Class exams Flashcards
(125 cards)
1
Q
What is the context means that a person w/ disabilities can approach, enter, pass to and from and make use of an area and its facilities w/o assistance?
A
- barrier - free
- accessible
- universal designed
2
Q
What is a service sink?
A
mop sink
3
Q
Which shower valve sense the proportion of cold / hot water as the users turns the handle?
A
Pressure balance valve
4
Q
If a wall stud is load-barring, what is the max amount of stud that can be removed?
A
1/3 of the depth
5
Q
What style urinals are costly to replace?
A
stall urinals
6
Q
What is the min distance from a back wall for a water closet rough-in?
A
12” from finished wall
7
Q
Building code requirements generally state that holes cannot be closer than ___ from the edges?
A
2”
8
Q
What is a supply risers?
A
- fixture supply tubes
- supply connectors
- supply lines
9
Q
When installing a counter top basin and you are not provided a template, what should you do in what order?
A
turn basin upside down, drawn a line around its perimeter, draw a second line about 1/2” smaller and cut
10
Q
What kind of seat is required in a public washroom?
A
elongated open front
11
Q
What is the purpose of an outlet fitting?
A
to prevent dirt / debris from collecting at the rim
12
Q
What are electric water heater thermostat pre-set at?
A
60
13
Q
Which faucet is being used by the up and down mvmt?
A
Cartridge faucet
14
Q
What is the max air gap on a hot water tank?
A
12”
15
Q
What is “FOG” stand for?
A
Fat, oil and grease
16
Q
What does the connection of a dishwasher wye need to be?
A
upstream of the p-trap
17
Q
Code’s require that every fixture have a hard what?
A
corrosion resistant surface
18
Q
Why are valve body usually made of brass?
A
resistant to the corrosive effects
19
Q
What is the min height for a laundry stand pipe?
A
24”
20
Q
How many L / min, the code limit a lavatory faucet to permissible flow rate
A
8.31
21
Q
Sensor - controlled faucet also known as:
A
- hands free
- automatic
- touchless
22
Q
What kind of drawing provide the arrangement of a fixture?
A
architectural
23
Q
Who regulates fixture by Nationally developed standards?
A
CSA
24
Q
By code at 3 compartment sink requires?
A
2” p-trap
25
In a vitrified porcelain, what is the fine clay also to make fine porcelain dishes call?
Koalin
26
On a hot water tank, what is the min length for the copper tubing risers?
18"
27
What kind of water closet is not a common residential fixture?
Blowout
28
Who is responsible for the backing for each fixture?
plumber
29
What type of water closet is most often chosen in an institutional building?
elongated / direct flush
30
Lavatories are also know as?
basin
31
What is the normal placement for the water connection on a water closet rough-in?
6" to the left of the centerline
32
How many degrees angle is needed to prevent contamination from user's on a bubbler
45
33
A ___ can be used immediately after a pipe penetrate through a finished wall
escutcheon
34
What is the max permitted flow rate of a shower head?
9.5 Lpm
35
Which of the BC code deals w/ people w/ disabilities such as washrooms?
division B section 3.7
36
Volt meters are connected in ____ when testing AC?
parallel
37
The air to natural gas ratio is:
10 : 1
38
Heating gas fireplace, also known as vented gas fireplace heaters, will have what min efficiency rating?
50%
39
The appliance that preheats ventilation supply air w/ the exhaust air is known as?
heat recovery ventilator
40
Aldehydes are:
- toxic and poisonous
- stinky and irritating
41
Gas fired refrigerators operate different than typical electric compression refrigeration units. What component does the gas fired refrigerator not require?
compressor
42
What category has a positive vent static pressure / flue loss not less than 17%?
III
43
What is down draft?
a condition in which a draft is forced downward / can cause a flue gas spillage.
44
Who regulates what certification symbols that must appear on the rating plate of a gas appliance sold in Canada?
Standards Council of Canada
45
For every pound of water condensed from the flue gas, the heat exchanger for a condensing appliance, gains approximately how many BTUs of energy?
970
1 BTU = 970 BTU/hr
46
A gauge pressure of 400 kPa would equal what absolute pressure?
501.3 kPa
47
To measure AC current what type of meter is used?
clamp on ammeter
48
Which of the following is required when installing a gas range?
- clearance to combustibles
- anti-tipping
- restraining device for commercial appliance on wheels
49
Combustion requires what 3 ingredients in correct proportions?
- heat, fuel, oxygen
50
The benefit to a thermal well allows for:
Easy replacement of thermometer w/o draining the vessel or piping
51
Another name for a combustion air pot is?
thermo trap
52
When testing for continuity, what must be ensured?
that the circuit is de-energized
53
Two primary categories of burners are mechanical / non mechanical the difference is how?
Combustion air is supplied
54
What is the name for the pressure reading where, the instrument registers the difference in pressure bn 2 contained working fluids?
differential pressure
55
Section of the code book referring to field approval is?
CSA B149.3
56
Which of the following are common components of the main burner control circuit?
- thermostat
- high limit
- main gas valve
57
Installation of air supply openings / ducts is in section ____ of ____
8, 149.1
58
The freezing and boiling point of water are:
32 F and 212 F
freezing: 0 C ---> 32 F
boiling: 100 C ---> 212 F
59
The recovery rate of hot water tank that is 40 US gallons, with a recovery rate @ 90 F of 45 GPH = how many BTU/h?
33.737
GPH x 8.33 Lb/GPH x 90 T= btu/h
60
To achieve complete combustion we supply more:
air --> excess: ensures complete combustion
61
An example of an indoor non vented gas appliance would be?
