Closed book exam

Question 1

1 Who is responsible for the manuals and documents to be valid during the entire flight? (OMA 1.5.3t)
a. Commander
b. First Office
c. Dispatch
d. Engineer

Answer 1

a. Commander

Question 2

2 Who is responsible for keeping a valid medical licence? (OMA 6.4)
a. Licensing department
b. GCAA
c. Documents keeper
d. Individual crew member

Answer 2

d. Individual crew member

Question 3

3 Which documents are NOT retained on ground in Dubai? (OMA 2.1.3.1)

a. SIGWX chart is NOT to be retained

Answer 3

a. SIGWX chart is NOT to be retained

Question 4

4 Is the Commander responsible for Safety Cards?

a. Yes. The Commander delegates to the Cabin Crew and the Purser Ensures it is done
b. No

Answer 4

a. Yes. The Commander delegates to the Cabin Crew and the Purser Ensures it is done

Question 5

5 The Tech Log must be filled out in accordance with which manual? (OMA 8.1.11)
a. MEL / CDL

Answer 5

a. MEL / CDL

Question 6

6 A Captain shall not commence a flight if he is not satisfied? (OMA 8.1)

a. Aircraft is airworthy
b. The load is correctly distributed
c. The airplane configuration is in accordance with the CDL
d. All of the above.

Answer 6

d. All of the above.

Question 7

7 What are the Flight Crew duties during fuelling? (OMA 8.2.1.3)
a. Establish and maintain comms with ground.
b. Inform Cabin Crew when refueling is finished by switching the seat belt signs on.
c. Be ready to action PAX evacuation
d. All of the above

Answer 7

d. All of the above

Question 8

8 Is Defueling with passengers embarking / onboard / disembarking allowed? (GOM Chap17; No4 / 8.2.1.3)

a. No with JET B, JP-4 or AVTAG
b. Yes if Jet A/A1 and the flight crew MUST be notified before commencing.
c. Follow local regulations
d. A and B

Answer 8

d. A and B

Question 9

9 When can you start to use contingency fuel? (OMA 8.1.7.2 / 8.3.7.1)

a. After the release of the fuel bowser

Answer 9

a. After the release of the fuel bowser

Question 10

10 At the planning stage contingency fuel compensate for deviations in? (OMA 8.1.7.1.3)

a. WX Forecasts
b. ZFW
c. TOW
d. Expected Taxi Fuel

Answer 10

a. WX Forecasts

Question 11

11 Standard Fuel Planning requirements are only applicable until? (OMA 8.1.7.2)

a. Completion of refueling and release of the fuel bowser.

Answer 11

a. Completion of refueling and release of the fuel bowser.

Question 12

15 Which of the following is NOT a correct statement regarding fuel remaining on touchdown? (OMA 8.3.7.3)

a. For Commitment to Destination = Final Reserve Fuel
b. For Destination = Alternate + Final Reserve Fuel
c. For Alternate = Final Reserve Fuel
d. For Destination = Alternate Fuel

Answer 12

d. For Destination = Alternate Fuel

Question 13

16 What is Final Reserve Fuel? (OMA 8.1.7.1.5)

a. Fuel required to fly for 30mins at holding speed at 1500ft above destination alternate aerodrome elevation in standard conditions, calculated with estimated weight on arrival at the alternate or the destination when no alternate is required.

Answer 13

a. Fuel required to fly for 30mins at holding speed at 1500ft above destination alternate aerodrome elevation in standard conditions, calculated with estimated weight on arrival at the alternate or the destination when no alternate is required.

Question 14

17 If during the in-flight fuel check the expected fuel on arrival at the destination is less than Alternate fuel plus final reserve fuel, could you continue to destination without knowing the EAT? (OMA 8.3.7.2)
a. No.
b. Flight may continue towards the destination aerodrome if it is possible to reach at least two aerodromes at which a landing is assured with at least Final reserve fuel remaining at touchdown. Two separate and independent runways at a single aerodrome within two hours of flying time may be considered to be equivalent to two aerodromes, provided that account is taken of fuel burn due to any likely ATC delays

Answer 14

b. Flight may continue towards the destination aerodrome if it is possible to reach at least two aerodromes at which a landing is assured with at least Final reserve fuel remaining at touchdown. Two separate and independent runways at a single aerodrome within two hours of flying time may be considered to be equivalent to two aerodromes, provided that account is taken of fuel burn due to any likely ATC delays

Question 15

1 How many mm of frost is allowed under the wing? (OMA 8.2.4)
a. 3
b. 2
c. None
d. 1

Answer 15

a. 3

Question 16

2 With regards to frost? (OMA 8.2.4)
a. Regulations allow a small layer of frost on top of the fuselage.
b. Regulations allow a small layer of frost on top of the wing
c. Any ice/frost less than 3mm does not need to be taken in to account
d. ?

