the rise of Internet usage
B) the fact that efficiency declines when individuals think that their contributions cannot be measured.
C) synergy
D) the more members, the greater the total productivity
E) accountability is obvious
B) the fact that efficiency declines when individuals think that their contributions cannot be measured.
52
All of the following are ways to prevent social loafing EXCEPT
A) Set group goals so the group has a common purpose to strive toward.
B) Increase intergroup competition.
C) Engage in peer evaluation to evaluate each member's contribution to the group.
D) Ensure the group results cannot be attributed to any single person.
D) Ensure the group results cannot be attributed to any single person.
53
```
What term is used for the degree to which group members are attracted to one another and are motivated to stay in the group?
A) cohesiveness
B) integration
C) sociability
D) reliability
E) interdependence
```
A) cohesiveness
54
```
The relationship of cohesiveness and productivity depends on which norms established by the group?
A) status-related
B) decision-making
C) performance-related
D) conformity-related
E) cohesiveness
```
C) performance-related
55
Which of the following is NOT likely to increase group cohesiveness?
A) increasing the group size
B) members spending a lot of time together
C) competition with other groups is increased
D) the group is physically isolated
E) providing group rewards
A) increasing the group size
56
What will happen if group cohesiveness is high and performance norms are low?
A) Internal conflict will be high.
B) Internal conflict will be low.
C) Productivity will be high.
D) Productivity will be low.
E) It will have little effect on internal conflict or productivity.
D) Productivity will be low.
57
```
Group decisions are generally preferable to individual decisions when which of the following is sought.
A) acceptance of the solution
B) speed
C) efficiency
D) clear responsibility
E) a conjunctive solution
```
A) acceptance of the solution
58
Which is NOT a weakness of group decision making?
A) It is time consuming.
B) There is less originality.
C) It suffers from ambiguous responsibility.
D) It can be dominated by one or a few members.
E) It's not clear who is accountable for bad decisions.
B) There is less originality.
59
```
Individual decisions are generally preferable to group decisions when which of the following is sought?
A) speed
B) creativity
C) acceptance
D) quality
E) broad unanimity
```
A) speed
60
Your organization is considering the use of team decision making. You have read the literature on decision making and are trying to inform your manager about the advantages and disadvantages of group decision making. You should expect to find that ________.
A) group decision making will be faster
B) group discussions will be shared equally
C) there will be increased acceptance of the decision with group decision-making
D) group decision making will be very costly
E) groups will find reaching a decision to require less effort than individuals
C) there will be increased acceptance of the decision with group decision-making
61
Your organization is considering the use of team decision making. You have read the literature on decision making and are trying to inform your manager about the advantages and disadvantages of group decision making. You should expect a weakness of group decision making to be ________.
A) less complete knowledge
B) more time will be used to make the decision
C) employees will be less accepting of the group decision
D) the decision will probably be a lower-quality decision
E) decreased risky shift
B) more time will be used to make the decision
62
```
What is generally the result of groupthink?
A) higher-quality decisions
B) more risky decisions
C) less critical analysis
D) unpopular decisions
E) social reification
```
C) less critical analysis
63
```
Which of the following is a phenomenon in which group pressures for conformity deter the group from critically appraising unusual, minority, or unpopular views?
A) group conformity
B) groupshift
C) groupthink
D) compromise
E) risk transfer
```
C) groupthink
64
```
Groups tend to be more effective than individuals if A) creativity is important.
B) speed is important.
C) acceptance is not needed.
D) efficiency is critical.
E) all of the above
```
A) creativity is important.
65
```
Your organization is considering the use of team decision making. You have read the literature on decision making and are trying to inform your manager about the advantages and disadvantages of group decision making. You have observed that the group tends to come to consensus very quickly and you know that the group is very cohesive. You conclude that they may be suffering from ________.
A) inefficiency syndrome
B) groupshift
C) disintegrating norms
D) groupthink
E) risky shift
```
D) groupthink
66
Which of the following is NOT a symptom of groupthink?
A) Group members rationalize any resistance to the assumptions they have made.
B) Members apply direct pressures on those who express doubts about the group's shared views.
C) Members who have doubts keep silent about misgivings.