Stove
62
Combustion air is ___ air:
primary and secondary
63
Single stage, two stage and multi stage are examples of?
Furnace
64
What is the ignition temperature of natural gas?
700 C
65
What can be used to overcome venting problems such as extra long vents, excessive negative pressure or improper venting design?
Power venter
66
Condensing boilers heat exchanger surface are constructed of?
stainless steel or aluminum
67
What expression is used to indicate a water heaters output?
recovery rate
68
High intensity infrared heaters are:
non vented
69
What type of sensing element do dial stem thermometers use?
bimetallic element
70
High efficiency appliances require how much dilution air?
no dilution air
71
What term describes the process of air entering a building?
infiltration
72
What section of the code book refers to pressure controls?
5
73
A volume of natural gas is created 2,000,000 BTU/h of heat, the volume of carbon dioxide produced would be?
2000 Cubic feet
74
If the smell of gas is faint but your readings are high, what could be the source?
An outside below ground leak
75
What type of sensor does not have to be placed into the gas to detect it / can be used for remote sensing up to 30 m?
infrared
76
True or False: All heating equipment must have a dedicated branch circuit
True
77
The scale that shares degrees w/ Fahrenheit scale is?
Rankin
78
A "cast iron radiator" is an example of?
conduction
79
How many BTU are there in 1 kW of heat?
3412
80
The quantity of heat required to raise or lower the temperature of one pound of water by one degree Fahrenheit is a description of what?
BTU
81
Why are residential one pipe gravity return systems designed for a maximum of a 1/2 psi pressure drop across the system?
To maintain low steam velocities in the system
82
What is the name of the type of system were steam / condensate travel in opposite directions in the steam main piping?
counterflow
83
What will occur if the automatic water feeder cannot keep up with the rate of steam evaporation from the boiler?
The low water cut-off will shut off the fuel source
84
What is the maximum steam pressure that a house steam heating system should operate at?
2 psi
85
As of January 1, 2010, Canadian federal efficiency guidelines have determined that all new installations of residential furnaces must have a min AFUE of?
90%
86
Mid-efficient furnaces are known as:
category 1
87
What is the most common reason that forced-air heating system are installed versus electric baseboard or hydronic?
They are least costly to install
88
What type of forced air furnace would be used in a rancher-style house where the furnace sits on the main floor / the warm air ductwork is below the floor in the crawl space?
down flow
89
Which one of the following gains its heat by extracting it from the ground or outside air and transferring it to a refrigerant coil
heat pump
90
In a typical indoor environment, approximately how much of a person's body heat is released by thermal radiation to colder surfaces?
48%
91
What would be a main advantage of hydronic heating vs forced air heating?
energy savings in operation
92
What is the best definition os "comfort"
it is the absence of discomfort
93
What is an area of control known as?
a zone
94
Why is water a good medium for transporting thermal energy?
it has a high heat storage ability
95
Hot water boilers normally operate at average temperatures of:
82 C
96
The American Society of Mechanical Engineers regulations require that steam for heating does not exceed?
105 kPa
97
What are fire-tube boilers well suited for?
hot water heating or steam heating
98
Which boiler must have a water return temp of below 60 C?
condensing boiler
99
Which pump does not use latent heat from below the surface of the earth?
air - to -water
100
Section 7 of the natural gas and propane installation code specifies min clearances from combustibles for boilers. What are the min clearances from the rear of the boiler?
45 cm (18")
101
Which is the best unit described by the statement "push air downwards and are near the ceiling?"
Vertical unit heaters
102
Which one of the following heat transfers units produces significant amounts of radiant heat?
free-standing cast iron radiator
103
How is the heat output of finned tubed baseboard controlled?
by adjusting the damper
104
What length of fin would be required for a room w/ a heat loss of 11000 BTU/h if the fin had an output rating of 550 BTU/ft/hr?
20'
105
What is the most common type of tubing used today in radiant floor installations?
polyethylene cross-link
106
Air vents must be placed where?
high points / accessible
107
One foot of head is equal to ?
.433psi
108
What is the most commonly used temperature drop in the heating industry?
11 C
109
The formula to calculate USGPM when the BTU/H heat requirement is known is:
T x 60 x 8.33
110
Where is the ideal location for a pump?
immediately downstream of the point of no pressure change
111
How many components does a water make-up has?
4
112
Every pressure relief valve has an information plate that identifies:
the relief pressure setting, the relief capacity, the size of valve
113
What is the purpose of a zone valve?
to provide control of heat emission
114
What are the two primary considerations when locating air elimination devices?
temp and pressure
115
What device removes gases directly from the boiler?
boiler scoop
116
What part of a circulator transfer energy to the water?
impeller
117
What is the purpose of a flow control valve?
to prevent convection currents in a heating system
118
The back-flow preventer, feed-water valve, isolation valves / bypass all combine to form what part of the hydronic system?
make-up water line
119
What is another name for Monoflow system?
diversion tee
120
What is the name of the piping system in which the heating transfer units are part of the piping?
series loop
121
What is the name of the piping system in which the heating transfer units are supplied by speciality tees?
one pipe
122
What is a major disadvantage of the series loop piping sytem?
limited heating capacity for each circuit
123
What is a major disadvantage of a one-pipe system?
unsuitable for more than 2 heat transfer units
124
What is the major disadvantage of a two-pipe direct return piping system?
hard to balance flow to each heat transfer unit
125
Which one of the following factors is not a consideration when selecting zones?
system layout
