Clinical Psych Flashcards

1
Q

Jung referred to the process of developing a unique and unified personality as:

A. differentiation.

B. self-actualization.

C. individuation.

D. introjection.

A

C. individuation

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2
Q

Which element of Seligman’s PERMA model of well-being is characterized by a state of flow?

A. engagement

B. meaning

C. accomplishment

D. relationships

A

A. engagement

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3
Q

For Gestalt therapists, __________ is a boundary disturbance that involves uncritically accepting the values, standards, and beliefs of other people.

A. projection

B. deflection

C. introjection

D. retroflection

A

C. introjection

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4
Q

Adler’s individual psychology is based on the assumption that neurotic behavior is attributable to which of the following?

A. an unresolved unconscious conflict

B. a boundary disturbance

C. a failure to satisfy innate needs

D. a mistaken style of life

A

D. a mistaken style of life

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5
Q

A practitioner of Freudian psychoanalysis is most likely to interpret the artistic endeavors of his client as a diversion of the client’s unacceptable aggressive urges and a manifestation of which of the following?

A. displacement

B. sublimation

C. projection

D. reaction formation

A

B. sublimation

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6
Q

As described by Carl Rogers, incongruence between self-concept and experience is caused by which of the following?

A. conditions of worth

B. a chronic boundary disturbance

C. “bad choices”

D. feelings of inferiority

A

A. conditions of worth

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7
Q

As described by Mahler, the beginning of object constancy follows which substage of separation-individuation?

A. displacement

B. differentiation

C. practicing

D. rapprochement

A

D. rapprochement

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8
Q

Practitioners of Glasser’s reality therapy view the primary motivator of behavior to be which of the following?

A. unconscious instinctual drives

B. basic needs

C. self-actualization

D. striving for superiority

A

Basic needs

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9
Q

A solution-focused therapist would most likely ask a client the “miracle question” to:

A. evaluate the client’s progress in therapy.

B. help the client identify treatment goals.

C. identify the client’s strengths and resources.

D. identify the causes of the client’s presenting problem.

A

B. help the client identify treatment goals.

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10
Q

Motivational interviewing incorporates concepts and procedures from which of the following?

A. Jung’s analytical psychotherapy

B. Adler’s individual psychology

C. Skinner’s operant conditioning

D. Rogers’s person-centered therapy

A

D. Rogers’s person-centered therapy

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11
Q

According to the transtheoretical model, factors that contribute to a person’s motivation to change an undesirable behavior include all of the following except:

A. self-efficacy.

B. temptation.

C. insight.

D. decisional balance.

A

C. insight

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12
Q

A 58-year-old man comes to therapy at the insistence of his wife who is threatening to leave him if he doesn’t stop drinking. The man says he’s been drinking alcohol since he was in his late 20s, has tried stopping when family members have asked him to, but doesn’t see why his drinking bothers other people so much. He says he doesn’t really want to stop and has only come to therapy to make his wife happy. According to Prochaska and DiClemente’s transtheoretical model, this man is in which stage of change?

A. denial

B. acceptance

C. precontemplation

D. contemplation

A

C. precontemplation

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13
Q

During her initial therapy session, a client with an alcohol use disorder tells her therapist that drinking helps her relax and makes it easier for her to talk to people. The therapist, a practitioner of motivational interviewing, will most likely view the client’s statement as:

A. change talk.

B. sustain talk.

C. discord.

D. introjection.

A

B. sustain talk

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14
Q

Which of the following is not one of the four problem areas that are targeted by practitioners of interpersonal psychotherapy when working with clients who are depressed?

A. grief

B. role disputes

C. intimacy

D. role transitions

A

C. intimacy

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15
Q

A family therapist describes a patient’s depression and anxiety as loneliness. The technique being used by this therapist is referred to as:

A. prescribing the symptom.

B. a therapeutic double-bind.

C. positioning.

D. reframing.

A

D. reframing

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16
Q

Yalom and Leszcz’s (2005) third formative stage of group therapy is characterized by which of the following?

