ChatGPT Exam III: Vison and Dental

Question 1

What are the three types of blindness based on lesion locations?

Answer 1

Retinal, optic nerve, cortical blindness

Question 2

What does the menace response test assess?

Answer 2

CN II (afferent) & CN VII (efferent); requires learned response

Question 3

What is the pupillary light reflex (PLR) responsible for?

Answer 3

CN II (afferent) & CN III (efferent); does NOT assess vision

Question 4

Fill in the blank: The common cause of sudden blindness associated with retinal hemorrhage and hypertension is _______.

Answer 4

Hypertensive retinopathy

Question 5

What is the characteristic finding in SARDS during the ERG test?

Answer 5

Flatline (no retinal function)

Question 6

What are the common causes of optic neuritis?

Answer 6

• Infectious (toxoplasmosis, cryptococcosis)
• Immune-mediated (GME)
• Neoplasia

Question 7

True or False: Hypertensive retinopathy is common in older cats.

Answer 7

True

Question 8

What are the techniques used for fundus examination?

Answer 8

• Direct ophthalmoscopy
• PanOptic ophthalmoscope
• Indirect ophthalmoscopy

Question 9

What is a tapetum?

Answer 9

Reflective layer in dorsal fundus that enhances night vision

Question 10

Which species has a holangiotic retinal vascular pattern?

Answer 10

Dogs, cats, ruminants, humans

Question 11

What is Collie Eye Anomaly (CEA)?

Answer 11

Autosomal recessive condition affecting Collies, Shelties, and Aussies

Question 12

What are the stages of Collie Eye Anomaly?

Answer 12

• Choroidal hypoplasia
• Optic nerve coloboma
• Retinal detachment

Question 13

Fill in the blank: Progressive Retinal Atrophy (PRA) is inherited in more than ______ breeds.

Answer 13

40

Question 14

What are the signs of Progressive Retinal Atrophy (PRA)?

Answer 14

• Night blindness
• Progressive loss
• Complete blindness

Question 15

What causes retinal degeneration in cats when there is a taurine deficiency?

Answer 15

Blindness and ‘football-shaped’ lesions in retina

Question 16

What is the recommended dose of enrofloxacin in cats to avoid toxicity?

Answer 16

≤2.5 mg/kg BID

Question 17

What is the most likely diagnosis for a cat on an all-meat diet showing bilateral tapetal hyperreflectivity?

Answer 17

Taurine deficiency retinopathy

Question 18

What should a learner focus on when interpreting fundic exams?

Answer 18

Differentiating normal vs. abnormal findings

Question 19

What is the role of MRI/CT in diagnosing optic neuritis?

Answer 19

Helpful for diagnosis

Question 20

What are the common systemic diseases affecting vision?

Answer 20

• Hypertension
• Hyperthyroidism

Question 21

What does the maze test differentiate?

Answer 21

Bright and dim light function

Question 22

Which species has an anangiotic retina?

Answer 22

Birds

Question 23

What are the common causes of inflammatory retinal diseases in cats?

Answer 23

• FIP
• Cryptococcus
• Toxoplasmosis
• FeLV

Question 24

What are the characteristics of active lesions in chorioretinitis?

Answer 24

Hyporeflective, fluid accumulation

Question 25

What is a characteristic of chronic lesions in chorioretinitis?

Answer 25

Hyperreflective scars

Question 26

What is an incisional biopsy?

Answer 26

Sampling only of a tumor, used for large or likely malignant tumors. ## Footnote Incisional biopsy is a technique where only a portion of the tumor is removed for analysis.

Question 27

What is an excisional biopsy?

Answer 27

Removal of the whole mass, used for small, pedunculated, likely benign tumors. ## Footnote Excisional biopsy involves complete removal of the tumor for diagnosis and treatment.

Question 28

What should you NOT do when performing a biopsy?

Answer 28

Use laser or cautery. ## Footnote Laser or cautery can alter histopathology, making it difficult to diagnose correctly.

Question 29

What is Peripheral Odontogenic Fibroma (POF)?

Answer 29

A slow-growing, gingival, non-ulcerated tumor treated with excision ± tooth extraction. ## Footnote POF is a type of benign tumor commonly found in dogs.

Question 30

What characterizes Canine Acanthomatous Ameloblastoma (CAA)?

Answer 30

Rostral, locally invasive, benign tumor requiring wide surgical excision with 1 cm margins. ## Footnote CAA is a type of oral tumor that can invade surrounding tissues.

Question 31

What is the common treatment for Squamous Cell Carcinoma (SCC) in dogs?

Answer 31

Surgery and radiation. ## Footnote SCC is invasive and common in older dogs, necessitating aggressive treatment.

Question 32

What is the prognosis for melanoma in dogs?

Answer 32

Highly malignant, often treated with aggressive surgery, radiation, and melanoma vaccine. ## Footnote Melanoma is one of the most serious oral tumors in dogs.

Question 33

What is the treatment for fibrosarcoma in dogs?

Answer 33

Wide surgical excision. ## Footnote Fibrosarcoma can appear low-grade histologically but is biologically aggressive.

Question 34

What are the causes of ulcerative lesions in the oral cavity?

Answer 34

Foreign body, chemical exposure, electrical injury, osteonecrosis. ## Footnote Each cause has specific features and treatment approaches.

Question 35

What is Masticatory Muscle Myositis (MMM)?

Answer 35

A condition characterized by painful jaw and muscle atrophy diagnosed with a 2M antibody test. ## Footnote MMM is an autoimmune disorder affecting the muscles used for chewing.

Question 36

What is the best diagnostic test for masticatory myositis?

Answer 36

2M antibody test. ## Footnote This test is considered the gold standard for diagnosing MMM.

Question 37

What is a dentigerous cyst?

Answer 37

A cyst associated with unerupted teeth, requiring extraction of the tooth and cyst removal. ## Footnote Dentigerous cysts can cause expansile lesions in the jaw.

Question 38

What are the characteristics of Canine Chronic Ulcerative Stomatitis (CCUS)?

Answer 38

Severe pain, drooling, halitosis, with 'kissing lesions' in oral mucosa. ## Footnote CCUS is a chronic inflammatory condition that may require full-mouth extractions for treatment.

Question 39

What is the primary treatment for Feline Chronic Gingivostomatitis (FCGS)?

Answer 39

Full-mouth extractions as first-line treatment. ## Footnote FCGS is marked by severe oral inflammation in cats.

Question 40

What is the prognosis for Squamous Cell Carcinoma (SCC) in cats?

Answer 40

Poor prognosis with <6 months survival. ## Footnote SCC is the most common oral tumor in cats and is often invasive.

Question 41

What is the significance of supernumerary teeth in dogs?

Answer 41

Increased risk of malocclusion and periodontal disease. ## Footnote Supernumerary teeth can lead to dental complications.

Question 42

What is the treatment for gingival hyperplasia?

Answer 42

May require excision if drug-induced (e.g., cyclosporine). ## Footnote Gingival hyperplasia can occur as a side effect of certain medications.

Question 43

What is the best next step for a cat with oral swelling and weight loss after biopsy shows ulcerative stomatitis?

Answer 43

Remove infected bone and reassess. ## Footnote Surgical debridement is necessary for osteomyelitis.

Question 44

True or False: Malignant melanoma in dogs is treated conservatively.

Answer 44

False. ## Footnote Malignant melanoma requires aggressive treatment, including surgery and adjunct therapies.

Question 45

Fill in the blank: The treatment for dental-related issues like CCUS and FCGS often involves _______.

Answer 45

extractions. ## Footnote Extractions are common in managing severe oral conditions.