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Psychopathology Flashcards

1
Q

The most effective intervention for children with childhood-onset fluency disorder is likely to be which of the following?

A. overcorrection

B. habit reversal training

C. stimulus control

D. stress inoculation training

A

B. Habit reversal training

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2
Q

To assign a DSM-5 diagnosis of Tourette’s disorder to a client, he/she must have which of the following?

A. at least one motor tic and one vocal tic.

B. at least one motor tic and multiple vocal tics.

C. multiple motor tics and at least one vocal tic.

D. multiple motor tics and multiple vocal tics.

A

C. multiple motor tics and at least one vocal tic.

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3
Q

When assigning a DSM-5 diagnosis of intellectual disability to a child, the level of severity of the disorder is determined by considering the child’s:

A. adaptive functioning.

B. socioemotional functioning.

C. full-scale IQ score.

D. adaptive functioning and full-scale IQ score.

A

A. adaptive functioning

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4
Q

The most common comorbid disorder for specific learning disorder is:

A. major depressive disorder.

B. ADHD.

C. social anxiety disorder.

D. oppositional defiant disorder.

A

B. ADHD

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5
Q

Neuroimaging studies have linked ADHD to a:

A. larger-than-normal entorhinal cortex.

B. smaller-than-normal entorhinal cortex.

C. larger-than-normal prefrontal cortex.

D. smaller-than-normal prefrontal cortex.

A

D. smaller-than-normal prefrontal cortex.

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6
Q

The DSM-5 diagnosis of ADHD requires an onset of symptoms before ____ years of age.

A. 7

B. 9

C. 12

D. 15

A

C. 12

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7
Q

Which of the following is most associated with a better prognosis for autism spectrum disorder?

A. an IQ over 55

B. a sudden onset of symptoms

C. functional language skills by age five

D. brief duration of active-phase symptoms

A

C. functional language skills by age five

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8
Q

As reported by I. I. Gottesman (1991), the concordance rate for schizophrenia is about ___% for monozygotic twins and ____% for dizygotic twins.

A. 50; 30

B. 50; 25

C. 48; 24

D. 48; 17

A

D. 48; 17

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9
Q

Schizoaffective disorder is likely to be the appropriate diagnosis for a client if her psychotic symptoms have:

A. always occurred with concurrent mood symptoms.

B. occurred concurrently with mood symptoms except for a period of at least two weeks when her psychotic symptoms were absent.

C. occurred concurrently with mood symptoms except for a period of at least two weeks when her mood symptoms were absent.

D. occurred concurrently with mood symptoms except for a period of at least one month when her mood symptoms were absent.

A

C. occurred concurrently with mood symptoms except for a period of at least two weeks when her mood symptoms were absent.

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10
Q

A poor prognosis for people with schizophrenia is least associated with which of the following?

A. female gender

B. anosognosia

C. early age of onset

D. predominantly negative symptoms

A

A. female gender

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11
Q

A person whose biological mother and father have both received a diagnosis of schizophrenia is about _____ times more likely to receive the same diagnosis as a person whose only biological relative with schizophrenia is his or her non-twin sibling.

A. 50

B. 16

C. 5

D. 2

A

C. 5

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12
Q

A high level of expressed emotion by family members toward patients with schizophrenia has been linked to:

A. caregiver burnout.

B. substance use by the patient.

C. a better prognosis.

D. an increased risk for relapse.

A

D. an increased risk of relapse

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13
Q

The most likely diagnosis for a client who had auditory hallucinations and disorganized speech for five weeks and odd behaviors and anhedonia for an additional seven months is:

A. major depressive disorder with psychotic features.

B. schizophreniform disorder.

C. schizoaffective disorder.

D. schizophrenia.

A

D. schizophrenia

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14
Q

A person who abuses an amphetamine or other ________-enhancing drug may develop symptoms similar to those associated with schizophrenia.

