Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

REVISION > Clincal skills > Flashcards

Clincal skills Flashcards

(103 cards)

Start Studying
1
Q

What is costo-chondritis?

A

Also known as Tietz syndrome. Inflammation of the rib cartilage. Presents like an MI.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

when do xiphoid processes ossify?

A

After the age of 40. They will feel hard lumps in the pits of their stomach.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

How is Cardiac tamponade treated?

A

Inserting a needle at Larrey’s point (between xiphisternum and costal margin) 45 degrees to the skin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What causes hemi-diaphragm?

A

Paralysis to the diaphragm due to injury of motor supply from phrenic nerve. Only one half for each phrenic nerve, the diaphragm doesn’t descend on inspiration it is pushed superiorly by the abdo viscera. The diaphragm falls on expiration.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Where is a chest drain inserted?

A

Above the rib 2nd intervertebral space mid-axiliary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is pericarditis?

A

Inflammation of the pericardium and causes chest pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is pericardial effusion?

A

Escape of fluid from pericardial capillaries into the pericardial cavity. If large volumes accumulate is can prevent heart expanding fully

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What do you do with an obstructed coronary artery?

A

Coronary angioplasty – passing of a catheter with a small inflatable balloon attaches to its tip into the obstructed artery. Inflate balloon and lumen size is increased. Sometimes with a stent, sometimes with thrombokinase.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which nerves may lung cancers affect?

A

Phrenic

Recurrent laryngeal – leads to hoarseness of voice due to paralysis of vocal cords

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How does laceration of thoracic duct occur?

A

Thoracic duct is thin-walled and may be colourless so not easily identified. Can be cut in surgery. This allows chyle to escape into the thoracic cavity. This ledas to chylothorax – pleural effusion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Coarctation of the aorta

A

Steinosis in the arch or desc, reducing blood flow to inferior body. Most common point is the attachment of ligamentum arteriosum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Fractures of the cranium

A

The most frequent type is linear calvarial fractures. Fracture lines often radiate away

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Fractures of the mandible

A

Two fractures on opposite sides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What pulses can be felt in the face?

A
  • Superficial temporal (temple)

- Facial (mandible)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

When do you use a mental nerve block?

A

When repairing a lip laceration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What virus can infect the parotid?

A

Mumps (blood born)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What happens in infection of the ethmoid air sinus?

A

The infections may break through the fragile orbital wall. Severe infections may cause blindness as some posterior ethmoidal cells lie close to the optic canal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Maxillary sinus

A

They are commonly infected. When the mucous membrane becomes congester, the ostia often obstruct.
The sinuses drain when lying down. The right sinus drains when lying on the left side

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is congenital torticollis?

A

Wry neck – fibrous tumour within the SCM in the neonate. SCM injured.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What structures do the subclavian artery and brachial plexus pass between?

A

The scalenus anterior and medius

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

In what disease does the JVP increase?

A

Right sided heart failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

In what situations is the subclavian vein used?

A

Used to insert a central line to administer fluids and measure central venous pressure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What structure attaches to the 1st rib and separates the subclavian vein and subclavian artery?

A

The anterior scalene muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Which vein are you looking at when testing the JVP?

