Chapters 7-11 Flashcards

(112 cards)

0
Q

What are the two main layers of skin?

A

Epidermis

Dermis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
1
Q

What are the causes of skin lesions?

A
Contact with injurious agents
Contact with infective organisms
Reaction to Medications
Physical trauma
Hereditary factors
Reactions to allergens
Reaction to radiotherapy
Systemic origin
Burns
Neoplasm
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the epidermis made up of?

A

It is the outermost thinnest layer.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the dermis made up of?

A
Connective Tissue
Blood Vessels
Nerve Endings 
Hair Follicles
Sweat glands
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are five different types of skin infections?

A
Impetigo
Tinea
Warts
Boils 
Scabies
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Name five different types of Vascular/Inflammatory Disorders.

A

Decubitis Ulcers (bed sores)
Urticaria (Hives)
Scleroderma (Disorder of Connective Tissue)
Psoriasis (Autoimmune Disorder of the Skin)
Eczema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What can cause a burn?

A

Electric Current
Over Exposure to the Sun
Exposure to Chemicals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the different classifications of a burn? Define them.

A

First Degree- 1st and 2nd layer of the epidermis. NO BLISTERS.

Second Degree- Affects through deep epidermal layers, damage can reach upper dermis. Has blisters.

Third Degree- Complete destruction of the epidermis and the dermis.

Fourth Degree- The burn affects the underlying muscle and bone.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the rule of 9’s when working with a burn?

A

The body is made up of 11 areas = 9%

Head = 9%
Chest (front) = 9%
Abdomen (front) = 9%
Upper/mid/low back and buttocks = 18%
Each arm = 9% (front = 4.5%, back = 4.5%)
Groin = 1%
Each leg = 18% total (front = 9%, back = 9%)

Add all of the percentages to get the percent of the body burned.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

List some types of wounds.

A

Pressure (ex. pressure of boney areas of the body against another surface causing a sore).

Shearing- skin stays put but body slides

Friction- Rubbing skin against another surface (irritated area appears as a blister)

Moisture- Occurs when a person lays in moisture for extended periods of time causing a sore.

Venous Stasis Ulcer vs. Arterial Ulcer- an inadequate amount of blood flow to extremities.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the classifications of a wound? Define them.

A

Stage 1: sores are not open wounds.

At stage 2: the skin breaks open, wears away, or forms an ulcer, which is usually tender and painful.

Stage 3: the sore gets worse and extends into the tissue beneath the skin, forming a small crater. Fat may show in the sore, but not muscle, tendon, or bone.

At stage 4: the pressure sore is very deep, reaching into muscle and bone and causing extensive damage. Damage to deeper tissues, tendons, and joints may occur.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

List four types of skin cancer.

A

Squamous Cell Carcinoma (slow growing malignant tumor of the epidermis)

Basal Cell Carcinoma (Small papiulle leads to small crater…less likely to metastasize)

Melanoma (Usually develops from a mole 1 out of 4 cases are fatal)

Kaposi Sarcoma (Rare skin cancer assoc. w/ AIDS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are ACE inhibitors used for?

A

Controls Hypertension

Treats Congestive Heart Failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are some of the side effects of ACE inhibitors?

A

Dry Cough Nasal Congestion
Dry Mouth Hypotension
Light Headedness

In Diabetics: Renal or Liver Disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are some brand names of COMMON ACE Inhibitors?

A
Altace
Capoten
Lotensin
Prinivil
Vasotec
Zestril
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What do anticoagulants do?

A

Prevent or slow blood clotting.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the main side effects of anticoagulants?

A

Bleeding of the gums or nose

Easy to bruise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are some of the common anticoagulants used?

A
Warfarin
Urokinase
Lepirudin
Fondaparinux
Enoxaparin
Danaparoid
Dalteparin
Ardeparin
Alteplase
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are Calcium Channel Blockers used for?

A

To control Angina
Treat Hypertension
Used to treat some types of cardiac arrhythmias

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are some side effects of calcium channel blockers?

A
Hypotension
Dizziness/Light Headedness
Constipation
Slow Heart Rate
Swelling of feet and ankles
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are some brand names of Calcium Channel Blockers?

A
Cardizem
Calan
Adalat/Procardia
Isoptin
Norvasc
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are Cardiac Glycosides-Digitalis used for?

A

Control slow heart rate and some cardiac arrhythmias.