A. ACh

B. dopamine

C. serotonin

D. GABA

A

B. dopamine

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15
Q

Which of the following best describes the likely effects of electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) on memory when it is used as a treatment for severe depression?

A. Anterograde amnesia caused by ECT will be more persistent than retrograde amnesia.

B. Retrograde amnesia caused by ECT will be more persistent than anterograde amnesia.

C. ECT will produce transient anterograde amnesia but will not cause retrograde amnesia.

D. ECT will produce transient retrograde amnesia but will not cause anterograde amnesia.

A

B. Retrograde amnesia caused by ECT will be more persistent than anterograde amnesia.

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16
Q

Data from the National Survey on Drug Use and Health (NSDUH) indicate that which of the following age groups most often had the highest rates of depression from 2009 to 2017?

A. 12 to 17

B. 18 to 25

C. 26 to 49

D. 50+

A

A. 12 to 17

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17
Q

Barton, a 20-year-old college sophomore, has come to therapy at the urging of his parents who are concerned about recent changes in his behavior. Barton tells you that, in the last six months, he’s experienced several periods in which he feels tired all the time despite sleeping more than usual, has trouble concentrating while reading for his classes and studying for exams, has low energy, and has no appetite. He says that each of the times he’s felt this way lasted for two or three weeks. The presence of which of the following will confirm a diagnosis of major depressive disorder for Barton?

A. recurrent suicidal ideation with a specific plan

B. a loss of interest or pleasure in most activities

C. feelings of guilt about past failures

D. slowed speech and thinking

A

B. a loss of interest or pleasure in most activities

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18
Q

Ketamine has been found most useful for treating:

A. manic episodes.

B. atypical depression.

C. major depressive disorder with seasonal pattern.

D. treatment-resistant depression.

A

D. treatment-resistant depression.

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19
Q

Research has found that the experience of depression is associated with:

A. hyperactivity in the ventromedial prefrontal cortex and dorsolateral prefrontal cortex.

B. hyperactivity in the ventromedial prefrontal cortex and hypoactivity in the dorsolateral prefrontal cortex.

C. hypoactivity in the ventromedial prefrontal cortex and hyperactivity in the dorsolateral prefrontal cortex.

D. hypoactivity in the ventromedial prefrontal cortex and dorsolateral prefrontal cortex.

A

B. hyperactivity in the ventromedial prefrontal cortex and hypoactivity in the dorsolateral prefrontal cortex.

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20
Q

A higher-than-normal level of melatonin has been linked to which of the following?

A. bipolar I disorder

B. bipolar II disorder

C. major depressive disorder with seasonal pattern

D. major depressive disorder with peripartum onset

A

C. major depressive disorder with seasonal pattern

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21
Q

Which of the following is least likely to be prescribed as a treatment for bipolar I disorder?

A. lithium

B. donepezil

C. risperidone

D. valproate

A

B. donepezil

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22
Q

Peter Lewinsohn’s model of depression is based on the principles of:

A. operant conditioning.

B. classical conditioning.

C. systems theory.

D. psychodynamic theory.

A

A. operant conditioning

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23
Q

Your new client, a 29-year-old physician’s assistant, describes experiencing alternating periods of hypomania that do not meet the criteria for a hypomanic episode and periods of depression that do not meet the criteria for a major depressive episode. To assign the diagnosis of cyclothymia, the client must have experienced these symptoms for at least:

A. 6 months.

B. 1 year.

C. 18 months.

D. 2 years.

A

D. 2 yrs

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24
Q

As described in the DSM-5, the symptoms of a panic attack include all of the following except:

A. exaggerated startle reaction.

B. heart palpitations or an accelerated heart rate.

C. derealization or depersonalization.

D. fear of losing control.

A

A. exaggerated startle response

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25
Q

The DSM-5 diagnosis of agoraphobia requires:

A. a duration of symptoms for at least 12 months.

B. a history of at least one expected or unexpected panic attack.

C. marked fear or anxiety in at least two different situations.

D. a fear of being negatively evaluated.

A

C. marked fear or anxiety in at least two different situations.

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26
Q

The treatment-of-choice for obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is which of the following?