Answer 16

a. Regulations allow a small layer of frost on top of the fuselage.

Question 17

3 When does Holdover Protection Expire? (GOM Chap20; 9.6.3)

a. At the commencement of take-off roll (due to aerodynamic shedding of fluid)
b. When frozen deposits starts to form or accumulate on treated aircraft surfaces, thereby indicating the loss of effectiveness of the fluid (fluid failure)
c. Both A & B

Answer 17

c. Both A & B

Question 18

4 When is a PCI mandatory? (OMC 10.2.3.6)

a. When precipitation has started since application of final layer and the shortest time of the HOT is exceeded.

b. When there is heavy snow and a take-off is contemplated. Or Heavy snow conditions exist or has been encountered since the start of anti-icing fluid application.
c. When a passengers report suggest that the anti-icing fluid has failed.
d. All of the above.

Answer 18

d. All of the above.

Question 19

5 When is a PCI mandatory? (OMC 10.2.3.6)

a. When precipitation has started since application of final layer and the shortest time of the HOT is exceeded.

b. If Ice pellets are encountered and take off is contemplated
c. When severe icing conditions are encountered and take off is contemplated
d. All of the above.

Answer 19

a. When precipitation has started since application of final layer and the shortest time of the HOT is exceeded.

Question 20

6 When will you turn on ENGINE ANTI ICE? (FCOM>PRO>SUPP>ICE & RAIN> OP IN ICING)

a. Engine anti-ice must be ON during all ground and flight operations, when icing conditions exist, or are anticipated, except during climb and cruise when the SAT is below –40 °C. Engine anti-ice must be ON before and during a descent in icing conditions, even if the SAT is below –40 °C.

b. Engine anti-ice must be on during all ground and flight operations when icing conditions exist.
c. Engine anti-ice must be on during all ground and flight operations when icing conditions exist,

Answer 20

a. Engine anti-ice must be ON during all ground and flight operations, when icing conditions exist, or are anticipated, except during climb and cruise when the SAT is below –40 °C. Engine anti-ice must be ON before and during a descent in icing conditions, even if the SAT is below –40 °C.

Question 21

9 What is a Representative Surface? (OMC 10.2.3.6 / GOM 9.3.2.1)

a. The inner portion of the wing from the root outward to the innermost pylon. It includes the entire chord length.

Answer 21

a. The inner portion of the wing from the root outward to the innermost pylon. It includes the entire chord length.

Question 22

10 What is the definition of a contaminated runway? (OMA 8.1.2.6.1.4)

a. 25% covered
b. 50% covered
c. 75% covered
d. 100% covered

Answer 22

a. 25% covered

Question 23

11 When flying to an airport on altimeter setting and the OAT is -30c at the airfield. Which altitudes need to be corrected for temperature? (OMC 10.2.4.1.1)

a. MEA/MH/MGA? Minimum obstacle
b. Missed approach altitude and engine acceleration altitude
c. Approach minimum, initial fix, intermediate fix and final fix
d. All of the above

Answer 23

d. All of the above

Question 24

12 What do you apply temp correction to if the airfield (or ISA) temp is -30 degrees? (OMC 10.2.4.1.1)

a. Min en-route alt MEA / Min Holding Alt MH / Min Grid Alt MGA / Min Obstacle / Obstruction Alt MOCA.

Answer 24

Min en-route alt MEA / Min Holding Alt MH / Min Grid Alt MGA / Min Obstacle / Obstruction Alt MOCA
NOTE: Not ATC Cleared ALT: ( In the EXAM I think the correct answer is ALL OF THE ABOVE

Question 25

1 How long do the crew need to be onboard prior to departure? (OMC 1.1.5 & GOM Annexes>Annex B>1.2.5.TA now says STD-60 min) a. Early enough b. Cabin Crew 1 hour, Flight Deck 40 mins c. STD-55 (this was the correct answer in the old exam) d. STD-60 (the new correct answer)

Answer 25

a. STD-55 (this was the correct answer in the old exam) Note recent feedback says STD-60 was NOT an option. Suggest you go with old answer for now

Question 26

2 When do the crew need to be on board the aircraft? (OMA 8.2.1.3) a. 60 mins for Cabin Crew and 40 mins for Flight Crew b. As early as they can manage to be on board c. At least one Flight Crew member and cabin crew shall be on board whenever the passengers are embarking or disembarking or are on board.