A

The internal jugular vein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What can be the consequences of a cervical rib?
Compression or brachial plexus and weakness in the thenar muscles.
26
What is subclavian steal syndrome?
When there is proximal steinosis or occlusion of the subclavian artery and blood flows backwards in the vertebral artery or internal thoracic.
27
What is horner’s syndrome?
Nerves in the sympathetic trunk are damaged.  miosis, ptosis and decreased sweating. Might be caused by damage to the wall of the ICA.v
28
What is the most common cause of facial paralysis?
Non-traumatic – inflammation of the facial nerve near the stylomastoid foramen. This causes: - Facial asymmetry - Inability to whistle - Inability to blow - Inability to chew effectively
29
What are the risks of a parotidectomy?
Injury to the facial nerve leading to unilateral facial paralysis (bell’s palsy, shingles)
30
How does the TMJ dislocate?
Yawning or taking a large bite and the lateral pterygoid muscles contract
31
When would you want to block the inferior alveolar nerve?
When repairing or removing mandibular teeth. Chin and lower lip lose sensation.
32
What might happen in TMJ arthritis?
Dislocation of the joint and crepitus
33
What are the symptoms of injury to the recurrent laryngeal nerve?
Hoarseness of voice, earache and dysphagia. Vocal rehab achieved by use of elecrolarynx, tracheoesophageal prosthesis or oesophageal speech. Vulnerable in thyroidectomy and anterior triangle surgeries. Note: inferior laryngeal innervates muscles of the vocal fold.
34
What happens in injury to the superior laryngeal nerve?
Monotonus voice due to paralysed cricothyroid muscle
35
Which vessel divides the superior and deep inguinal ring?
The inferior epigastric (from the external iliac)
36
What is dehiscence of killian?
Mucous membranes on pharynx can herniated and lead to diverticulum
37
Fractures of the laryngeal skeleton
Be a result of sports such as kick-boxing and hockey | Can lead to submucous haemorrhage and oedema, respiraotey obstruction, hoarseness and inability to speak.
38
Aortic aneurysm
TRIPLE A Aorta should be pulsatile but not expansile. Rupture has a mortality of 90%. Surgeons can repair it by inserting a prosthetic graft and sewing the wall of the aneurismal aorta over the graft to protect it Note: somatic afferent leave the spinal cord through ventral roots of spinal nerves.
39
Nephroptosis
The is a drooping kidney. Pain present on standing not sitting.relieved by lying down. This is due to the layers of the renal fascia do not fuse firmly inferiorly. The kidneys sits T12-L3. The right is lower due to the liver.
40
Renal and uteric calculi
This is a kidney stone. Causes severe rhythmic pain. Patients are moving around to lessen the pain.
41
What happens in pelvic floor weakness?
Due to damage to pudendal nerve (S2-4) This predisposes to pelvic organ prolapse. If the bladder prolapses this is a ‘cytocele’ which can result in stress incontinence.
42
Are males or females more likely to get bladder infections?
Women because we have a short urethra – 4cm
43
What is overactive bladder syndrome?
Urological condition characterised by urgency of urination, urge incontinence and nocturia. Needing to urinate more than 8 times per day. Possible causes: - Damage to parasympathetics - UTI - Childbirth
44
What level is an epidural inserted?
L4/5
45
What is cauda equina syndrome?
Compression of the cauda quina due to herniated disc compression, ruptures disc or tumour. Sensation reduced in L2,3,4.
46
What do you call malignancies arising from muscles?
Sarcomsa. They have a poor prognosis
47
Which vein is used in coronary bypass?
The great saphenous
48
What are clinical features of varicose veins?
Tortuous and dilated
49
Where is McBurney’s point and what is it’s significance?
2/3rds between the umbilicus and ASIS – marks the appendix.
50
When might sciatic nerve injury arise?
People in sports that use gluteal muscles. 50% are due to injury of the bum associated with hypertrophy and spasm or piriformis. Sometimes if the nerve passes through the piriformis then the muscle can compress the nerve
51
Where are intragluteal injections performed
Gluteaal region superior to sciatic nerve
52
Which people might injure the adductor longus?
Horseriders and football players
53
Which muscle can be used in transplant?
The gracilis as it is a weak adductor
54
Which structures lie in the femoral triangle?
Femoral artery, nerve, vein and canal
55
What is chondromalacia?
Runner’s knee – patella rubs on the femur bone beneath. Can lead to synovitis, erosion of cartilage under the patella
56
What is the difference in location of femoral and inguinal hernias?
Femoral hernias are BELOW and LATERAL to the pubic tubercule | Inguinal hernias are ABOVE and MEDIAL to the pubic tubercule
57
What structure causes strangulation of femoral hernias?
The femoral canal
58
Where do the ACL and PCL attach?
The intercondylar eminence
59
What is a tibial fracture like?
Usually the skin is torn, usally in the narrowest point – junction between the middle and inferior thirds
60
What is housemaids knee?
Bursitis in the knee cap
61
What is haemarthrosis?
Bleeding into the joint space
62
Which ankle ligaments are affected in inversion injuries?
Lateral ligaments – anterior talofibular or calcaneofibular or posterior talofibular
63
What is bimalleolar (pott’s) fracture?
Due to ankle eversion, tear of medial malleolus. Talus moves laterally, shearing off the lateral malleolus or breathing fibula.