A. systematic desensitization

B. exposure and applied relaxation

C. exposure and response prevention

D. covert desensitization

A

C. exposure and response prevention

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27
Q

Bill has just received a diagnosis of specific phobia, blood-injection-injury type. The most effective treatment for Bill is likely to be exposure and response prevention and:

A. a beta-blocker.

B. an anxiolytic.

C. applied relaxation.

D. applied tension.

A

D. applied tension

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28
Q

Which of the following would be most helpful for confirming that the correct DSM-5 diagnosis for a client is agoraphobia?

A. The client’s anxiety occurs in situations that remind him of the traumatic event that preceded the onset of his symptoms.

B. The client’s anxiety occurs only in unfamiliar situations or with unfamiliar people.

C. The client’s anxiety is related to a fear of being negatively evaluated by others.

D. The client’s anxiety is related to a fear of being unable to get help if he develops panic-like symptoms.

A

D. The client’s anxiety is related to a fear of being unable to get help if he develops panic-like symptoms.

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29
Q

A DSM-5 diagnosis of separation anxiety requires a duration of symptoms of at least __________ for children and adolescents and __________ for adults.

A. 2 weeks; one month

B. 4 weeks; three months

C. 4 weeks; six months

D. 6 weeks; four months

A

C. 4 weeks; six months

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30
Q

Interoceptive exposure involves:

A. exposing the individual to bodily sensations associated with a panic attack.

B. exposing the individual in virtual reality to stimuli that elicit a panic attack.

C. having the individual use applied relaxation during exposure to stimuli that elicit a panic attack.

D. having the individual use applied tension during exposure to stimuli that elicit a panic attack.

A

A. exposing the individual to bodily sensations associated with a panic attack.

31
Q

The most common comorbid psychiatric disorder for obsessive-compulsive disorder is:

A. a depressive or bipolar disorder.

B. an anxiety disorder.

C. a substance use disorder.

D. an impulse control disorder.

A

B. an anxiety disorder

32
Q

Which of the following is likely to be the least effective treatment for an adult with posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD)?

A. cognitive behavioral therapy

B. psychological debriefing

C. cognitive processing therapy

D. prolonged exposure therapy

A

B. psychological debriefing

33
Q

A six-year-old child of divorced parents experiences abdominal pain, vomiting, and diarrhea whenever she stays with her mother but has no symptoms when she stays with her father or other relative. This situation is most suggestive of:

A. conversion disorder.

B. malingering.

C. factitious disorder.

D. somatic symptom disorder.

A

C. factitious disorder

34
Q

The intentional production of physical or psychological symptoms for the purpose of obtaining an external reward is suggestive of which of the following?

A. factitious disorder

B. malingering

C. malingering and factitious disorder

D. factitious disorder and conversion disorder

A

B. malingering

35
Q

A DSM-5 diagnosis of somatic symptom disorder requires the presence of one or more somatic symptoms that are:

A. accompanied by excessive thoughts, feelings, or behaviors related to the symptoms.

B. being intentionally produced, faked, or exaggerated in terms of severity.

C. related to exposure to a traumatic event.

D. incompatible with any known medical condition.

A

A. accompanied by excessive thoughts, feelings, or behaviors related to the symptoms.

36
Q

Neuroimaging studies have linked PTSD to:

A. decreased activity in the ventromedial prefrontal cortex and amygdala

B. increased activity in the ventromedial prefrontal cortex and amygdala

C. decreased activity in the ventromedial prefrontal cortex and increased activity in the amygdala

D. increased activity in the ventromedial prefrontal cortex and decreased activity in the amygdala.

A

C. decreased activity in the ventromedial prefrontal cortex and increased activity in the amygdala

37
Q

To assign a DSM-5 diagnosis of posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD), symptoms must have a duration of more than:

A. seven days for adults and adolescents and 14 days for children.

B. 14 days for adults, adolescents, and children.

C. one month for adults and adolescents and two months for children.

D. one month for adults, adolescents, and children.

A

D. one month for adults, adolescents, and children.

38
Q

Five-year-old Debbie is brought to therapy by her foster parents who say that, even though she’s been living with them for over three years, she hasn’t formed an attachment to either of them. The foster parents tell you that Debbie doesn’t seek comfort from them when she’s distressed, doesn’t respond to interactions with people with happiness or enjoyment, and often becomes fearful or irritable when interacting with people for no apparent reason. To confirm a DSM-5 diagnosis of reactive attachment disorder for Debbie, you would want to confirm that her symptoms:

A. are related to pre-, peri-, or postnatal complications.

B. are related to extreme insufficient care.

C. began before age 5 and that Debbie has a developmental age of at least 12 months.

D. began before age 7 and that Debbie has a developmental age of at least nine months.

A

B. are related to extreme insufficient care.

39
Q

A person with __________ personality disorder is most likely to say she’d like to have friends but doesn’t spend time with people because she thinks she’s “not as good as other people” and fears that they’ll criticize and reject her.

A. avoidant

B. schizoid

C. borderline

D. histrionic

A

A. avoidant

40
Q

Which of the following is the most likely DSM-5 diagnosis when a young man says he prefers being alone, doesn’t have any close friends, isn’t bothered by the negative things his co-workers sometimes say about him, and thinks he’s “pretty stable” because he rarely experiences strong positive or negative feelings when he’s around other people?

A. schizoid

B. schizotypal

C. paranoid

D. avoidant

A

A. schizoid

41
Q

Which of the following best describes obsessive-compulsive personality disorder and obsessive-compulsive disorder?

A. Both disorders involve obsessions and compulsions, but they’re more pervasive in obsessive-compulsive disorder.

B. Both disorders involve obsessions and compulsions, but they’re of a longer duration in obsessive-compulsive personality disorder.

C. Only obsessive-compulsive personality disorder involves mood-incongruent obsessions.

D. Only obsessive-compulsive disorder involves true obsessions and compulsions.

A

D. Only obsessive-compulsive disorder involves true obsessions and compulsions.

42
Q

Emotion dysregulation has been identified by Linehan (1993) as a cause of which of the following personality disorders?

A. histrionic

B. borderline

C. antisocial

D. dependent

A

B. borderline

43
Q

The DSM-5 diagnosis of antisocial personality disorder cannot be assigned to a person who is less than _____ years of age.

A. 12

B. 15

C. 18

D. 21

A

C. 18

44
Q

The DSM-5 requires the presence of which of the following for a diagnosis of delirium?

A. disorientation to time and place

B. impaired attention and awareness

C. a perceptual disturbance

D. impaired memory

A

B. impaired attention and awareness

45
Q

Which of the following is not one of the DSM-5 diagnostic criteria for the behavioral variant of frontotemporal neurocognitive disorder?

A. dietary changes

B. loss of empathy

C. ataxia

D. apathy

A

C. ataxia

46
Q

Identifying the temporal sequence of the onset of motor and cognitive symptoms is most useful for distinguishing between NCD due to Parkinson’s disease and:

A. NCD due to HIV infection.

B. NCD with Lewy bodies.

C. NCD due to prion disease.

D. vascular NCD.

A

B. NCD with Lewy bodies

47
Q

Early memory loss associated with NCD due to Alzheimer’s disease has been linked to lower-than-normal levels of which of the following in the hippocampus, cortex, and basal forebrain?

A. epinephrine

B. norepinephrine

C. GABA

D. ACh

A

D. Ach

48
Q

Beth, a 68-year-old retired physician exhibits impaired attention and judgment, seems disoriented, and has short-term memory loss that she doesn’t seem to be aware of. Her husband tells you that she “just hasn’t seemed the same” for the past year or so and that the changes he’s noticed have occurred gradually. Beth’s symptoms are most suggestive of which of the following?

A. major depressive disorder (pseudodementia)

B. persistent depressive disorder

C. neurocognitive disorder due to Alzheimer’s disease

D. neurocognitive disorder due to Prion’s disease

A

C. neurocognitive disorder due to Alzheimer’s disease

49
Q

Neurocognitive disorders that are due to prion disease most often have a:

A. very rapid progression of impairment.

B. gradual and steady progression of impairment.

C. stepwise progression of impairment.

D. fluctuating course with plateaus of impairment.

A

A. very rapid progression of impairment.

50
Q

The DSM-5 describes the pathological behaviors associated with substance use disorders as representing four categories. Which of the following is not one of these categories?

A. impaired control

B. cognitive impairment

C. risky use

D. social impairment

A

B. cognitive impairment

51
Q

Practitioners of which of the following interventions work with a family member of a person with a substance use disorder because the person with the disorder refuses to enter treatment?

A. CRA

B. CRAFT

C. VBRT

D. FFT

A

B. CRAFT

52
Q

A cigarette smoker decides to quit “cold turkey.” Her withdrawal symptoms will most likely include which of the following?

A. autonomic hyperactivity, psychomotor agitation, and insomnia

B. lower blood pressure, cardiac arrhythmias, and confusion

C. irritability, impaired concentration, and insomnia

D. insomnia or hypersomnia, increased appetite, and psychomotor retardation

A

C. irritability, impaired concentration, and insomnia

53
Q

Symptoms of opioid withdrawal include which of the following?

A. nausea or vomiting, diarrhea, and fever

B. autonomic hyperactivity, hand tremor, and anxiety

C. irritability, impaired concentration, and increased appetite

D. pupillary dilation, nausea or vomiting, and weight loss

A

A. nausea or vomiting, diarrhea, and fever

54
Q

The amnestic-confabulatory type of alcohol-induced major neurocognitive disorder has been linked to a:

A. higher-than-normal cortisol level.

B. niacin deficiency.

C. blood dyscrasia.

D. thiamine deficiency.

A

D. thiamine deficiency

55
Q

As described by Marlatt & Gordon (1985), lapses following a period of abstinence are precipitated by which of the following?

A. high-risk situations

B. chronic stress

C. denial

D. lack of impulse control

A

A. high-risk situations

56
Q

According to Moffitt (1993), which of the following explains the adolescence-limited type of antisocial behavior?

A. a maturity gap

B. developmental delays

C. an adverse child-rearing environment

D. adolescent egocentrism

A

A. a maturity gap

57
Q

Which of the following therapies is based on Bronfenbrenner’s ecological model and is for adolescents 12 to 18 years of age who are at imminent risk for out-of-home placement due to antisocial behaviors, substance use problems, and/or serious psychiatric problems?

A. multidimensional family therapy

B. multisystemic therapy

C. parent-child interaction therapy

D. functional family therapy

A

B. multisystemic therapy

58
Q

Your new client’s aggressive behaviors seem to meet the diagnostic criteria for intermittent explosive disorder. To assign this diagnosis to the client, he must be at least _____ years old.

A. four

B. six

C. nine

D. twelve

A

B. six

59
Q

The symptoms of oppositional defiant disorder are grouped in DSM-5 into three categories that include all of the following except:

A. argumentative/defiant behavior.

B. vindictiveness.

C. deceitfulness/dishonesty.

D. angry/irritable mood.

A

C. deceitfulness/dishonesty.

60
Q

When assigning a DSM-5 diagnosis of conduct disorder, severity is determined by considering which of the following?

A. number of conduct problems

B. number of conduct problems and severity of harm to others

C. degree of guilt and empathy

D. number of conduct problems and degree of guilt and empathy

A

B. number of conduct problems and severity of harm to others

61
Q

The DSM-5 diagnosis of conduct disorder requires the presence of at least three characteristic symptoms during the last _____ months and at least one symptom in the last _____ months.