Answer 26

c. At least one Flight Crew member and cabin crew shall be on board whenever the passengers are embarking or disembarking or are on board.

Question 27

3 When does the FDP start and end? (OMA 7.6.1) a. Dubai 1h25min to chocks on / Outstation 1h to chocks on

Answer 27

a. Dubai 1h25min to chocks on / Outstation 1h to chocks on

Question 28

4 When can FDP’s be legally extended? (OMA 7.7.1 / 7.7.2 / 7.15) a. Inflight relief b. Split duty c. Commander’s discretion d. All of the above

Answer 28

d. All of the above

Question 29

5 What FDP should be recorded in your personal logbook? (OMA 7.7.1.3) a. A nominated Captain and FO 100% b. ? c. Augmenting crew their actual operating times on the VR. d. Both A and C

Answer 29

d. Both A and C

Question 30

6 When is a crew member said to be acclimatised for work? (OMA 7.5) a. When they have 3 local nights on ground within 2 hour time band (Local night is 8hrs within 2200-0800 local time) b. When they have 2 local nights on ground within 3 hour time band (Local night is 8hrs within 2200-0800 local time) c. When they have 3 local nights on ground within 2 hour time band (Local night is 8hrs within 2200-0800 UTC) d. Three days off

Answer 30

a. When they have 3 local nights on ground within 2 hour time band (Local night is 8hrs within 2200-0800 local time)

Question 31

7 Who is responsible for making sure the FTL scheme is monitored? (OMA 7.2 / 7.3) a. Crew Member b. Emirates Airline c. GCAA d. Answer A & B from above

Answer 31

d. Answer A & B from above

Question 32

5 What are the required conditions to perform an Orbit? (OMA 8.3.20.2.26) a. In Day VMC, whilst maintaining constant visual contact with terrain, & above 1500ft agl with the autopilot engaged.,

Answer 32

. In Day VMC, whilst maintaining constant visual contact with terrain, & above 1500ft agl with the autopilot engaged.,

Question 33

6 When would you assume Pilot incapacitation? (OMA 8.3.14) a. Two verbal communications when above 1000ft AGL b. One verbal communication when below 1000ft AGL c. Any verbal communication associated with significant deviation from the intended flight path d. All the above.

Answer 33

d. All the above.

Question 34

8 For a Non-standard Engine Out turning procedure when do you initiate the acceleration? (OMA 8.3.20.3.6.2) a. The aeroplane is established on the final heading, track or course of the Non-Standard engine out procedure and at or about the minimum acceleration height. b. At or above the applicable MSA c. The aeroplane meets the specific requirements described in the applicable Non-standard engine out procedure. d. All of the above.

Answer 34

d. All of the above.

Question 35

9 What are the initial actions when you receive a RED BOMB alert whilst flying? (OMA 10.5.4.3.3) a. Contact SMNC b. Follow the procedure contained in the FCOM/QRH c. Make a PA: “This is the captain Purser to the Flight Deck” d. Make a PA to the Passengers and give the Purser a NIT’s briefing.

Answer 35

b. Follow the procedure contained in the FCOM/QRH

Question 36

1 When are 2 Destination Alternates required? (OMA 8.1.3.1.6 & 8.1.6.1) a. No meteorological information available b. Weather below minimum at destination +-1hr of ETA c. Aerodrome not suitable for A/C type. d. A and B correct

Answer 36

d. A and B correct

Question 37

2 When do you need 2 Alternates? (OMA 8.1.3.1.6 & 8.1.6.1) a. No meteorological information available b. Tempo TS and weather below planned minima +/- 1hr of ETA c. Tempo Fog and weather below planned minima +/- 1hr of ETA d. A and C correct

Answer 37

d. A and C correct

Question 38

3 What are the applicable planning minima for Takeoff alternates? (OMA 8.1.3.1.1) a. A take off alternate is required if the weather minimums at the departure airport are not equal or better than are required to return. The weather must be above the applicable landing minima +/- 1 hour ETA. (Using reports / forecasts or combination of. (OMA 8.1.2.1.4.1) b. Within two hours of flight time (equal to 950 nm for a A380) at a one engine inoperative speed in still air conditions based on the actual take off weight. c. All above are correct.

Answer 38

c. All above are correct.