Used in patients with Congestive Heart Failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are diuretics used for?

A

Treat Hypertension and Fluid Retention

Used frequently in patients with congestive heart failure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are Antiarrhythmics used for?

A

To control or prevent certain arrhythmias.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
What are the different types of medications given to patients with heart problems?
``` Antiarrhythmias Diuretics Cardiac Glycosides-Digitalis Calcium Channel Blockers Anticoagulants ACE Inhibitors ```
25
What are the four chambers of the heart?
Right and Left ATRIA (upper) | Right and Left VENTRICLE (lower)
26
How does blood move through the heart?
Right Side of the Heart Blood enters the heart through two large veins, the inferior and superior vena cava, emptying oxygen-poor blood from the body into the right atrium of the heart. As the atrium contracts, blood flows from your right atrium into your right ventricle through the open tricuspid valve. When the ventricle is full, the tricuspid valve shuts. This prevents blood from flowing backward into the atria while the ventricle contracts. As the ventricle contracts, blood leaves the heart through the pulmonic valve, into the pulmonary artery and to the lungs where it is oxygenated. Left Side of the Heart The pulmonary vein empties oxygen-rich blood from the lungs into the left atrium of the heart. As the atrium contracts, blood flows from your left atrium into your left ventricle through the open mitral valve. When the ventricle is full, the mitral valve shuts. This prevents blood from flowing backward into the atrium while the ventricle contracts. As the ventricle contracts, blood leaves the heart through the aortic valve, into the aorta and to the body.
27
Systole
Contraction of the heart
28
Distole
Relaxation of the heart
29
Cardiac Output
Amount of blood the heart pumps out each minute
30
Heart Rate
Number of heart beats per minute
31
Stroke Volume
Amount of blood that the heart pumps each time it beats
32
Ejection Fraction
Measurement of the amount of blood that leaves the heart everytime it contracts.
33
Define Coronary Artery Disease
Hardening of arteries (loss if oxygen and nutrients)
34
Define Cerebrovascular Accident.
Loss of blood flow to one or more parts of the brain.
35
Define Transient Ischemic Attacks (TIA).
Temporary loss of blood flow to the brain.
36
Define Peripheral Vascular Disease (PVD)
Impairment of blood flow to the extremities.
37
Define Raynaud's
Constriction of peripheral arteries due to spasms of the blood vessel.
38
Define Varicose Veins.
Enlarged Veins where blood pools.
39
Define Aneurysm.
Abnormal widening of arterial walls.
40
Define Phlebitis.
Vein inflammation.
41
Define Thrombophlebitis.
Inflammation of a vein caused by a clot.
42
Define Embolus.
Formation of blood, fatty tissue or air.
43
Define insufficiency, regurgitation of a valve.
Valve fails to close completely.
44
Define Mitral Valve Prolapse.
Valve doesn't close at all.
45
Define Myocardial Infarction (MI- Heart Attack).
Death of myocardium do to lack of blood supply.
46
Define Congestive Heart Failure.
Failure to pump enough blood to sustain life.
47
Is it left sided or right sided Congestive Heart Failure that is usually referred to as Congestive Heart Failure?
Left sided.
48
Define Brachycardia.
Slow Heart Rate (60 beats per minute or less)
49
Define Tachycardia
Fast Heart Rate (100 beats per minute and up)
50
Define Arrhythmia
Abnormal rhythm of the heart.
51
Define Sinus Dysrythmia.
A variation in the heart rate assoc. with the Respiratory Cycle.
52
Define Fibrillation.
Heart muscle contractions are out of sync.
53
Define Arrest.
Sudden stop of the heart.
54
Define Hypertension.
High Blood Pressure.
55
What can a x-ray check for in the heart?
Check for fluid in or around the heart or lungs | Check for an enlarged heart
56
What does an angiography do?
A tech shoots dye into the blood vessels. The angiography can then track the blood as it flows through the vessels.
57
What is a cardiac catherization?
When a heart cath. is placed in the femoral artery to the chambers of the heart. This measures output measures coronary circulation Checks function of the heart
58
What is a Thallium Scan?
When radionucleotine fluid is injected in the body and then x-rays are taken immediately following.
59
What does an EKG do?
Measures electroactivity of the heart.
60
How does an echocardiogram work?
