Clinical sciences round 2 Flashcards

(200 cards)

1
Q

Key electrolyte abnormality in ethylene glycol poisoning

A

HypoCa
[Will also have a metabolic acidosis]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Methanol vs ethylene glycol - what is the toxic acid formed

A

Methanol - formic acid
Ethylene glycol - oxalic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which Ig activates complement via classical pathway? Alternate?

A

Classical - IgM, IgG

Alternate - IgA does Alternate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Isolated bilirubinaemia and doesn’t appear in urine. Not given un/conjugated levels. Dx?

A

Gilberts

[Congugated Eg rotor and Dubin-johnson have conjugated -> appears in urine]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Where does bilirubin get congugated? By what? Inheritence? basic pathology of Gilbers vs Criggler Nijjar vs Dubin vs rotor

A

Liver
Uridine Glucuronyl transferase - UGT
[The whole name is longer. ]
All R Resessive

Gilberts - immature UGT so get increased unconjugated bilirubin after stress Eg flu / hiking
G=good

Criggler - Absent UGT
C= cancelled UGT

Dubin - Cant excrete the conjugated bilirubin. Builds up in liver = Dark liver
D-Dark liver

Rotor - mild form of Dubin = conjugated bilirubinaemia but some excreted so don’t get the dark liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Why do you encapsulate stem cells used for various therapies

A

Prevent autoimmune attack

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Why do you encapsulate stem cells used for various therapies

A

Prevent autoimmune attack

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Winging of the scapular. Which nerve is affected?

A

Long thoracic nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

How does botulism toxin work?

A

Prevents release of Ach at the neuromuscular junction
[Produced from Type A neurotoxin]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Phase 3 of action potential has closure of what channels

A

Calcium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Classes of antiarrhythmic

A

Some Block Potassium Channels

Sodium channel blockers (class I)
- Procainamide, Lidocaine, flecanide

Beta-blockers (class II)

Potassium channel blockers (class III)
-Amiodarone, sotalol

Calcium channel blockers (class IV)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which B blockers also block A adreoreceptors

A

Carvedilol (-ilol)

Labetalol (-alol)

[They don’t end in -olol]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what % white people carry CFTR gene? What chromosome

A

5%
Chromosome 7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Precursor to cortisol

A

11-deoxycortisol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Anti-b2 glycoprotein found in

A

Antiphospholipid syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Dehydrated with hypoNa and high urinary Na =

A

Adrenal failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

How much pred matches a 75kg persons normal glucocorticoid production daily

A

7.5mg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Congenital long QT is defect in which channel? 1 line rx for prevention of recurrence of Tachyarrythmias

A

Potassium

B blockers - reduce VT recurrence by 70%
-May need ICD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Endothelin primarily does what in kidney?
Effect on RASS?

A vs B?

A

Afferent vasoconstriction
Stimulates RASS

A- constriction
B - NO mediated vasodilation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

On BB, ACEi, thiazide and has low K. What’s the most likely cause of hypoK

A

Thiazide diuretic

[Conns is actually very rare]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

most common assoc of anti-Ro

A

Sjorgren
Anti Ro and La

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What stimulates ANP? What does it do?

A

Responds to increased blood volume
-Atrial stretch stimulates

-> Dilates afferent, constricts efferent
-> increases GFR + salt and water excretion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Males vs females measuring plasma concentrations of drug 2hrs after ingestion test?

A

Log regression analysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Blood results in osteomalacia?

A

Low Ca -> high PTH -> Low PO4
Raised ALP
Low Vit D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Why do you get Na and water retention in an overloaded cirrhotic patient (ascites / effusions....)
Arterial underfilling. Due to: -Arterial vasodilation secondary to NO -Low albumin and oncotic pressure
25
What is nominal data
Categorical with no indication of order Eg Hot / cold
26
How many genes do we have
20,000
27
C peptide in insulin vs gliclazide abuse
Insulin - Low Gliclazide - high
28
AST/ALT when do you start to think its alcohol-related?
AST : ALT ratio >2
29
Can you do a crossover trial with a dmard
no because it permanently alters the disease process
30
T1DM is islet cell antibodies. What else is seen in accelerated B cell failure
Anti-ZnT8
31
Starts COCP -> Weakness in legs, vomiting, abdo pain. Why?
Acute intermittent porphyria dominant inheritance [oestrogen is a trigger]
32
Compare binary outcomes between groups
Chi 2
33
highest resolution of 3D structure of a protein? How the protein changes over time?
x-ray crystallography Dual polarisation interferometry for how it changes over time
34
Given data on mean change (in Eg weight) for 2 groups. What test?
Independent samples t-test
35
test to work out if an increased number of infections results in earlier graft failure
Spearman's correlation Takes the number of infections and then ranks people in order of time to graft failure...
36
Why do you not get renal disease in Waldenstrom's macroglobulinaemia
Isolated IgM No light chains = no renal disease As only IgM tends to present with sx of hyperviscosity
37
What do prostaglandins bind to? How are they affected by COX?
G coupled receptors COX stimulates synthesis ->Aspirin/NSAIDs inhibit
38
Which diuretic can be used for Rx of metabolic alkalosis
Acetazolomide
39
What is the most important analysis of efficacy
Intention to treat
40
why do old people have a wider pulse pressure
Decreased aortic compliance
41
Which class of diuretics on sodium-chloride symporter Which on Sodium-chloride-potassium
Thiazide Loop
42
Central scotoma = lesion where
optic nerve Often due to HTN / MS
43
Which 2 things in overdose classically cause a respiratory alkalosis at first?
Salicylates Theophyline
44
SLE classic inflam markers in active disease
++ raised ESR only modest rise in CRP Lymphopenia Mild thrombocytopenia
45
How much of the livers blood flow is from the portal vein? What is its pressure? Pressure for portal HTN?
75% 5-8mmHg >12
46
Signet ring cells seen in?
Gastric adenocarcinoma [poor prognosis]
47
Loss of sensation of lateral dorsum of foot. Plantar of foot. Loss of plantar flexion / Ankle eversion nerve root?
S1
48
Loss of power of hallux extension
L1
49
L1-S2 dermatomes
L1: the inguinal region and the very top of the medial thigh. L2: the middle and lateral aspect of the anterior thigh. L3: the medial epicondyle of the femur. L4: the medial malleolus. L5: the dorsum of the foot at the third metatarsophalangeal joint. S1: the lateral aspect of the calcaneus.
50
Myotomes C4-8
C4: shoulder shrugs C5: shoulder abduction and external rotation; elbow flexion C6: elbow flexion C7: elbow extension and wrist flexion C8: thumb extension and finger flexion
51
Myotome T1
T1: finger abduction
52
Myotomes L1-5
L1/2: hip flexion L3: knee extension L4: ankle dorsiflexion L5: big toe extension
53
Myotomes S1/S4
S1: ankle plantarflexion S4: bladder and rectum motor supply
54
Where is the Golgi apparatus found?
Adjacent to the endoplasmic reticulum
55
3 thigs making up wiskott-aldrich syndrome
Immunodeficiency, eczema and thrombocytopenia
56
What stimulates growth hormone
Exercise Hypoglycaemia Stress- emotion, fever, illness
57
Adaptive immunity to EBV is from...
T lymphocytes
58
How to diagnose orthostatic proteinuria? Why is it useful to do so
Urine sample for protein when the patient has been lying flat for a period Eg straight from bed Benign condition that does not need investigated
59
Anaesthesia -> anaphylaxis. What's the likely culprit
Paralysis agent in 70%
60
Familial hypercholesterolaemia is due to mutations in the gene coding for?
LDL receptor
61
Posterior gastric ulcer erodes into which artery?
Splenic
62
2 things leptin does
Stimulates hypothalamus to tell you -You are full -Stimulates GnRh
63
What is an azygous lobe? Where would you see it? What causes it to form?
-normal variant found in 0.5% -Extra bit in RUL -'reverse comma sign behind medial right clavicle on cxr' Formed due to failure of the posterior cardinal vein fails to migrate over the apex
64
What is the early asthma response and which cells? How long does it last?
Exposure to antigen -> mast cell degranulation [FceRI reeptors] in response to IgE already produced by B cells -> Bronchconstriction peaking at 20 minutes and lasts for 1-2hours
65
key cells in late stage of asthma and what happens?
Occurs after 3-5 hours and lasts for 6-8 hours Attraction of phagocytes Eosinophils attracted (IL-13) by lymphocytes
66
CLL is a disorder of....
B lymphocytes
67
What is a nominal variable
Categories that have no obvious order Eg Sex / Ethnicity
68
What is an ordinal variable
Ordered categories Eg how satisfied were you a) not at all b) somewhat c) Very
69
Macrophages Recognise a couple fixed and the 2 'wandering'
Fixed -Kupfer -Microglial -Mesangial -Osteoclasts Wandering -Macrophages of the serosal cavities (Pleura, pericardium, peritoneum) -Alveolar macrophages
70
ARR of 11%. What is the NNT
10 1/0.11 = 9.09 but you always round up to the next whole number in NNT calculations
71
What enzyme causes gouty tophi formation
Xanthine oxidase
72
25% chance of carrying the disease. If 12 people picked from the population how would you describe the distribution
Binomial with n =12, p = 0.25 Binomial is the number of times an event can occur with fixed number of opportunities
73
Bar ACEi and ARBs which are other med causes angioedema
Moxonidine (centrally acting antihypertensive)
74
what are the main acid-base buffers in the blood
Bicarbonate - carbonic acid Haemoglobin Phosphate Proteins in blood
75
What synthesises phosphodiester bonds
DNA ligase
76
40s difficulty climbing stairs and struggling with eating. Heritability with only men affected
Kennedy disease X-linked spinobulbar neuronopathy
77
What is no longer recommended for anaphylaxis
Hydrocortisone
78
Most important Management for biphasic allergic reactions
Minimum 6 hours observation
79
When is T test paired or not
Unpaired - comparing means between 2 independent groups Eg in an RTC Paired - Compares means in dependent groups
80
Compare means in 2 unrelated groups
Unpaired Ttest
81
C1q deficiency leads to
SLE
82
IVDU which cryoglobulinaemia do they have?
HepC Type 2
83
Defects in Fibrilin, collagen III, IV and V cause?
Fibrilin - Marfans III - Vascular Ehlers-danlos IV - alports V - classical Ehlers-danlos
84
Where is glucagon produced, what does it do?
Pancreatic alpha cells -> Gluconeogenesis, glycogenolysis
85
VWD is what inheritance? What is the chances of offspring having the disease if both patients affected?
AD 75%
86
Albumin levels measured on admission and after 3 weeks hospital stay. What test?
Paired T test
87
Macular has rods or cones? What is central part called?
Cones Fovea centralis
88
How to calculate clearance of a drug when given plasma / urine concentrations and urine produced
(UxV)/p U = Urine concentration in Mg/ml V = Volume of urine produced Ml/Minute P = Plasma concentration in mg/ml
89
Given 220mg of drug, then measured Plasma conc = 15mg/L urine conc = 150mg/L Made 1440mls urine in a day What is clearance
(UxV)/p Uine conc= 150mg/L = 0.15mg/ml Volume urine / min = 1ml/min Plasma conc = 15mg/L = 0.015 mg/ml = (0.15x1)/0.015 = 10ml/min
90
Why is insulin resistance a pro coagulable state
Get increased levels of plasminogen activator inhibitor -1 (PAI-1) Which is pro coagulable
91
22 year old with recurrent chest infections and raised glucose has?
Cystic fibrosis
92
Iron overdose Rx
IV desferrioxamine
93
Mycophenolate works how
Blocks purine synthesis Inhibits inosine monophosphate dehydrogenase
94
Sirolimus works how?
Inhibits IL-2 via action on mTOR
95
Differentiate HNPCC FAP Gardener Cowden Peutz-jeghur
HNPCC - multiple fam members get colorectal Ca FAP - 100s-1000s polyps Gardener - Colorectal ca but also Dental abnormalities, osteomas of skull, epidermoid cysts Cowden - Multiple harmatous polyps Peutz-jeghur - Multiple harmatous polyps and peri-oral pigmentation
96
Why do old people get heatstroke so much
Decreased ability to sweat
97
How do you work out post-test odds
Pre-test odds x positive likelihood ratio
98
Wilsons gene/chromosome what does it mean?
ATP7B, chromosome 13 Recessive Impaired biliary excretion of copper
99
Prominent V waves =
Tricuspid regurg
100
Pulm regurg auscultation
Early diastolic murmur
101
Define types of mutation Miss sense Non Sense Insertion Frame shift
Miss sense - converts a codon for one protein into a codon for another Non sense - Alteration in neucletide sequence that changes a triplet to a termination codon Insertion - Inserts 1 or more nucleotides Frame shift - Group of nucleotides (more than 3)
102
Inferior alveolar nerve supplies? What is it from?
mandibular branch of trigeminal -> Sensation to lower lip and teeth
103
What is pseudodominant inheritance
Very high carrier rates of Ressessive conditions -> almost appears dominant Eg hemochromatosis in northern europue
104
New study comparing angioplasty to surgical Rx of angina. What is most useful when comparing to other studies ?
Intention to treat analysis
105
What are the class II HLAs
DR DQ DP
106
Oxygen dissociation curve. What does shift to Left / right mean? which way does acidosis / alkalosis Rise in temp Rise in co2 Rise in HCO3 Rise in 2,3-DPG
Shift left - Impairs oxygen delivery to tissues (increased affinity) -Increased pH, Rise in HCO3 Shift Right - Increased oxygen delivery to tissues [right thing to do] -Acidosis, rise in temp, rise in 2,3-dpg [More h+, more temp, rise in dpg,]
107
Diagnosis of myotonic dystrophy
Genetic testing CTG repeat >50 times in DMPK gene
108
Double-blind trial for new drug, ordinal scale (rating 1-3 for pain) what test
Man-whitney
109
Most common cause of constipation in enteral feeding?
Inadequate fluids
110
What kills people with turners syndrome the most
Ruptured thoracic aneurysm
110
What kills people with turners syndrome the most
Ruptured thoracic aneurysm
111
Most common cause of HyperCa
Primary HyperPTH
112
HyperCa ECG
Notching of QRS Narrow QT
113
What are p1 receptors
G protein coupled receptors bound by adenosine -> Eosinophil apoptosis [essentially to put a break on activated immune system]
114
Patch vs skin prick testing used when?
Patch - contact dermatitis Prick - IgE mediated anaphylaxis
114
Patch vs skin prick testing used when?
Patch - contact dermatitis Prick - IgE mediated anaphylaxis
115
Calorie requirement per day in severe injury
35-40 kcal/kg/day
116
Transydate vs exudate ascites
Transudative ascites occurs when a patient's SAAG level is greater than or equal to 1.1 g/dL (portal hypertension). Exudative ascites occurs when patients have SAAG levels lower than 1.1 g/dL.
117
Pseudohyperparathyroidism - what will PTH/calcium/PO4 be?
Normal but is "resistant" to its effect. This causes low blood calcium levels and high blood phosphate levels.
118
Anal incontinence - assess sphincter structure / function
Structure - US scan Function - Manometry
119
Where would you find asteroid bodies
Sarcoid gramulomas most commonly
120
Nutcracker oesopagus also called
Hypertensive peristalsis - Increased amplitude contractions
121
What is the function of BRCA1 usually
DNA repair
122
What is an allele
One form of gene
123
How would you check for an antibody deficiency in someone who gets recurrent bacterial chest infections
Check specific pneumococcus / Haemophilus antibodies. Simply checking serum Ig's no good - often normal even if unable to create an adequate response and very non-specific...
124
Appears to have allergic reaction when wears latex gloves - how to test?
Skin prick testing -It is an allergy not contact dermatitis [If contact dermatitis - Patch testing]
125
What is RAST testing
Test for specific IgE antibodies that a patient may be allergic to
126
Which hormone makes you feel hungry? Full?
Ghrelin Leptin - full
127
ST elevation in v5-6, I, AVL. What would make you say anterior lateral and what just lateral
v4 = anterolateral Otherwise would be high lateral
128
Tay-sachs common in which population? is due to? what does this mean? Usual presentation? If presents later what is common sign? Blood test?
Ashkenazi jews [Another lipid motabolism like gauchers] GM2 Ganglioside build-up which leads to increased lysosomal hydrolysis Children develop normally and then regress and die Can present in 20-30s if mild form with 'cherry red' spot in eye Test for beta-hexosaminidase A activity
129
Which Ig most present in secretions and provides protection against viruses at mucosal surfaces
IgA
130
Which cells in the innate immune system
Monocytes, neutrophils, mast cells, complement, phagocytes (macrophages)
131
Which cells recognise an antigenic motif using toll-like receptors? What is this called and then what happens?
Phagocytes (macrophages) recognise a PAMP which stimulates: -Chemokine release - increase adhesions -Cytokine release - attract other immune cells -Complement release - kill
131
Which cells recognise an antigenic motif using toll-like receptors? What is this called and then what happens?
Phagocytes (macrophages) recognise a PAMP which stimulates: -Chemokine release - increase adhesions -Cytokine release - attract other immune cells -Complement release - kill
132
What are the two parts of the adaptive immune system and basics of each? Which cells?
Humoural - mediated by B lymphocytes -Circulating in body fluids to detect pathogens [Pathogens can evade humoral system by hiding within cells] Cellular Cells use HLA presentation system (chrome 6 in MHC region] to present their contents to T-cells who identify if foreign
133
Wierd use for BCG
intra vesical for Rx of bladder Ca in situ
134
What is thing in G6PD
Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase
135
C5 deficiency leads to
Gram -ve sepsis
136
C3 deficiency leads to
Overwhelming infection from encapsulated organisms
137
-Mab to C5? Used for?
Eculizumab Paroxysmal nocturnal Haemoglobinuria
138
Gal presents with loss of fat -> defined upper arms and facial muscles? Usually follows? What is low/raised?
Acquired lipodystrophy often following an Infection - usually viral Low levels C3, raised nephritic factor
139
The external part of the neurone has what charge at rest
Positive [Think of sodium influx]
140
Why do people with ileostomies get hypoCa ?
Loss of Mg though ileostomy HypoMg-> impairs PTH ->Hypo Ca [Ca absorption is mostly in duodenum so it is not due to simple malabsorption of Ca]
141
High LDL with normal Triglycerides = When would you expect the other form of this
Heterozygous hypercholesterolaemia Homozygous if cholesterol >12 and very early MI
142
High Triglycerides with normal LDL
Heterozygous hypertriglyceridaemia
143
Multiple relapses of nephrotic syndrome Rx long term
Cyclophosphamide
144
Which hypersensitivity if rash few hours after latex gloves
Type 4 [Hives / urticarial rash immediately would be type 1]
145
Develops lupus early - due to which deficiency
C4 [or C1 / C2]
146
Which cells produce TNFa
Macrophages [eosinophils produce a little bit]
147
Correlation coefficients range from
-1 to 1
148
Gold standard Dx of pemphigoid
Peri-lesional skin biopsy for examination with immunofluorescence
149
Diabetes + sensory neural deafness in which syndrome? Inheritance?
DIDMOAD Recessive
150
Where does RNA splicing occur
Nucleus
151
What happening if exercise -> pain in muscles but a paradoxical decrease in lactate at this time? Deficient in?
Inadequate muscle glycogenolysis [McArdle disease due to deficiency of muscle phosphorylase]
152
Which ig deficiency in coeliac
IgA
153
What is usual location of actin
Cytoskeleton
154
Which nerve commonly affected by humerus fractures? Seonsory / motor Sx?
Radial Loss of sensation to dorsal forearm Forearm extension, finger extension
155
Weakness of elbow flexion and supination. Sensory loss of lateral forearm. Nerve name?
Musculocutaneous
156
VHL and MEN2a differentiate based on renal Cancers
Both risk phaeo Only VHL increased renal cell carcinoma
157
What is post-marketing survellience used for
Adverse effect profile
158
Comparing means between 2 groups with skewed data
Mann-whitney-U test
159
A condition which affects males and females but males by much more has which pattern of inheritance
X linked dominant
160
which antibody has highest negative predictive value in SLE
Negative ANA
161
What has more energy per gram LDL or triglyceride
Triglyceride [LDLipoprotein] - has protein in it so less energy]
162
Imatinib in which GI tumour
GIST
163
Churg straus antibody
Myeloperoxidase (in 50%)
164
Major crieterion (non-skeletal) for marfans
ectopia lentis aortic root dilation/dissection dural ectasia
165
Tall, Hypermobile joints with very blue eyes, easy bruising and only moderate skin elasticity
Hypermobility Elhers danlos [Classical has very elastic skin]
166
Hereditory haemochromatosis chromosome
6
167
What does the tetanus and botox toxin do
Cleaves parts of VAMP (Synaptobrevin)
168
Accident involving being suspended from arm now weakness of intrinsic muscles of hand and long extensor muscles of fingers = damage where
C8,T1
169
Rx of acute hypoNa <48hrs with symptoms
Hypertonic Na
170
Valine substitution of position 6 of the b-globin chain in?
Sickle cell
171
Periodic fever in which Ig excess
IgD
172
long distance running uses what for energy
Fatty acid oxidation
173
Investigation of Friedrich's ataxia or other trinucleotide repeat disorders?
TP-PCR [Triplet-repeat Primed- PCR]
174
Optimum Rx of acute hereditary angioedema with laryngeal oedema
C1 inhibitor concentrate
175
Prolonged history pain and neck. Weak abductor pollis brevis =
Cervical rib [specifically involves C8/T1 root]
176
Plotting baseline data from a trial including height, weight and BP. Best way to plot it?
Box and whisker
177
Hypoxia effect on pulm vessles
Constrict -> allows blood to be directed towards areas of lung with higher o2 levels -Improves V/Q ratio
178
Ochronosis another name for?
alkaptonuria [homogenistic acid oxidase deficiency]
179
digoxin toxicity. Enzyme abnormality that needs correcting
HypoK
180
IgG 1-3 subclass deficiency leads to
1 - general immunodeficiency 2 - Recurrent polysaccharide coated eg H influenza 3 - Chronic sinusitis
181
Recurrent laryngeal damage leads to horse voice why
posterior cricoarytenoid muscle paralysis
182
Hyperacute rejection HLA
HLA- C IgG
183
Hypophosphataemic rickets inheritance
X linked dominant
184
1st drug rx for acute intermittent porphyria acute attack
Haem arginate
185
Power of study is for
Probability of correctly rejecting the null hypothesis
186
HOCM which mutationmost common? if 16 year old collapses?
Myosin binding protein C - Slightly older [this one is more common overall] B-myosin heavy chain - young with pronounced septal hypertrophy
187
Why hyperCa in sarcoid
Increased 1,25 vit D
188
Where is troponin found
Adjacent to thin filaments
189
C1 esterase deficiency vs anaphylaxis in q
No urticaria / hives in c1 esterase
190
Pyruvate kinase is the rate-limiting step in
Glycolysis and gluconeogenesis
191
Second line rx for SLE but worried about neutropenia
Mycophenolate [inhibits purines and so selectively inhibits activated B and T lymphocytes]
192
In a cell what is the function of lysosomes? Peroxisomes?
Lyso - breakdown biological polymers Eg polypeptides Perox - breakdown long chain fatty acids for use by the mitochondria
193
In a cell what is the function of Ribosomes? Golgi apparatus?
Ribosomes - manufacture of proteins Golgi - post-translational protein modification
194
In a cell what is the function of Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
Production of steroid hormones
195
How to calculate standard error
SD/ √n
196
p53 affects where in cell cycle
G1/S