Question 39

4 What are the applicable planning minima for Takeoff alternates? (OMA 8.1.3.1.1) a. At least CAT 1 WX conditions b. At least CAT 1 WX conditions plus 200m Visibility/RVR c. Same as the planning minimum for Destination Alternate airports d. Applicable Landing Minima

Answer 39

d. Applicable Landing Minima

Question 40

1 What weather must you use within 2hrs of your destination?

Answer 40

a. Actual weather and trend information may be used

Question 41

2 What is the required visibility for circling minima? (OMA 8.3.20.2.22.4 & OMC 6.2) a. Visibility is the HIGHER OF 5,000m OR THE PUBLISHED MINIMA. (Ceiling is The higher of 1,200 ft AAL or the charted Cat D minima rounded up by 200ft) b. Visibility is Published minima c. Visibility is 8km d. Visibility is 2km

Answer 41

b. Visibility is Published minima

Question 42

1 If company regulations violate national or international rules or regulations which, should you follow? (OMA 1.1.1) a. Company policies b. International laws c. National laws d. B and C

Answer 42

d. B and C

Question 43

2 Which law must be applied onboard an EK aircraft outside UAE airspace? (OMA 1.1.1) a. You must comply with the law of the state you are operating in. b. National Rule c. International Rule d. UAE CAR Rule

Answer 43

a. You must comply with the law of the state you are operating in.

Question 44

1 Where will you find the list of Airport Categories? (OMA 8.1.2.1 / OMC 12.1) a. OMC b. OMA c. OMD d. OME

Answer 44

a. OMC

Question 45

2 What makes a suitable aerodrome? (OMA 8.5.1.6) a. Enroute wx planning min ceiling + visibility are met b. Forecast crosswind within limits including gusts c. Runway conditions suitable for a safe landing d. All of the above

Answer 45

d. All of the above

Question 46

1 Which cargo has HIGHEST priority (gets offloaded last if weight restricted)? (GOM Chap13; 27.1) a. Animals b. International mail c. Food or perishables d. SkyCargo cargo

Answer 46

a. International mail NOTE: International mail has loading priority over all other cargo, and will be offloaded only after all other cargo, in the event of a flight being weight restricted. Also due to GOM update “International mail” has now changed to “EMIRATES COMPANY MAIL”. However not sure if the question in the exam has been updated

Question 47

1 Where can the provisions for DG (Dangerous Goods) carried by passengers and crew be found? a. IATA Dangerous Goods Regulations Section 2 – Limitations.

Answer 47

a. IATA Dangerous Goods Regulations Section 2 – Limitations.

Question 48

2 Which aircraft hold(s) can be used for transportation of DG? (OMA 9.10 / 9.10.2) a. Only the aft hold. b. In all the cargo holds, but the bulk has restrictions. c. Only the forward hold. d. Any hold.

Answer 48

b. In all the cargo holds, but the bulk has restrictions.

Question 49

1 When is a CRS (Certificate of Release to Service) NOT required? (OMA 8.1.11.2) a. A CRS is NOT required in a case of NIL DEFECTS in the TECH LOG b. Never c. Always d. On Captains discretion

Answer 49

a. A CRS is NOT required in a case of NIL DEFECTS in the TECH LOG

Question 50

2 When is a CRS required? (OMA 8.1.11.2) a. When a defect is entered into the Tech Log a CRS is required to revalidate the CofA. If a defect is entered into a Tech Log and the defect has been actioned a CRS MUST be issued

Answer 50

a. When a defect is entered into the Tech Log a CRS is required to revalidate the CofA. If a defect is entered into a Tech Log and the defect has been actioned a CRS MUST be issued

Question 51

1 Which one below is the stabilization criteria for visual circuit? (OMA 8.3.20.2.27) a. Wings level by 300ft AAL b. Wings level by 400ft AAL c. Same as other approaches with cut off platform lowered to 500ft AAL

Answer 51

a. Wings level by 300ft AAL NOTE: This question has come up several times and looks like it’s a throwback to the old OMA, in which case the answer would be ‘a’. However, more feedback is required to confirm this so I’ve not BOLD any answer.

Question 52

2 Which of the following is NOT a stabilisations criteria? (OMA 8.3.20.2.27) a. Speed between Vref +20/-5 b. Landing gear down and locked at 1,000ft. c. Thrust setting appropriate for the aeroplane configuration d. Speedbrakes not deployed below 1,000ft AAL.

Answer 52

a. Speed between Vref +20/-5 NOTE: Based on the updated OMA Passing 300ft AAL the airplane shall be established on the lateral path

Question 53

1 What are the RVSM applicable levels? (LIDO P541: 1.4.5.11.9.1) a. FL290 – FL410 inclusive b. FL290 – FL410 exclusive

Answer 53

a. FL290 – FL410 inclusive

Question 54

1 If RWY length is reduced what do you check and from where? (Could not find the new reference.) a. Check Performance software distances against those published in the NOTAM or AIP Supplement.