64
What are shin splints?
Tibialis anterior strain due to overuse so oedema and swelling reduces blood flow to the muscles
65
What effect does age have on the vertebra?
Lumbar bodies increase in height between 0 5 Middle and older age: decrease in bone density and strength Great stress on the zygapophyseal joints causing osteophytes to develop along the attachments
66
In a slipped disc, which direction does the nucleus pulposus go? Backwards and sideaways
Backwards and sideaways
67
What is tennis elbow?
Lateral epicondylitis – usually involves the extensor carpi radialis brevis.
68
Which direction does the shoulder normally dislocate? Which nerve can this damage?
Anterior and down. Axillary
69
What type of injury are preschool children likely to get?
Subluxation and dislocation of the radial head. Due to playing 1 2 3 weee Treatment is supination of the forearm during elbow flexion
70
What are the nerve roots of the long thoracic nerve? What does it innervate?
C5-7. Innervates the serratus anterior. Damage leads to winged scapula. Patient cant abduct arm above horizontal as the serratus anterior cant rotate the glenoid cavity
71
What are the rotator cuff muscles and their innervation? What causes injury?
Supraspinatous – suprascapular nerve Infraspinatous – suprascapular Subscapularis – upper and lower subscapular nerves Teres minor – axillary (inserts onto greater tubercule of humerus from inferior lateral border of the scapula Injury can be caused by sudden violent abduction. The most commonly torn part is the supraspinatous (relatively avascular)
72
Brachial plexus
``` Axillary: C5,6 Radial: C5-T1 Median: C5-T1 Ulnar: C8-T1 Musculocutaneous: C5-7 ```
73
Damage to the ulnar nerve causes what?
Ulnar claw – the closer to the hand the lesion the more clawing. “The closer to the paw, the more the claw”. This is because the ulnar nerve also innervates the medial half of the flexor digitorum profundus muscle which is further up the arm. So if the ulnar lesion is closer to the elbow it may effect this muscles. As a results, flecion of IP joints are weaker so reduces the claw appearance therefore is less claw like.
74
Which nerves supply the thenar and hypothenar eminence
Thenar: median (C5-T1) Hypothenar: ulnar (C8-T1)
75
In what clinical situations might there be loss of smell (agnosia?)
Parkinsons. Because olfactory nerves also use dopamine
76
What is herpes simplex encephalitis?
Viral infection causing necrosis of the medial temporal region
77
What is abulia?
Absence of willpower. Caused by stroke in the ACA
78
What might seizures in the uncus start with?
A perculiar smell as it is near the olfactory bulb
79
What do mamillary bodies in an alcoholic look like?
Atrophy and gliosis. Wernickes encephalopathy
80
What chronic amnesic syndrome causes atrophy of mamillary bodies?
Korsakoff’s
81
What vitamin are these patients deficient in?
Vitamin B1
82
What symptom might you get from accidental transection of the fornix?
Recall memory loss
83
What might an ICA aneurysm cause?
Lateral rectus palsy as it compresses the abducens nerve
84
What is most likely to cause a stroke of the MCA?
Embolus travelling up from the neck or heart
85
What might tear the vertebral artery?
Violent flexion-extension of the neck. More likely to occur in younger individuals.
86
Is thrombosis of the basilar artery likely to be fatal?
Yes – it can suppress the brainstem. It can cause blindness
87
What clinically would you expect following a large cerebellar haemorrhage? If it was on the left, which side would the symptoms be?
Headache, ataxia, nistagmus | The left
88
Why might an occlusion of the arteries in the pons cause paralysis of all four limbs? Which eye movements are spared? What is this called?
All the decending corticospinal tracts go through the pons Vertical eye movements are spared as the occulomotor is above the pons. Lateral rectus is affected. This is called locked in syndrome
89
What is an eloquent area of the brain?
Damage gives a clear and obvious results
90
What is an orbital blow out fracture?
One of the orbit bones break and eyeball is damaged. The eyes are dark due to blood and bruising.
91
If someone has sudden dilation of pupil, what might this suggest?
Transterorial herniation. Occulomotor nerve might be compressed.
92
What clinical features would you expect with trochlear nerve palsy?
Diplopia when eyes look down
93
What are the clinical features of third nerve palsy?
Eye is down and out and the eyelid is closed (levator occuli is supplied by the occulomotor). Dilated pupils.
94
A stroke in which brainstem area will affect speech and swallowing?
Middle midbrain – nucleus ambiguous
95
Which nerve is particularly vulnerable in increase ICP?
Abducens
96
What is obstructive hydrocephalus?
Build up of CSF in the ventricles
97
100. What is the caudate nucleus associated with?
Cognitive basal ganglia loop
98
Does the subthalamic nuclei excite or inhibit the internal pallidum? What does this effect?
Excites. This inhibits movement.
99
What is caused by infarction to the subthalamic nuclei?
Hemiballismus
100
What disorder is associated with degeneration of the caudate nucleus?
Huntington's disease.
101
What are the clinical features of SMA syndrome?
Reduced spontatneous movement. Caused by infarction to ACA.
102
Which gland opens below the hymen?
The bartholens. It lubricates
103
What is the lymph drainage of the vulva?
Superficial inguinal

REVISION (3 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions