Clinical Intervention and monitoring Flashcards by Olga Arnold

Which of the following statements is NOT true concerning medical nutrition therapy?

A) All of the answers are true concerning medical nutrition therapy
B) It can be followed at home
C) It can be useful in the management of HIV and AIDS
D) It is an effective way to cure genetic disorders, such as sickle cell anemia
E) It is a valuable tool in the management of many diet–related health problems

D) It is an effective way to cure genetic disorders, such as sickle cell anemia

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This diet is high in unhealthy fats, sugar and salt and low in fiber, vitamins and minerals.

A) MNT Diet
B) Standard American Diet
C) Mediterranean Diet
D) Zone Diet
E) DASH Diet
E) It is a valuable tool in the management of many diet–related health problems

B) Standard American Diet

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Which of the following best defines Medical Nutrition Therapy?

A) An intravenous procedure to boost a patient’s nutritional intake
B) All of the answers are correct
C) A dietary approach to treating medical conditions that can be followed at home
D) A line of vitamin and mineral supplements
E) An in–patient treatment hospital that specializes in nutrition

C) A dietary approach to treating medical conditions that can be followed at home

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Medical nutrition therapy is typically administered by this nutrition expert.

A) Family Doctor
B) Certified Nursing Assistant
C) Certified Nursing Assistant
D) Registered Dietitian
E) Internist

D) Registered Dietitian

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Which of the following conditions might be prevented or improved with medical nutrition therapy?

A) Diabetes
B) High Blood Pressure
C) Kidney Disease
D) Obesity
E) All of the answers are correct

E) All of the answers are correct

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The hormone causes you to feel hungry and rises in people who don’t get enough sleep:

A) Gremlin
B) Pectin
C) Lipid
D) Ghrelin
E) Leptin

D) Ghrelin

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How much aerobic moderate intensity exercise does the average adult need every week?

A) At least 150 minutes (two and a half hours)
B) No more than one hour
C) At the minimum about 10 hours
D) Less than two hours
E) No less than 6 hours

A) At least 150 minutes (two and a half hours)

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This hormone makes you feel full and drops in quantity if you don’t get enough sleep:

A) Lipase
B) Lipose
C) Pectin
D) Leptin
E) Lactose

D) Leptin

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A situation where a person has a higher caloric intake than expenditure is called:

A) Leptin caloric balance
B) Negative caloric balance
C) All of these answers are correct
D) Ghrelin caloric balance
E) Positive caloric balance

E) Positive caloric balance

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How does sleep correlate with weight gain?

A) There is not correlation between the two at all
B) People who get about 7–9 hours of sleep are more likely to be obese than those that get approximately 2–4 hours of sleep.
C) People who get too little sleep are more likely to be obese
D) None of these answers are correct
E) Those that sleep too little have an increase in leptin and a decrease in ghrelin over those who sleep too much

C) People who get too little sleep are more likely to be obese

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This is a technique that utilizes small incisions and thin instruments to perform minimally invasive surgery:

A) Open heart surgery
B) Chemotherapy
C) Amputation
D) Laparoscopic
E) Radiation therapy

D) Laparoscopic

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Which of the following attaches the intestines to the stomach?

A) Phenylpropanolamine
B) Herbal supplementation
C) Gastric band surgery
D) Liposuction
E) Gastric bypass surgery

E) Gastric bypass surgery

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A radiograph is:

A) An ECG
B) A x–ray
C) An angioplasty
D) The same thing as an angioplasty
E) An ACE inhibitor

B) A x–ray

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Beta blockers:

A) Are a type of ACE inhibitor
B) Help stop an arrhythmia of the heart
C) Are a collection of surgical procedures for valve replacement
D) Are a type of blood clot blocking the arteries of the heart
E) Block the formation of blood clots (i.e. they are blood thinners)

B) Help stop an arrhythmia of the heart

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The procedure that uses a balloon to expand a clogged artery is known as:

A) An angioplasty
B) Valve replacement surgery
C) Angiography
D) ACE inhibition
E) Bypass surgery

A) An angioplasty

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High blood pressure is known as:

A) Hypotension
B) Atherosclerosis
C) Diabetes mellitus
D) Obesity
E) Hypertension

E) Hypertension

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If you are following a 2,000 calorie DASH Diet, you can have up to this many ounces of lean meats, poultry and fish a day.

A) 6
B) 3
C) 8
D) 12
E) 0

A) 6

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If you are following a 2,000 calorie DASH diet, you can have up to this many servings of nuts, seeds and legumes.

A) 4–5 servings a day
B) 2–3 servings a day
C) 4–5 servings a week
D) 2–3 servings a month
E) Nuts, seed and legumes should be avoided entirely on the DASH Diet

C) 4–5 servings a week

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If you are following a 2,000 calorie DASH Diet, which of the following is the recommended number of servings of milk products?

A) 2–3 servings of 2% milk products a day
B) 2–3 servings of fat–free or low–fat milk products a day
C) 3–5 servings of fat–free or low fat milk products a day
D) No milk or dairy is allowed on the DASH diet.
E) 3–5 servings of 2% milk products a day

B) 2–3 servings of fat–free or low–fat milk products a day

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If you are following the lower sodium DASH diet, then you should not consume more than this many milligrams of sodium a day.

A) 230
B) 1,500
C) 150
D) 3,500
E) 2,300

B) 1,500

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Which of the following statements is FALSE concerning the DASH Diet?

A) You can have fats and oils, but you need to limit them to 2–3 servings a day
B) You cannot have any sweets
C) You can have 6–8 servings of grains a day
D) You can have 8–10 servings of fruits and vegetables a day
E) All of the answers are true concerning the DASH Diet

B) You cannot have any sweets

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An obese patient comes into a clinic presenting with blurred vision, a fasting blood glucose level of 110 mg/dL, and some fatigue. Based on these symptoms alone, you tell her:

A) She is showing symptoms of type 2 diabetes and recommend she start a medication to improve insulin uptake.
B) She is showing symptoms of type 2 diabetes and recommend she increase her activity level, begin insulin, and return to the clinic in a month for a recheck.
C) She is showing symptoms of type 1 diabetes and recommend she start insulin right away.
D) She is showing symptoms of prediabetes and recommend she watch her diet, increase her activity level, and return to the clinic for testing in a month.
E) She should monitor her diet more closely, but there is nothing to be concerned about.

D) She is showing symptoms of prediabetes and recommend she watch her diet, increase her activity level, and return to the clinic for testing in a month.

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An elevated glycosylated hemoglobin value is an indication of:

A) hyperinsulinemia
B) polyphagia
C) ketoacidosis
D) hyperglycemia
E) tight control of type 2 diabetes

D) hyperglycemia

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Which of the following choices is not a risk factor type 2 diabetes?

A) obesity
B) ethnicity
C) low levels of triglycerides
D) family history
E) high blood pressure

C) low levels of triglycerides

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Chronic hyperglycemia directly contributes to all of the following problems except: ``` A) poor healing of wounds and infection B) hyperinsulinemia C) neuropathy D) nephropathy E) retinopathy ```

B) hyperinsulinemia

Which of these correctly describes and explains a symptom of type 2 diabetes? A) Blurred vision is caused by elevated blood glucose levels, which, in turn, causes fluid to move from the bloodstream into the lenses of the eyes. B) Fatigue is caused by the body taking too much glucose into the cells and using it for metabolism. C) Polydipsia is caused by too much insulin circulating in the bloodstream, which, in turn, triggers the body's thirst response. D) Polyuria is caused by elevated levels of glucose in the blood, which, in turn, decreases the volume of urine output. E) Polyphagia is caused by cells not being able to use glucose, which, in turn, triggers the body's hunger response.

E) Polyphagia is caused by cells not being able to use glucose, which, in turn, triggers the body's hunger response.

Which of these problems is most associated with calcium depletion from the bones? ``` A) Diabetes mellitus B) Hypoparathyroidism C) Cushing's syndrome D) Addison's disease E) Hyperparathyroidism ```

E) Hyperparathyroidism

This disorder causes an excess of cortisol, thin skin, and a buffalo hump: ``` A) Addison's disease B) Hyperthyroidism C) Hyperparathyroidism D) Cushing's syndrome E) Hypoparathyroidism ```

D) Cushing's syndrome

Weight gain and fatigue are associated with which thyroid–based endocrine disorder? ``` A) Hyperparathyroidism B) Diabetes mellitus C) Hyperthyroidism D) Hypothyroidism E) Hypoparathyroidism ```

D) Hypothyroidism

This is the most common endocrine disorder and leads to high blood sugar: ``` A) Hypothyroidism B) Diabetes mellitus C) Hypoparathyroidism D) Hyperparathyroidism E) Addison's disease ```

B) Diabetes mellitus

Irritability, weight loss, and a high heart rate are associated with which thyroid–based endocrine disorder? ``` A) Hyperthyroidism B) Hyperparathyroidism C) Hypothyroidism D) Diabetes mellitus E) Hypoparathyroidism ```

A) Hyperthyroidism

An overactive thyroid gland is more consistent with ____ disease but an underactive thyroid is more consistent with ____ disease. ``` A) Hashimoto's, Graves' B) Hashimoto's, Gravis C) Graves', Hashimoto's D) Myasthenia Gravis, Multiple Sclerosis E) Gravis, Hashimoto's ```

C) Graves', Hashimoto's

Which of the following results in the destruction of the myelin sheath? ``` A) Multiple sclerosis B) Vasculitis C) Psoriasis D) Myasthenia gravis E) Type 1 diabetes ```

A) Multiple sclerosis

This chronic disorder in which stomach acids flow back into the esophagus can be helped by avoiding chocolate. ``` A) Celiac Disease B) Gastritis C) IBD D) GERD E) IBS ```

D) GERD

A) This non–digestible food component adds bulk and softens stool, which makes it beneficial in the prevention of diverticulosis. ``` A) Fiber B) Polyunsaturated Fat C) Prebiotic D) Probiotic E) Cilium ```

A) Fiber

People with IBD may feel better if they eliminate which of the following foods from their diet? ``` A) Fatty Foods B) Alcohol C) All of the answers are correct D) Dairy Products E) Spicy Foods ```

C) All of the answers are correct

If two glucose molecules are combined, which disaccharide will be created? ``` A) Lactose B) Maltose C) Saccharin D) Sucrose E) Glycogen ```

B) Maltose

Which of the following is NOT a disaccharide? ``` A) Maltose B) Galactose C) Lactose D) Sucrose E) All of these are disaccharides ```

B) Galactose

Sucrose is created by linking which two monosaccharides together? ``` A) glucose + fructose B) glucose + galactose C) galactose + maltose D) glucose + glucose E) galactose + fructose ```

A) glucose + fructose

Which enzyme is needed by the body to break down lactose? ``` A) Amylase B) Gastrin C) Pepsin D) Lactase E) Lipase ```

D) Lactase

A vitamin B12 deficiency could result in which form of anemia? ``` A) Aplastic Anemia B) Vitamin B12 deficiency would not lead to anemia C) Pernicious Anemia D) Sickle Cell Anemia E) Hemorrhagic Anemia ```

C) Pernicious Anemia

Which of the following is a disorder that affects the ability of the bone marrow to make enough blood cells? ``` A) Intrinsic Anemia B) Pernicious Anemia C) Aplastic Anemia D) Hemorrhagic Anemia E) Sickle Cell Anemia ```

C) Aplastic Anemia

Which of the following is a hereditary form of anemia that is due to an abnormality of the hemoglobin? ``` A) Pernicious Anemia B) Sickle Cell Anemia C) Hemorrhagic Anemia D) Vitamin B12 Anemia E) Aplastic Anemia ```

B) Sickle Cell Anemia

If a person does not make enough intrinsic factor, what could result? ``` A) Abnormal circulation of the red blood cells B) Hemorrhagic Anemia C) Aplastic Anemia D) Sickle Cell Anemia E) Pernicious Anemia ```

E) Pernicious Anemia

A massive loss of blood might result in which of the following types of anemia? ``` A) Pernicious Anemia B) Hemorrhagic Anemia C) Aplastic Anemia D) Sickle–Cell Anemia E) All of the answers are correct ```

B) Hemorrhagic Anemia

Why may osteoporosis occur at the cellular level? ``` A) Because there isn't enough bone formation B) Because osteoblasts are underactive C) All of the answers are correct D) Because there is too much bone loss E) Because osteoclasts are overactive ```

C) All of the answers are correct

How do bisphosphonates work? A) They cause the release of EPO a type of hormone responsible for bone growth B) They localize to the bone in order to inhibit osteoclast activity C) They secrete a special hormone called GMO that modifies the genetics of our bones D) They stop the brain from firing of chemical signals the stimulate osteoblast activity E) They work in the same way that antibiotics would, by killing off an infection.

B) They localize to the bone in order to inhibit osteoclast activity

Post–menopausal women are at higher risk for developing osteoporosis. Why? A) Because estrogen levels in the body decrease, the estrogen can no longer suppress osteoclast activity as well as it could before, causing bone loss to decelerate. B) Because estrogen levels in the body decrease, the estrogen can no longer activate osteoclast activity as well as it could before, causing bone loss to accelerate. C) Because estrogen levels in the body increase, the estrogen can no longer suppress osteoclast activity as well as it could before, causing bone loss to accelerate. D) Because estrogen levels in the body decrease, the estrogen can no longer suppress osteoclast activity as well as it could before, causing bone formation to accelerate. E) Because estrogen levels in the body decrease, the estrogen can no longer suppress osteoclast activity as well as it could before, causing bone loss to accelerate.

E) Because estrogen levels in the body decrease, the estrogen can no longer suppress osteoclast activity as well as it could before, causing bone loss to accelerate.

Osteopetrosis: A) Is a condition where the bones weaken and are at risk for fracture B) Is a cancer of the bone C) Is specific kind of bone fracture D) Is a condition where the bone becomes infected E) Is a condition where the bones over harden and are at risk for fracture

E) Is a condition where the bones over harden and are at risk for fracture

Osteoporosis: A) Is a cancer of the bone B) Is a condition where the bones weaken and are at risk for fracture C) Is a condition where the bone becomes infected D) Is specific kind of bone fracture E) Is a condition where the bones over harden and are at risk for fracture

B) Is a condition where the bones weaken and are at risk for fracture

Which of the following is described as a condition in which liver cells get replaced by scar tissue? ``` A) Scleroderma B) Scleritis C) Crohn's Disease D) Cirrhosis E) Celiac Disease ```

D) Cirrhosis

Non–alcoholic Fatty Liver Disease is more prevalent in people with this condition. ``` A) High Triglycerides B) All of the answers are correct C) High Cholesterol D) Diabetes E) Obesity ```

B) All of the answers are correct

Which of the following is NOT a dietary recommendation for a person with Non–alcoholic Fatty Liver Disease? ``` A) Avoid alcohol B) Lower overall calorie intake C) Increase vegetable consumption D) Choose lean meats E) Increase refined sugars and starches ```

E) Increase refined sugars and starches

Which of the following individuals would be at risk of developing fatty liver disease? ``` A) A person who is obese B) All of these individuals would be at risk C) A person who has hypoglycemia D) A person with a BMI of 18 E) A person with low blood cholesterol ```

A) A person who is obese

Fat storage that exceeds 5 to 10% of the liver's total weight produces a fatty liver, also referred to as this. ``` A) Sarcoidosis B) Steatosis C) Cirrhosis D) Addison's Disease E) Adipose ```

B) Steatosis

Emphysema mainly refers to a process that causes: ``` A) Very rigid air sacs B) Large airs sacs C) Very small alveoli D) Laryngeal collapse E) Highly elastic alveoli ```

B) Large airs sacs

What is one important component of chronic bronchitis (choose the best answer)? ``` A) None of these answers are correct B) Large airs sacs C) Tracheal collapse D) A genetic defect causing viscous airway secretions E) Mucus plug formation ```

E) Mucus plug formation

To correct for inflammation as a result of many obstructive disease processes, we can use (choose the most appropriate answer): ``` A) Antibiotics B) Bronchodilators C) Opioids D) Steroids E) Antifungals ```

D) Steroids

Abnormal dilation of the bronchi is most appropriately associated with: ``` A) Chronic Bronchitis B) Bronchiectasis C) Emphysema D) Asthma E) Cystic fibrosis ```