Answer 54

a. Check Performance software distances against those published in the NOTAM or AIP Supplement.

Question 55

1 What is the restriction on two inexperienced crew members flying together? (OMA 4.1.4) a. 28 flights b. 35 days c. 45 flights d. 3 months

Answer 55

d. 3 months

Question 56

1 When can a Captain allow the FO to taxi the aircraft? (OMA 8.3.20.1.7) a. Anytime except where the parking guidance system is aligned with the view from the left-hand seat or a 180 degree turn is required.

Answer 56

a. Anytime except where the parking guidance system is aligned with the view from the left-hand seat or a 180 degree turn is required.

Question 57

1 Who can the captain call If there is a medical issue with PAX during check in / boarding? (OMA 8.2.3.2.1) a. Ground Medical Support b. Aerodrome Medical Clinic c. An Emirates doctor, contactable through the Network Operations. d. All of the above

Answer 57

d. All of the above

Question 58

1 What do you check after there is a change to the LMC? (OMA 8.1.8.6.1) a. ZFW / TOW / LW limits are not exceeded (Structural and Perf). b. Check MAC within 2.4% c. Inform load control d. A & B

Answer 58

ZFW / TOW / LW limits are not exceeded (Structural and Perf). NOTE: You must also check T/O Perf is validated with new wts and loading limits are not exceeded.

Question 59

1 Deep diving without decompression stops require you to wait 12hr before flying. If decompression stops were required how much time would you need to wait before flying? (OMA 6.1.14) a. 8 hours b. 12 hours c. 18 hours d. 24 hours

Answer 59

d. 24 hours NOTE: If NO decompression stops, then only 12 hours

Question 60

1 What is the alcohol consumption limits prior to a duty? (ERM 1.10.4) a. 12hrs prior to commencing a duty until after the end of the assigned duty

Answer 60

a. 12hrs prior to commencing a duty until after the end of the assigned duty

Question 61

1 How long must you wait after giving blood before you can go flying? (OMA 6.1.15) a. 48hrs

Answer 61

a. 48hrs

Question 62

1 What is the max fuel discrepancy after refueling is complete? (OMA 8.2.1.6) a. ACTUAL (Supplier) > CALCULATED (AC FOB - START) > Max 5% of CALCULATED uplift up to 2000kg b. ACTUAL (Supplier) < CALCULATED (AC FOB - START) > Max 5% of CALCULATED uplift up to 1000kg c. A380 FCOM max discrepancy = 1270kg + 0.5% FOB

Answer 62

a. ACTUAL (Supplier) > CALCULATED (AC FOB - START) > Max 5% of CALCULATED uplift up to 2000kg b. ACTUAL (Supplier) < CALCULATED (AC FOB - START) > Max 5% of CALCULATED uplift up to 1000kg c. A380 FCOM max discrepancy = 1270kg + 0.5% FOB

Question 63

5 Fuel policy from the company is based on minimum total cost and maximum payload. It takes into account? (OMA 8.1.7.1.1) a. Met conditions b. Expected routing and flight levels c. Realistic A/C consumption data based on manufacturer data and performance degradation for specific aircraft. d. All of the above

Answer 63

d. All of the above

Question 64

11 Which answer is correct? Contingency fuel is a quantity of fuel carried to compensate for items such as: (OMA 8.1.7.1.3) a. Deviations of an individual aircraft for the expected fuel consumption data (over and above the tail number corrects allowed for in the trip fuel: b. Deviations for forecast meteorological conditions c. Deviations from planned routings and/or cruising levels/altitudes d. All of the above

Answer 64

d. All of the above

Question 65

1 What is the Takeoff Operating minima for Category ‘C’ respective ‘D’ aircraft on a runway equipped with runway edge and centerline lights will never be less than? (OMA 8.1.5.3.2) a. 250/300m b. 200/250m c. 150/200m

Answer 65

b. 200/250m

Question 66

2 Approach criteria classification a/c category based on? (OMA 19.7) a. Based on NOMINAL THRESHOLD SPEED.

Answer 66

a. Based on NOMINAL THRESHOLD SPEED.

Question 67

1 MORA is displayed on the OFP and based on which parameters? (OMC 10.1.7.3.1) a. For a 5nm corridor, based on terrain clearance with terrain elevation above 5000ft: 2000ft above the highest terrain and obstructions b. Minimum Off Route Altitude at a corridor 10nm either side of the route centre line displayed in 2 digits expressed in thousands of feet. LIDO uses CAR OPS calculation method. For terrain lower that 600ft a buffer of 1000ft is added. For terrain higher thatn 6000ft a buffer of 2000ft is added. c. For 5NM corridor, based on terrain clearance with terrain elevation up to 6000ft: 1000ft above the highest terrain and obstructions d. For a 10NM corridor, based on terrain clearance with Terrain elevation up to 5000ft: 1000ft above the highest terrain and obstructions. NOTE: In the exam it still says JAR-OPS and our manuals say CAR-OPS. The exams hasn’t been updated

Answer 67

b. Minimum Off Route Altitude at a corridor 10nm either side of the route centre line displayed in 2 digits expressed in thousands of feet. LIDO uses CAR OPS calculation method. For terrain lower that 600ft a buffer of 1000ft is added. For terrain higher thatn 6000ft a buffer of 2000ft is added

Question 68

2 Which altitude does the OFP show in two digits? (OMC 10.1.7.2) a. MORA

Answer 68

a. MORA

Question 69

4 What is the definition of MORA in the OFP? (OMC 10.1.7.3.1) a. Is a corridor 10NM either side of the Route centerline in 2 digits expressed in thousand

Answer 69

a. Is a corridor 10NM either side of the Route centerline in 2 digits expressed in thousand

Question 70

1 Vaccinations must be administered at least how many hours prior to a flight? (OMA 6.1.20) a. 36 b. 48 c. 24 d. 12

Answer 70

d. 12

Question 71

ADEQUATE ALTERNATE REQUIRMENTS: 1 An Adequate should fulfil which criteria? (OMA 8.5.5.2) a. Has a runway that is long enough to safely bring an aircraft to a stop within the landing distance available clearing all obstacles in the approach path by a safe margin. b. Is expected to be available if required. c. Is equipped with the necessary auxiliary services such as ATC, lighting, communications, meteorological services, navigation and approach aids and rescue and fire fighting services. d. All of the above.

Answer 71

d. All of the above.

Question 72

1 What is the definition of WCHS? (OMA 8.2.2.1.2.3) a. Passengers who cannot ascend/descent steps but can make their own way slowly to/from their seats. (No restrictions on the number per flight)

Answer 72

a. Passengers who cannot ascend/descent steps but can make their own way slowly to/from their seats. (No restrictions on the number per flight)

Question 73

CATEGORY A AERODROME CATEGORY: 1 Which of the following criteria is NOT a requirement for a CAT A airport? (OMA 8.1.2.1) a. At least one runway with no performance limited procedure for take off and/or landing b. Night operations capability c. Published circling minima not higher than 1000 feet AAL d. Availability of non-standard approach aids and/or approach patterns

Answer 73

d. Availability of non-standard approach aids and/or approach patterns

Question 74

FLIGHT OPERATION MISSION 1 What is the Flight Operations Mission? (OMA 1.1) a. To operate Emirates A/C in the most flexible and cost efficient way b. To operate Emirates A/C in the safest and most efficient manner c. To operate Emirates A/C in the safest and most cost effective way d. To operate Emirates A/C in the most economical and efficient manner

Answer 74

b. To operate Emirates A/C in the safest and most efficient manner

Question 75

1 Must a passenger who’s baggage has been offloaded as he is missing, be accepted after he is located (Cannot find a reference) a. SMNC’s discretion b. Yes c. Captains discretion d. No

Answer 75

d. No NOTE: Baggage offload shall commence at -15 STD. If PAX found before baggage is offloaded they MAY be accepted at the discretion of the Captain

Question 76

2 Whenever the commander suspects that the weight or balance of an aircraft is grossly in error, he should take which of the following actions? (RAIG F2.1) a. Press the EICAS Event Record Switch b. Maintaining the aircraft well within the safe operating envelope and buffet margin for the remainder of the flight c. Divert to the Nearest Suitable Airport?