A. 6; 3

B. 12; 3

C. 12; 6

D. 18; 6

A

C. 12; 6

62
Q

A pattern of emotional dysregulation is characteristic of:

A. oppositional defiant disorder and conduct disorder.

B. oppositional defiant disorder.

C. conduct disorder.

D. neither oppositional defiant disorder nor conduct disorder.

A

B. oppositional defiant disorder

63
Q

The development of sensate focus by Masters and Johnson (1970) was based on their assumption that most sexual problems are related to:

A. performance anxiety.

B. communication deficits.

C. dissatisfaction with sexual partners.

D. exposure to sexual trauma.

A

A. performance anxiety

64
Q

To assign a DSM-5 diagnosis of pedophilic disorder to a client, the client must be at least _____ years old.

A. 20

B. 18

C. 16

D. 14

A

C. 16

65
Q

Which of the following is most likely to be an effective pharmacological treatment for premature ejaculation?

A. an MAOI

B. an SSRI

C. a beta-blocker

D. an anti-seizure medication

A

B. an SSRI

66
Q

A young man who has just received a diagnosis of frotteuristic disorder is sexually aroused when he fantasizes about:

A. dressing in woman’s clothing.

B. rubbing up against a nonconsenting person.

C. a non-genital body part.

D. watching other people having sex.

A

B. rubbing up against a nonconsenting person.

67
Q

The treatment for a young man who has just received a diagnosis of a paraphilic disorder is most likely to include which of the following?

A. overcorrection and habit reversal training

B. habit reversal training and covert sensitization

C. orgasmic reconditioning and systematic desensitization

D. covert sensitization and orgasmic reconditioning

A

D. covert sensitization and orgasmic reconditioning

68
Q

For a DSM-5 diagnosis of bulimia nervosa, a person must exhibit characteristic symptoms for at least:

A. three weeks.

B. three months.

C. six weeks.

D. six months.

A

B. three months

69
Q

Sleepwalking and sleep terrors usually occur:

A. during Stage 1 or 2 sleep in the middle of a major sleep period.

B. during Stage 3 or 4 sleep in the first third of a major sleep period.

C. during REM sleep in the middle of a major sleep period.

D. during REM sleep in the first third of a major sleep period.

A

B. during Stage 3 or 4 sleep in the first third of a major sleep period.

70
Q

Hypnopompic hallucinations are vivid dreams that occur:

A. immediately before an episode of REM sleep.

B. immediately after an episode of REM sleep.

C. just after awakening from sleep.

D. just before falling asleep.

A

C. just after awakening from sleep.

71
Q

When the retrospective subjective reports of people with insomnia disorder about their sleep are compared to objective measures, the subjective reports tend to:

A. underestimate their sleep latency and overestimate total time they sleep each night.

B. underestimate their sleep latency and total time they sleep each night.

C. overestimate their sleep latency and underestimate total time they sleep each night.

D. overestimate their sleep latency and total time they sleep each night.

A

C. overestimate their sleep latency and underestimate total time they sleep each night.

72
Q

The presence of which of the following is required for a DSM-5 diagnosis of anorexia nervosa?

A. an apparent lack of interest in eating and food

B. recurrent episodes of binge-eating and purging

C. an intense fear of gaining weight or becoming fat

D. extreme sensitivity to the sensory characteristics of food

A

C. an intense fear of gaining weight or becoming fat

73
Q

People with binge-eating disorder (BED):

A. are more likely to engage in dieting after (versus before) they engage in binge eating.

B. engage in recurrent inappropriate compensatory behavior only when they are overweight or obese.

C. are less likely than those with bulimia nervosa to have a comorbid psychiatric disorder.

D. have a poor response to treatment that is similar to the response of individuals with bulimia nervosa.

A

A. are more likely to engage in dieting after (versus before) they engage in binge eating.

My Qs (9 decks)

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