B) Bronchiectasis

The most common cause of COPD is: ``` A) High sugar intake B) Smoking C) Alpha–1–antitrypsin deficiency D) High altitude living conditions E) Decreased levels of protein intake ```

B) Smoking

COPD traditionally encompasses: ``` A) Chronic bronchitis and emphysema B) Asthma and cystic fibrosis C) Cystic fibrosis and bronchiectasis D) Emphysema and bronchiectasis E) Bronchiectasis and chronic bronchitis ```

A) Chronic bronchitis and emphysema

Which type of fat would be the best choice for a person with COPD? ``` A) Fat from meats B) Trans fat C) Saturated fat D) Monounsaturated fat E) Butter ```

D) Monounsaturated fat

This is a progressive disease that interferes with airflow making it difficult to breath. ``` A) CHD B) CAD C) CF D) COPD E) ALS ```

D) COPD

This nutrient supports the muscles needed for respiration and is found in foods like eggs and fish. ``` A) Polyunsaturated fat B) Protein C) Trans fat D) Fiber E) Carbohydrate ```

B) Protein

A person with COPD may find it easier to breathe if they follow this recommendation. A) Eat a diet higher in carbohydrates and lower in fat B) Eat a diet higher in fat and lower in carbohydrates C) Eat a low fat diet that is very high in protein D) Eat a low protein diet that is rich in carbohydrates E) None of these diet recommendations help with breathing

B) Eat a diet higher in fat and lower in carbohydrates

A person with Chronic Kidney Disease might need to limit their intake of this nutrient found in potatoes and bananas or risk problems regulating their heartbeat. ``` A) Sodium B) Iron C) Potassium D) Phosphorus E) Protein ```

C) Potassium

A person with Chronic Kidney Disease needs some of this nutrient in their diet to help with growth and repair, but too much can be hard on the kidneys. ``` A) Sodium B) Protein C) Phosphorus D) Calcium E) Potassium ```

B) Protein

A person with Chronic Kidney Disease would need to limit their dietary intake of this nutrient or risk getting high blood pressure. ``` A) Sodium B) Potassium C) Zinc D) Protein E) Phosphorus ```

A) Sodium

A person with Chronic Kidney Disease will need to monitor their dietary intake of this mineral or risk developing weak bones. ``` A) Sodium B) Protein C) Iodine D) Potassium E) Phosphorus ```

E) Phosphorus

Which of the following stages of Chronic Kidney Disease is the most severe and often referred to as End–Stage Kidney Disease? ``` A) Stage 1 B) Stage 6 C) Stage 10 D) Stage 5 E) Stage 3 ```

D) Stage 5

Dementia usually develops over _, while delirium develops _. ``` A) Suddenly; years B) Days; suddenly C) Years; slowly D) Years; suddenly E) Days; decades ```

D) Years; suddenly

Ever since a motorcycle accident, Chris can't remember anything from his childhood, but he has no problems making new memories. He is suffering from: ``` A) Retrograde amnesia B) Dementia C) None are correct D) Anterograde amnesia E) Delirium ```

A) Retrograde amnesia

Which of these involves not being able to make new memories? ``` A) Anterograde amnesia B) Retrograde amnesia C) Delirium D) Dementia E) None are correct ```

A) Anterograde amnesia

Three types of cognitive disorders are: A) Dementia, delirium, amnestic disorder B) All are correct C) Dementia, desisting, amnestic disorder D) Dementia, delirium, amnesty international E) None are correct

A) Dementia, delirium, amnestic disorder

Which of the following statements is true? A) Food allergy symptoms develop slowly over the course of a few hours. B) Food allergy symptoms are only triggered after a large serving of the offending food is consumed. C) Food allergy symptoms develop quickly. D) Food allergies are not life–threatening. E) Food allergies cause only gastrointestinal symptoms, like pain, cramps and diarrhea.

C) Food allergy symptoms develop quickly.