Answer 76

b. Maintaining the aircraft well within the safe operating envelope and buffet margin for the remainder of the flight

Question 77

2 What should the cabin crew do when they hear “Purser to the flight deck”? (OMA 5.5.6) a. The remaining cabin crew will clear the cabin of all trolleys, return to their allocated cabin station, review the OM-E, and await a briefing call from either the Purser or the Commander

Answer 77

a. The remaining cabin crew will clear the cabin of all trolleys, return to their allocated cabin station, review the OM-E, and await a briefing call from either the Purser or the Commander

Question 78

1 What are the age and weight definitions for an adult passenger? (OMA 8.1.8.5) a. Above 16 years. 80kg male. 72kg female b. above 15 years. 82kg male. 77kg female c. Above 12 years. 88kg male. 70kg female d. Above 14years. 87kg male. 75kg female

Answer 78

c. Above 12 years. 88kg male. 70kg female

Question 79

2 What is the recommended lateral avoidance distance for thunderstorms with Strong Weather Radar echoes? (OMA 8.3.8.2) a. 5nm at 20,000ft, 10NM at 25,000ft, 15NM at 30,000ft b. At least 10NM at or below FL200, and by at least 20NM above FL200 c. 20 NM on all flight levels d. 10 NM on all flight levels

Answer 79

a. At least 10NM at or below FL200, and by at least 20NM above FL200 NOTE: Strong Weather Radar echoes shall be avoided by at least 10 nm at or below FL200, and by at least 20 nm above FL200

Question 80

1 What is the Planning Minima for a Destination Alternate, if the only type of approach available is a non-precision approach? (OMA 8.1.3.3) a. Circling Minima plus 200 ft / 1,000 m b. Non-Precision Approach Minima plus 200 ft / 1,000 m c. Non-Precision Approach Minima d. Circling Minima

Answer 80

b. Non-Precision Approach Minima plus 200 ft / 1,000 m

Question 81

1 On a standard SID what is the minimum turn height unless procedurally required? (OMA 8.3.20.2.13) a. 200ft AGL b. 300ft AGL c. 400ft AGL d. 500ft AGL

Answer 81

c. 400ft AGL

Question 82

1 Which of the following requirements has NOT to be met, to allow qualified crews reducing their takeoff minima to 150 or 125 m respectively? (OMA 8.1.5.3.2) a. High Intensity edge lights are spaced 60 m or less and are in operation. b. Low Visibility Procedures are in force. c. High intensity runway centerline lights are spaced 15 m or less and are in operation. d. The REIL must be in operation

Answer 82

d. The REIL must be in operation

Question 83

1 Which answer is NOT a First Officer restriction for takeoff or Landing? (OMA 5.2.16.2) a. Wet runway b. Crosswind component exceeding 20kts c. Visibility less than 2 nm for takeoff d. Answer A and C

Answer 83

d. Answer A and C.

Question 84

2 When may an FO NOT conduct a take-off? (OMA 5.2.16.2) a. The runway is contaminated, the crosswind component exceeds 20kts, the visibility is 500m or less, the departure is from a CAT C aerodrome. b. The runway is contaminated, the crosswind component exceeds 20kts, the visibility is 500m or if aerodrome categorization requires the captain to be PF. c. The runway is contaminated, the crosswind component exceeds 20kts, the visibility is 500m or less, d. The runway is contaminated, the crosswind component exceeds 15kts, the visibility is 150m or less, the departure is from a CAT B or CAT C aerodrome.

Answer 84

b. The runway is contaminated, the crosswind component exceeds 20kts, the visibility is 500m or if aerodrome categorization requires the captain to be PF.

Question 85

1 What is the minimum visibility for take-off when the RVR are reported in all the relevant points and with Edge lights + runway CCL? (OMA 8.1.5.3.2) a. 125m b. 150m c. 200m d. 300m

Answer 85

b. 150m

Question 86

2 Is take off permitted if no RVR is provided? (OMA 8.1.5.3.2) a. Takeoff is not permitted if RVR is not reported b. Only if LVO’s not in force c. When no reported meteorological visibility or RVR is available, a takeoff may only be commenced if the commander can determine that the RVR/visibility along the take-off runway is equal to or better than the required minimum d. When no reported meteorological visibility or RVR is available, a takeoff may only be commenced if the commander can determine that the RVR/visibility along the take-off runway is equal to or better than 200m

Answer 86

c. When no reported meteorological visibility or RVR is available, a takeoff may only be commenced if the commander can determine that the RVR/visibility along the take-off runway is equal to or better than the required minimum

Question 87

1 Who must the Captain inform in case of a major infectious disease on board? (OMA 6.5) a. Medical and Health authorities at destination on arrival.

Answer 87

a. Medical and Health authorities at destination on arrival.