A. hostility toward the therapist.

B. advice giving and seeking.

C. the development of group cohesion.

D. concerns and anxiety about termination.

A

C. the development of group cohesion.

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17
Q

As defined by Bowen, the intrapersonal aspect of differentiation refers to a person’s ability to separate:

A. needs from desires.

B. the past from the present.

C. thinking from feeling.

D. him/herself from others.

A

C. thinking from feeling

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18
Q

Emotionally focused therapy (EFT) was originally developed as an intervention for:

A. at-risk adolescents and their families.

B. individuals with bipolar disorder.

C. single parents.

D. distressed couples.

A

D. distressed couples

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19
Q

As described by cybernetic theory, a negative feedback loop:

A. helps a system maintain or restore a state of stability.

B. causes a disruption in a system’s status quo.

C. always produces disastrous consequences for the system.

D. is characterized by complementary communication patterns.

A

A. helps a system maintain or restore a state of stability.

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20
Q

Anna, age 21, has just received a diagnosis of bulimia nervosa. Her therapist is a practitioner of strategic family therapy and, to reduce Anna’s binge-eating, he tells her that, on each day that she binges, she must set her alarm for 4 a.m. and get up and do 30 minutes of abdominal exercises. This intervention is an example of which of the following?

A. prescribing the symptom

B. an ordeal

C. reframing

D. an enactment

A

B. an ordeal

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21
Q

For practitioners of narrative family therapy, a unique outcome is best described as:

A. the dominant narrative.

B. a positive connotation.

C. an enactment.

D. an exceptional circumstance.

A

D. an exceptional circumstance.

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22
Q

A primary goal of Satir’s conjoint family therapy is to:

A. foster congruent communication between family members.

B. increase the differentiation of each family member.

C. create clear boundaries between family members.

D. heighten and restructure the emotional experiences of family members.

A

A. foster congruent communication between family members.

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23
Q

Milan systemic family therapists use circular questions to help family members:

A. recognize differences in perceptions that may be contributing to family problems.

B. externalize the current problem so that it can be perceived more objectively.

C. identify times when the family problem was not present.

D. identify and reflect on internal (unconscious) causes of problematic behaviors.

A

A. recognize differences in perceptions that may be contributing to family problems.

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24
Q

Whenever the parents of 12-year-old Raymond argue, each parent tries to get Raymond to side with him or her. A structural family therapist would identify this as an example of which of the following?

A. stable coalition

B. detouring

C. unstable coalition

D. reframing

A

C. unstable coalition

25
Q

As described in Ellis’s A-B-C-D-E model, B represents:

A. behavioral and emotional reactions to an activating event.

B. barriers to rational thought.

C. belief perseverance.

D. beliefs about an activating event.

A

D. beliefs about an activating event.

26
Q

According to Beck, negative beliefs about oneself, the world, and the future are characteristic of:

A. depression.

B. psychosis.

C. hypochondriasis.

D. paranoia.

A

A. depression

27
Q

A 21-year-old therapy client says, “no matter what I do, I feel like I’m still unattractive, so I must be unattractive.” Her cognitive behavior therapist will most likely view the client’s statement as a manifestation of:

A. emotional reasoning.

B. arbitrary inference.

C. personalization.

D. overgeneralization.

A

A. emotional reasoning

28
Q

Which of the following is not one of the six processes addressed by acceptance and commitment therapy?

A. cognitive defusion

B. corrective detachment

C. experiential acceptance

D. committed action

A

B. corrective detachment

29
Q

Meichenbaum’s stress inoculation training consists of three phases, the first of which is:

A. commitment.

B. preparation.

C. conceptualization.

D. cognitive modeling.

A

C. conceptualization

30
Q

Dawn tends to jump to the conclusion that people she meets don’t like her even when there’s no evidence to support that conclusion. This is an example of which of the following cognitive distortions?