Uses sound waves to view the heart.
61
What is a Holter Monitor?
A device that is worn by the patient for 24-48hrs that records the heart rate.
62
What is a stress test?
When patient is hooked to an EKG then stress is placed on the heart by the patient walking/running on a treadmill or another machine.
63
What is Telemetry?
A device that sends info to a central recording location that monitors a patients heart rate, BP etc.
64
Define Angioplasty.
A small ballon is inserted into a plaque filled area, the balloon is then inflated pushing the plaque against the artery walls.
65
Define Atherectomy.
A balloon is inserted in to a plaque filled area, the balloon has tiny blades on it that shaves away the plaque as the balloon is inflated.
66
Define TPA.
Thins blood clots reducing the risk of stroke.
67
What does a pacemaker do?
It is a device that is implanted into the body that attempts to regulate abnormalities of the heart beats.
68
Define Valve replacement.
A replacement of a defective valve.
69
Define Coronary Artery Bypass Graft.
When a vein is taken from the leg to bypass a blockage to the heart.
70
Define Heart Replacement.
A replacement of a defective heart.
71
Define Endarterectomy.
When an artery is surgically opened to remove plaque.
72
Define Sclerotherapy.
Removal of plaque with lasers.
73
What is a stent?
Scaffolding that is inserted to hold plaque back.
74
What is ligation and stripping?
When a vein is tied off and removed.
75
Define Anticoagulants.
Thins blood preventing clot formations.
76
What does an antianginal do?
Dilates the blood vessels (Used for patients complaining of chest pains).
77
What are Beta Blockers used for?
Decrease rate and contractions of the heart.
78
What are Antihypertensives used for?
To treat High Blood Pressure | This is usually tried before Beta Blockers.
79
What are antiarrhythmics used for?
To regulate the hearts rate and rhythm. | These are rarely used
80
What are Digitalis used for?
Used for patients with Congestive Heart Failure | This is one of the more widely used type of meds for CHF
81
Define Dyspnea.
Difficulty Breathing
82
Define Apnea
Absence of breathing
83
Define Orthopnea
Difficulty breathing while lying down
84
Define Proxysmal Nocturnal Dyspnea
Difficulty Breathing at night
85
Define hyperventilation.
Taking into much oxygen and not exhaling enough Carbon Dioxide.
86
Define Stridor
High pitched musical like sound caused by an obstruction in the airway.
87
Define Cheyne-Stokes
Changes in apnea to deep rapid breathing.
88
What is clubbing of Fingers associated with?
Associated with COPD
89
Define Barrel Chest
Large Rounded Thorax
90
What causes Pneumonia?
A viral or bacterial infection OR harmful inhaled chemicals.
91
What is Tuberculosis?
An inflammation in the lungs due to a bacterial infection.
92
What is mononucleosis (the kissing disease) caused by?
Caused by a viral disease.
93
What is acute bronchitis?
Inflammation of the trachea and bronchi.
94
What is Chronic Obstructive Bronchitis?
Inflammation of bronchia that lasts over a period of two years.
95
What is emphysema?
Chronic Inflammation Narrowing, Thickening or Destruction of bronchi (air becomes trapped in lungs)
96
What are the two types of asthma?
Extrinsic- Caused by allergies | Intrinsic- Exercised Induced
97
What is Cystic Fibrosis?
A genetic disorder that attacks the lungs, pancreas, liver and intestines.
98
What is Lung Cancer?
An obstructive pulmonary condition.
99
What is a pulmonary embolus?
Inclusion of pulmonary artery due to a clot.
100
What is an atelectasis?
A collapse or closure of the lung.
101
What is endotracheal intubation?
Medical procedure where a tube is placed in through the mouth or nose and into the trachea. (Used to open the airway)
102
What is nasal intubation?
A medical procedure where a tube is placed in the nose through the nasal cavity into the trachea.
103
What is a lobectomy?
A surgical incision and removal of a lobe.
104
What is a pneumonectomy?
A surgical removal of a lung?
105
What is a tracheotomy?
An incision in the front of the throat that serves as an open airway.
106
What do bronchodilators do?
Relax smooth muscles in the bronchioles.
107
What are mucolytics used for?
To break up mucous in the lungs.
108
What are Decongestants used for?
To cause basal constriction of the nasal passages.
109
What are expectorants?
Medication that increases production of thin flim and mucous.
110
What do antihistamines do?
Block production of histamines.
111
What are antitussives used for?
To prevent or relieve coughing.