D) There is a shift toward risky decisions.
E) There appears to be an illusion of unanimity.
D) There is a shift toward risky decisions.
67
All of the following are examples of American foreign policy decisions that experienced groupthink EXCEPT
A) unpreparedness at Pearl Harbor in 1941.
B) the Cuban Missile Crisis.
C) the Bay of Pigs Fiasco.
D) the escalation of the Vietnam War.
E) the Columbia space shuttle disaster.
B) the Cuban Missile Crisis.
68
Which of the following can minimize groupthink?
A) Significantly increase the size of the group to more than ten.
B) Managers/leaders should seek input from all group members.
C) Managers/leaders should openly express their own opinion.
D) Avoid appointing anyone to offer divergent perspectives.
E) Develop a group mission statement.
B) Managers/leaders should seek input from all group members.
69
```
What result does groupshift generally have on the decisions a group makes? A) They are made by groups rather than individuals.
B) They are generally riskier.
C) They are made more quickly.
D) They are less effective.
E) They are objectively incorrect.
```
B) They are generally riskier.
70
Which of the following is NOT an explanation for the phenomenon of groupshift? A) Discussion creates familiarization among members.
B) Most developed nations value risk.
C) The group leader usually gets the credit or blame for the group action.
D) The group diffuses responsibility.
E) People willing to take risks are admired.
C) The group leader usually gets the credit or blame for the group action.
71
```
Which of the following is likely to generate the most pressure for members to conform to opinions?
A) face-to-face interacting groups
B) brainstorming
C) Delphi technique
D) nominal group technique
E) electronic meeting
```
A) face-to-face interacting groups
72
What is brainstorming?
A) a technique used to build group cohesiveness
B) a technique that tends to restrict independent thinking
C) a process for generating ideas that withholds criticism
D) a process used mainly when group members cannot agree on a solution E) the most effective means of generating answers
C) a process for generating ideas that withholds criticism
73
```
Which of the following techniques most restricts discussion or interpersonal communication during the decision-making process?
A) groupthink
B) nominal group
C) brainstorm
D) electronic meeting
E) formal process
```
B) nominal group
74
```
What sort of group should you avoid if you want to minimize interpersonal conflict?
A) interacting
B) brainstorming
C) nominal
D) electronic
E) social
```
C) nominal
75
American managers must understand status varies between cultures. Which of the following statement is NOT true of culture?
A) The French are highly status conscious.
B) Status in the US relies more heavily on the basis of titles than accomplishments.
C) Asians derive status from family position.
D) The British place a high degree of importance on family genealogy.
E) A failure to understand how cultural differences affect status may lessen one's interpersonal effectiveness in the global arena.
B) Status in the US relies more heavily on the basis of titles than accomplishments.
76
In the early stages of a group, diversity
A) leads to increased group conflict.
B) improves group morale.
C) increases group members' satisfaction with their groups.
D) creates more cohesiveness
E) occurs only when there is homogenous group membership.
A) leads to increased group conflict.
77
Groups may be classified as either formal or informal.
True
78
A group must have at least two members and one or more objectives.
True
79
Members in a group are interdependent.
True
80
The tasks in groups within an organization must be directed toward organizational goals.
False
81
Command and task groups are dictated by the formal organization whereas interest and friendship groups are not.
True
82
All task groups are also command groups.
False
83
A command group is composed of the individuals who report directly to a given manager.
True
84
Whereas command groups are determined by the organization chart, task, and interests; friendship groups instead develop because of the necessity to satisfy one's work needs.
False
85
There is no single reason why individuals join groups.
True
86
Different groups provide different benefits to their members.
True
87
The forming stage of group development is one of intragroup conflict.
False
88
When group members are "testing the waters" to determine what behaviors are acceptable, they are most likely in the forming stage of group development.
True
89
When the group prepares for its disbandment, it is in the adjourning stage.
True
90
For permanent work groups, performing is the last stage in the group's development.
True
91
Work groups have a structure that shapes the behavior of members and makes it possible to explain and predict a large portion of individual behavior within the group as well as the performance of the group itself.
True
92
People generally cannot shift roles quickly.
False
93
Our perceptions of roles are generally formed early in our lives and remain stable.