A. personalization

B. emotional reasoning

C. arbitrary inference

D. selective abstraction

A

C. arbitrary inference

31
Q

The primary goal of mindfulness-based cognitive therapy (MBCT) is best described as:

A. replacing the “being mode” with the “doing mode.”

B. strengthening the link between thoughts and emotions.

C. accepting and separating from distressful thoughts.

D. replacing maladaptive thoughts with more adaptive ones.

A

C. accepting and separating from distressful thoughts.

32
Q

Stanley and Brown’s (2012) safety planning intervention (SPI) includes all of the following except:

A. recognizing warning signs.

B. using internal coping strategies.

C. signing a no-harm contract.

D. using social contacts for distraction or support.

A

C. signing a no-harm contract

33
Q

Measures of treatment fidelity typically focus on which of the following?

A. reliability and validity

B. efficacy and effectiveness

C. therapist adherence and competence

D. therapist experience and consistency

A

C. therapist adherence and competence

34
Q

Based on the results of their meta-analysis of 475 psychotherapy outcome studies, Smith, Glass, and Miller (1980) concluded that the average psychotherapy patient is better off than ____% of patients who do not receive psychotherapy.

A. 90

B. 80

C. 72

D. 44

A

B. 80

35
Q

Shim et al.’s (2017) review of randomized control studies on digital mental health interventions for depression and anxiety found that the reported effects of adding professional guidance to the interventions were:

A. consistently insignificant for symptom reduction, client satisfaction, and dropout attrition.

B. consistently positive for symptom reduction, client satisfaction, and dropout attrition.

C. consistently positive for symptom reduction but inconsistent for client satisfaction and dropout attrition.

D. inconsistent for symptom reduction, client satisfaction, and dropout attrition.

A

D. inconsistent for symptom reduction, client satisfaction, and dropout attrition.

36
Q

Norcross and Lambert (2011) concluded that which of the following accounts for the greatest amount of variability in psychotherapy outcomes?

A. therapist characteristics

B. patient contributions

C. therapeutic relationship

D. treatment method

A

B. patient contributions

37
Q

Which of the following is true about efficacy and effectiveness research?

A. Efficacy research has better internal validity but poorer external validity than effectiveness research does.

B. Efficacy research has better external validity but poorer internal validity than effectiveness research does.

C. Efficacy research has better internal and external validity than effectiveness research does.

D. Efficacy research has poorer internal and external validity than effectiveness research does.

A

A. Efficacy research has better internal validity but poorer external validity than effectiveness research does.

38
Q

Research evaluating the effects of routine outcome monitoring (ROM) suggests that it:

A. decreases premature termination and client deterioration during therapy.

B. decreases premature termination but has little or no effect on client deterioration during therapy.

C. decreases client deterioration during therapy but has little or no effect on premature termination.

D. is no more effective than less frequent feedback for reducing premature termination and client deterioration during therapy.

A

A. decreases premature termination and client deterioration during therapy.

39
Q

Prescribing maintenance antidepressants to prevent relapse in individuals who have received a diagnosis of major depressive disorder and participated in cognitive-behavior therapy is an example of:

A. primary prevention.

B. secondary prevention.

C. tertiary prevention.

D. quaternary prevention.

A

C. tertiary prevention

40
Q

Hans Eysenck (1952) found that symptom improvements due to psychotherapy were less than improvements due to of which of the following?

A. positive expectations

B. “common effects”

C. the therapeutic alliance

D. spontaneous remission

A

D. spontaneous remission

41
Q

A consultant is providing consultee-centered case consultation and determines that theme interference is responsible for the consultee’s inability to work effectively with clients who have received a diagnosis of borderline personality disorder. Consequently, the consultant will focus primarily the consultee’s lack of:

A. confidence.

B. objectivity.

C. competence.

D. experience.

A

B. objectivity

42
Q

According to Howard et al.’s phase model (1996), symptomatic relief occurs during which of the following phases of psychotherapy?

A. rehabilitation

B. reintegrative

C. remediation

D. remoralization

A

C. remediation

43
Q

Transdiagnostic treatments are aimed at disorders that are:

A. included in the same DSM-5 diagnostic category.

B. known to respond best to a combination of psychosocial and pharmacological treatments.

C. caused and maintained by similar core mechanisms.

D. caused by similar cognitive schemas and maintained by similar cognitive distortions.

A

C. caused and maintained by similar core mechanisms.

44
Q

During a discussion on race, a White graduate student says to an African American student that she “doesn’t see color” and that “we’re all part of the human race.” As described by Sue et al. (2007), these comments are examples of which of the following?