Question 88

1 In a SNOWTAM decode, what does (P)YES60 mean? (OMC 10.3.1 SNOWTAMS “YES” followed by lateral distance apart (meters) : 60 m) (LIDO GEN-MET-1.3.10 SNOWTAM) (Note: there is now the new GRF Format) a. Taxiway Snowbanks higher than 60cm and 60m apart b. Taxiway Snowbanks higher than 600cm and 60m apart c. Taxiway Snowbanks higher than 60m and 60cm apart d. Taxiway Snowbanks higher than 6cm and 6m apart

Answer 88

a. Taxiway Snowbanks higher than 60cm and 60m apart

Question 89

2 In a GRF snowtam what does M) RWY 14L SNOWBANK R30 FM CL mean? (OMC 10.3.1 SNOWTAMS “YES” followed by lateral distance apart (meters) : 60 m) (LIDO GEN-MET-1.3.10 SNOWTAM) (Note: there is now the new GRF Format) a. Snowbanks on the runway 300m from the centreline to the right b. Snowbanks on the runway 300m from the centreline to the left c. Snowbanks on the runway 30m from the centreline to the right d. Snowbanks on the runway 30m from the centreline to the left

Answer 89

c. Snowbanks on the runway 30m from the centreline to the right

Question 90

1 Max rates of descent referenced to AGL? (OMA 8.32.20.2.21): a. 4000ft/min to 4000ft b. 3000ft/min to 3000ft c. 2000ft/min to 2000ft d. 1000ft/min to 1000ft

Answer 90

b. 3000ft/min to 3000ft

Question 91

1 What is the definition of a DEPO? (OME 10.5.18.2)) a. A deportee (DEPO) is a person who has been formally ordered by the authorities to be removed from that country. b. A person charged with a criminal offence and is wanted by the authorities. c. A person who is refused entry by the Immigration Authorities.

Answer 91

a. A deportee (DEPO) is a person who has been formally ordered by the authorities to be removed from that country.

Question 92

1 For holdover times, how should Snow Grains and Snow pellets be treated? (OMC 10.2.3.8.9) (Maybe an Open Book question; More feedback required) a. As rain on a cold soaked wing b. As snow c. As ice pellets d. AS freezing fog

Answer 92

b. As snow

Question 93

1 What is the definition of LOUT (Lowest Operation Use Temperature) definition? (OMC 10.2.3.9.7 & GOM Chap20 5.3) a. The Lowest Operational Use Temperature (LOUT) is the higher (warmer) of the lowest temperature at which the fluid meets the aerodynamic acceptance test (according to AS5900) for a given type (high speed or low speed) of airplane; or the freezing point of the fluid plus the freezing point buffer of 10°C (18°F) for Type I fluid and 7°C (13°F) for Type II, III, or IV fluids.

Answer 93

a. The Lowest Operational Use Temperature (LOUT) is the higher (warmer) of the lowest temperature at which the fluid meets the aerodynamic acceptance test (according to AS5900) for a given type (high speed or low speed) of airplane; or the freezing point of the fluid plus the freezing point buffer of 10°C (18°F) for Type I fluid and 7°C (13°F) for Type II, III, or IV fluids.

Question 94

1 What FL can a non-commander relieve/change seats with a commander during augmented operations? ((OMA 5.2.14.2) a. Operations above FL200

Answer 94

a. Operations above FL200

Question 95

1 The VPNC in coordination with relevant stakeholder representatives in NCC, shall ensure that? (OMA 2.4.1) a. A Commander has been designated, the required crew complement has been allocated and that they meet all required competency and recency requirements; b. The aircraft is properly prepared for the flight and that all maintenance requirements have been met, and will continue to be met, for the duration of the flight; c. An Operational Flight Plan has been prepared and all dispatch requirements have been met. d. All of the above

Answer 95

d. All of the above

Question 96

1 Which Flight document(s) are NOT required to be retained on ground at the aerodrome of departure until the aircraft returns to Dubai? (OMA 2.1.3.1) a. Route specific NOTAM documentation it edited by Emirates. b. A copy of the Master Operational Flight plan (OFP) c. Mass and balance documentation (Load Sheet) d. Significant Weather Documentation

Answer 96

d. Significant Weather Documentation

Question 97

1 Following an Overweight landing what items should be reported in the techlog? (OMA 8.3.20.3.12) a. The ACTUAL Landing weights

Answer 97

a. The ACTUAL Landing weights

Question 98

2 Who is responsible to ensure the aircraft is loaded correctly? (OMA 1.6.4.3.3) a. Aircraft shall be loaded in accordance with the respective Weight and Balance Manual to obtain the best Centre of gravity that the load permits. This responsibility lies with the Handling Agent/Loadmaster who should ensure that the Centre of gravity limits are not exceeded.

Answer 98

a. Aircraft shall be loaded in accordance with the respective Weight and Balance Manual to obtain the best Centre of gravity that the load permits. This responsibility lies with the Handling Agent/Loadmaster who should ensure that the Centre of gravity limits are not exceeded.