False
94
We all are usually required to play one role and our behavior stabilizes with that role.
False
95
One's view of how one is supposed to act in a given situation is a role perception.
True
96
When an individual is confronted by divergent role expectations, the result is role divergence.
False
97
Norms tell members what they ought and ought not to do under certain circumstances.
True
98
Only some groups have established norms.
False
99
The Hawthorne studies provide strong evidence for the power of norms over group members.
True
100
One conclusion of the Hawthorne studies was that worker output was highly effective in establishing group standards.
False
101
If group acceptance were not important to you, the need to conform to the group's norms would decrease.
True
102
Conformity is the degree to which members are attracted to each other and are motivated to stay in the group.
False
103
"Don't be a chiseler" is one example of norms the group established in the Hawthorne studies.
True
104
Evidence indicates that Asch's findings about group conformity are culture bound.
True
105
Deviant workplace behavior covers a wide range of antisocial actions by organizational members that intentionally violate established norms.
True
106
Individuals working in a group are less likely to lie, cheat, and steal as a result of peer pressure.
False
107
A good looking person may have higher status in a group if good looks are positively valued by the group.
True
108
High-status members of groups are given less freedom to deviate from norms than other group members.
False
109
Social loafing is the tendency for individuals to expend less energy when working individually than when working collectively.
False
110
If the goal is problem solving, smaller groups are more effective than larger ones.
False
111
Ringelmann's research found that groups can generate more output than the sum of the individuals.
False
112
Social loafing may be caused by the concentration of responsibility.
False
113
As group performance increases with group size, the addition of new members to the group has positive returns on productivity.
False
114
Physically isolating a group will make it more cohesive.
True
115
Giving rewards to individuals in a group will generally increase cohesiveness.
False
116
Groups generally generate more complete information.
True
117
Group decisions are more likely to be accepted than individual decisions.
True
118
Individual decisions are more time consuming than group decisions.
False
119
If a low-to-medium ability person dominates the group, the group's overall effectiveness will suffer.
True
120
Individual decisions tend to be more creative than group decisions.
False
121
If you become so enamored with seeking concurrence in your group that it overrides the critical appraisal of alternative courses of action, you may be experiencing groupthink.
True
122
Groupthink improves group performance.
False
123
The Challenger space shuttle disaster was an example of groupshift.
False
124
To minimize groupthink, managers should consider appointing a member to play the role of devil's advocate.
True
125
Groupshift can cause groups to make more risky decisions.
True
126
Brainstorming is meant to overcome pressures for conformity.
True
127
"Production blocking" impedes the sharing of ideas and can lead to groupshift.
False
128
Brainstorming generates ideas in an extremely efficient manner.
False
129
Research has shown that brainstorming groups consistently outperform nominal groups.
False
130
Social loafing appears to have a Western bias; it is consistent with individualistic cultures and is not consistent with collectivist societies.
True
131
The importance of status is consistent from culture to culture.
False
132
Differentiate between formal and informal groups.
Formal groups are those defined by the organization's structure, with designated work assignments establishing tasks. In formal groups, the behaviors that one should engage in are stipulated by and directed toward organizational goals. Informal groups are alliances that are neither formally structured nor organizationally determined. These groups are natural formations in the work environment that appear in response to the need for social contact.
133
Explain the five-stage group development model.
The five-stage group development model characterizes groups as proceeding through five distinct stages: forming, storming, norming, performing, and adjourning. Forming is characterized by a uncertainly about the group's purpose, structure, and leadership. Once members begin to think of themselves as part of a group, they enter the second stage of storming. This is a stage of intragroup conflict where there is resistance to the constraints that group membership imposes on individuality. The norming stage is one in which close relationships develop and the group demonstrates cohesiveness. Norming is complete when the group solidifies and the group has assimilated a common set of expectations of what is appropriate. Performing is the fourth stage. The structure is fully functional and accepted. Group energy is focused on understanding each other to performing the task at hand. Performing is the last stage in the group development of permanent work group. For temporary groups that have a limited task to perform, there is an adjourning stage that prepares for its disbandment..
134
Differentiate the terms role identity, role perception, and role expectation.