A. microassault

B. microinvalidation

C. microinjustice

D. microinsult

A

B. microinvalidation

45
Q

Hall (1976) classified __________ styles as high- or low-context.

A. cognitive

B. communication

C. socioemotional

D. acculturation

A

B. communication

46
Q

According to Sue (2006), White middle-class Americans are most likely to have which of the following worldviews?

A. EC-IR

B. EC-ER

C. IC-ER

D. IC-IR

A

D. IC-IR

47
Q

Based on their review of the research, Sue, Zane, Nagayama Hall, and Berger (2009) concluded that culturally adapted interventions have:

A. equivalent benefits for adults and children.

B. somewhat greater benefits for adults than children.

C. somewhat greater benefits for children than adults.

D. little or no benefits for adults or children.

A

B. somewhat greater benefits for adults than children.

48
Q

Etic is to __________ as emic is to __________.

A. intrinsic; extrinsic

B. extrinsic; intrinsic

C. culture-specific; universal

D. universal; culture-specific

A

D. universal; culture-specific

49
Q

Peggy McIntosh (1998) listed the statement “I can easily buy posters, postcards, picture books, greeting cards, dolls, toys, and children’s magazines featuring people of my race” to illustrate which of the following?

A. internalized racism

B. colorism

C. White supremacy

D. White privilege

A

D. White privilege

50
Q

As described by Berry’s (1990) acculturation model, __________ occurs when members of a minority culture retain their own culture and reject the majority culture.

A. separation

B. marginalization

C. assimilation

D. integration

A

A. separation

51
Q

When working with African American therapy clients, it’s important to keep in mind that they are likely to prefer:

A. an insight-oriented, nondirective approach.

B. an egalitarian therapist-client relationship.

C. a therapist who adopts the role of knowledgeable expert.

D. a therapist who adopts the role of coach or mentor.

A

B. an egalitarian therapist-client relationship.

52
Q

When working with Asian and Asian American clients, it’s important to keep in mind that they are likely to:

A. prefer an insight-oriented, nondirective approach.

B. prefer an egalitarian therapist-client relationship.

C. express resistance by being silent and avoiding eye contact.

D. express emotional distress as physical symptoms.

A

D. express emotional distress as physical symptoms.

53
Q

People who are members of a minority group and are in the ________ stage of Atkinson, Morten, and Sue’s R/CID Model question the inflexibility of their positive attitudes toward their own minority group and negative attitudes toward the majority group.

A. dissonance

B. integrative awareness

C. disintegration

D. introspection

A

D. introspection

54
Q

Helm’s White Racial Identity Development Model proposes that each identity status is associated with a different information processing strategy. For example, the __________ status is associated with a strategy that involves selective perception and negative outgroup distortion.

A. disintegration

B. reintegration

C. pre-encounter

D. contact

A

B. reintegration

55
Q

Which of the following is not one of the five stages of Cross’s (1971) original Nigrescence Model of Identity Development?

A. pre-encounter

B. immersion-emersion

C. dissonance

D. internalization

A

C. dissonance

56
Q

Atkinson, Morten, and Sue’s R/CID Model predicts that African-American clients are most likely to prefer a White therapist and to be uninterested in exploring their cultural identity when they’re in which of the following stages?

A. pre-encounter

B. conformity

C. dissonance

D. disintegration

A

B. Conformity

57
Q

Like many other models of homosexual identity development, Troiden’s (1988) model proposes that the initial stage of development involves:

A. feeling different from same-sex peers.

B. feeling sexually attracted to members of the same sex.

C. denying one’s same-sex feelings.

D. realizing that one’s feelings can be described as “homosexual.”

A

A. feeling different from same-sex peers.

58
Q

A White therapist is likely to be most effective when working with clients from racial and cultural minority groups when she is in which of the following of Helms’s identity statuses?

A. integrative awareness

B. reintegration

C. autonomy

D. pseudo-independence

A

C. autonomy