Which of the following symptoms is NOT likely to be seen in a person suffering from a food intolerance? ``` A) Abdominal pain B) Abdominal cramps C) Bloating D) Diarrhea E) Hives ```

E) Hives

Which of the following is a common trigger food of food allergies? ``` A) Tree nuts B) All of the answers are correct C) Eggs D) Shellfish E) Peanuts ```

B) All of the answers are correct

Food allergies trigger this event, which makes them different than food intolerances? ``` A) Discomfort B) Diarrhea C) An immune response D) Abdominal pain E) All of the answers are correct ```

C) An immune response

This person is a nutrition expert who is qualified to design meal plans for patients with medical conditions. ``` A) Pharmacist B) Certified Wellness Coach C) Diet Registrar D) Registered Dietitian E) Social Worker ```

D) Registered Dietitian

Which of the following is a general nutrition recommendation for a patient undergoing cancer treatment? ``` A) Avoid Micronutrients B) Lose Weight C) Lower Your Intake of Macronutrients D) Maintain a Healthy Weight E) Avoid Dietary Fats ```

D) Maintain a Healthy Weight

This might help if a person undergoing cancer treatment develops a metallic taste in their mouth. ``` A) Cook with glassware B) Chew gum C) Brush teeth before eating D) All of the answers are correct E) Use plastic utensils ```

D) All of the answers are correct

These micronutrients are natural chemicals found in plant–based foods that provide nutrients for healing and repair. ``` A) Fats B) Proteins C) Carbohydrates D) Amino Acids E) Phytochemicals ```

E) Phytochemicals

This is a way for a cancer patient to add nutrients to their diet. ``` A) Intravenous Injections B) All of the answers are correct C) Dietary Supplements D) Liquid Meal Replacements E) Feeding Tube ```

B) All of the answers are correct

Bariatric surgery could alter this first part of the small intestine where much of the digestion of food takes place. ``` A) Ileum B) Ileocecal valve C) Jejunum D) Pancreatic duct E) Duodenum ```

E) Duodenum

This is the term used to describe rapid emptying of the stomach that is common in people who have undergone bariatric surgery. ``` A) Guillain–Barre syndrome B) Graves' disease C) Chronic diarrhea D) Dumping syndrome E) Diverticulosis ```

D) Dumping syndrome

Which of the following is a normal diet progression after bariatric surgery? A) Clear liquids followed by pureed foods and then soft foods B) Pureed foods followed by solid foods C) Clear liquids followed by finely chopped solid foods D) Clear liquids for the first few months, and then soft foods E) None of the answers are correct.

A) Clear liquids followed by pureed foods and then soft foods

Which of the following is recommended after bariatric surgery? ``` A) Drink liquids between meals, not with them B) Chew food thoroughly C) All of the answers are correct. D) Eat and drink slowly E) Eat small meals throughout the day ```

C) All of the answers are correct.

Bariatric surgery is effective at encouraging weight loss because it makes changes to this. ``` A) Your pancreas B) Your mindset C) Your kidneys D) Your liver E) Your digestive tract ```

E) Your digestive tract

This is the unintentional loss of fat and muscle in excess of 10% of your body weight. ``` A) Atkins Syndrome B) Bulimia Nervosa C) Anorexia D) Hypotonic Syndrome E) HIV Wasting Syndrome ```

E) HIV Wasting Syndrome

Which of the following provide the body with calories? ``` A) Fats B) Proteins C) Macronutrients D) Carbohydrates E) All of the answers are correct. ```

E) All of the answers are correct.

Why is it important for a patient with HIV or AIDS to eat a variety of foods that are high in vitamins and minerals? ``` A) They help with weight gain. B) They support the immune system. C) They boost essential blood fats. D) They provide a direct source of energy. E) They help with needed weight loss. ```

B) They support the immune system.

HIV is a virus that weakens your immune system by destroying these infection–fighting cells. ``` A) Prokaryotic Cells B) T Cells C) Stem Cells D) B Cells E) Antigens ```

B) T Cells

A) HIV is the virus that causes this disease. ``` A) Idiopathic Thrombocytopenic Purpura B) Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome C) Inherited Immunodeficiency Syndrome D) Autoimmune Hemolytic Anemia E) Acquired Immunoresistant Syndrome ```

B) Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome

Clinical Intervention and monitoring Flashcards

(93 cards)