There are certain attitudes and actual behaviors consistent with a role, and they create the role identity. People have the ability to shift roles rapidly when they recognize that the situation and its demands clearly required major changes. One's view of how one is supposed to act in a given situation is a role perception. Based on an interpretation of how we believe we are supposed to behave, we engage in certain types of behavior. Role expectations are defined as how others believe you should act in a given situation. How you behave is determined to a large extent by the role defined in the context in which you are acting.
135
What are norms?
Norms are acceptable standards of behavior that are shared by the group's members. Norms tell members what they ought and ought not to do under certain circumstances. From an individual's standpoint, they tell what is expected of you in certain situations. When agreed to and accepted by the group, norms act as a means of influencing the behavior of group members with a minimum of external controls. Norms differ among groups, communities, and societies, but they all have them. The most common group norm is a performance norm.
136
What are deviant workplace behaviors?
Deviant workplace behaviors are also called antisocial behavior or workplace incivility. These are voluntary behaviors that violate significant organization norms and, in doing so, threaten the well-being of the organization or its members. There has been an increase in rudeness and disregard toward others in recent years. Almost half of employees who have suffered incivility report that it has led them to think about changing jobs.
137
Explain social loafing.
Social loafing is the tendency for individuals to expend less effort when working collectively than when working individually. In the late 1920s, Max Ringelmann conducted rope-pulling experiments. Group performance increases with group size, but the addition of new members to the group has diminishing returns on productivity. This may be due to the fact that others in the group are not carrying their fair share and they experience the dispersion of responsibility. That is, there will be a reduction in efficiency when individuals think that their contribution cannot be measured.
138
What is cohesiveness? Discuss the relationship between cohesiveness and productivity.
Cohesiveness is the degree to which members are attracted to each other and are motivated to stay in the group. Studies consistently show that the relationship of cohesiveness and productivity depends on the performance-related norms established by the group. If performance-related norms are high (for example, high output, quality work, cooperation with individuals outside the group), a cohesive group will be more productive than will a less cohesive group. But if cohesiveness is high and performance norms are low, productivity will be low. If cohesiveness is low and performance norms are high, productivity increases, but less than in the high-cohesiveness/high-norms situation. When cohesiveness and performance-related norms are both low, productivity will tend to fall into the low-to-moderate range.
139
Identify ways that you can encourage cohesiveness.
To encourage group cohesiveness, you might try one or more of the following suggestions: (1) Make the group smaller. (2) Encourage agreement with group goals. (3) Increase the time members spend together. (4) Increase the status of the group and the perceived difficulty of attaining membership in the group. (5) Stimulate competition with other groups. (6) Give rewards to the group rather than to individual members. (7) Physically isolate the group.
140
Discuss the strengths and weaknesses of group decision making.
Groups generate more complete information and knowledge. Groups bring more input into the decision process. They offer increased diversity of views. This opens up the opportunity for more approaches and alternatives to be considered. Groups will almost always outperform even the best individual. Groups generate higher quality decisions. Finally, groups lead to increased acceptance of a solution. Members who participated in making a decision are likely to enthusiastically support the decision and encourage others to accept it.
Groups also have drawbacks. They are time consuming. They take more time to reach a solution than would be the case if an individual were making the decision alone. There are conformity pressures in groups. The desire by group members to be accepted and considered an asset to the group can result in squashing any overt disagreement. Group discussion can be dominated by one or a few members. If this dominant coalition is composed of low- and moderate-ability members, the group's overall effectiveness will suffer. Finally, group decisions suffer from ambiguous responsibility. In an individual decision, it's clear who is accountable for the final outcome. In a group decision, the responsibility of any single member is watered down.
141
Explain groupthink and groupshift.
Groupthink describes situations in which group pressures for conformity deter the group from critically appraising unusual, minority, or unpopular views. Groupthink is a disease that attacks many groups and can dramatically hinder their performance. Groupshift is a special case of groupthink. It indicates that in discussing a given set of alternatives and arriving at a solution, group members tend to exaggerate the initial positions that they hold. In some situations, caution dominates, and there is a conservative shift. More often, however, the evidence indicates that groups tend toward a risky shift.
