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Ek Teck Quiz > Closed book exam > Flashcards

Closed book exam Flashcards

1
Q

1 Who is responsible for the manuals and documents to be valid during the entire flight? (OMA 1.5.3t)
a. Commander
b. First Office
c. Dispatch
d. Engineer

A

a. Commander

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2
Q

2 Who is responsible for keeping a valid medical licence? (OMA 6.4)
a. Licensing department
b. GCAA
c. Documents keeper
d. Individual crew member

A

d. Individual crew member

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3
Q

3 Which documents are NOT retained on ground in Dubai? (OMA 2.1.3.1)

a. SIGWX chart is NOT to be retained

A

a. SIGWX chart is NOT to be retained

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4
Q

4 Is the Commander responsible for Safety Cards?

a. Yes. The Commander delegates to the Cabin Crew and the Purser Ensures it is done
b. No

A

a. Yes. The Commander delegates to the Cabin Crew and the Purser Ensures it is done

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5
Q

5 The Tech Log must be filled out in accordance with which manual? (OMA 8.1.11)
a. MEL / CDL

A

a. MEL / CDL

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6
Q

6 A Captain shall not commence a flight if he is not satisfied? (OMA 8.1)

a. Aircraft is airworthy
b. The load is correctly distributed
c. The airplane configuration is in accordance with the CDL
d. All of the above.

A

d. All of the above.

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7
Q

7 What are the Flight Crew duties during fuelling? (OMA 8.2.1.3)
a. Establish and maintain comms with ground.
b. Inform Cabin Crew when refueling is finished by switching the seat belt signs on.
c. Be ready to action PAX evacuation
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

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8
Q

8 Is Defueling with passengers embarking / onboard / disembarking allowed? (GOM Chap17; No4 / 8.2.1.3)

a. No with JET B, JP-4 or AVTAG
b. Yes if Jet A/A1 and the flight crew MUST be notified before commencing.
c. Follow local regulations
d. A and B

A

d. A and B

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9
Q

9 When can you start to use contingency fuel? (OMA 8.1.7.2 / 8.3.7.1)

a. After the release of the fuel bowser

A

a. After the release of the fuel bowser

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10
Q

10 At the planning stage contingency fuel compensate for deviations in? (OMA 8.1.7.1.3)

a. WX Forecasts
b. ZFW
c. TOW
d. Expected Taxi Fuel

A

a. WX Forecasts

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11
Q

11 Standard Fuel Planning requirements are only applicable until? (OMA 8.1.7.2)

a. Completion of refueling and release of the fuel bowser.

A

a. Completion of refueling and release of the fuel bowser.

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12
Q

15 Which of the following is NOT a correct statement regarding fuel remaining on touchdown? (OMA 8.3.7.3)

a. For Commitment to Destination = Final Reserve Fuel
b. For Destination = Alternate + Final Reserve Fuel
c. For Alternate = Final Reserve Fuel
d. For Destination = Alternate Fuel

A

d. For Destination = Alternate Fuel

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13
Q

16 What is Final Reserve Fuel? (OMA 8.1.7.1.5)

a. Fuel required to fly for 30mins at holding speed at 1500ft above destination alternate aerodrome elevation in standard conditions, calculated with estimated weight on arrival at the alternate or the destination when no alternate is required.

A

a. Fuel required to fly for 30mins at holding speed at 1500ft above destination alternate aerodrome elevation in standard conditions, calculated with estimated weight on arrival at the alternate or the destination when no alternate is required.

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14
Q

17 If during the in-flight fuel check the expected fuel on arrival at the destination is less than Alternate fuel plus final reserve fuel, could you continue to destination without knowing the EAT? (OMA 8.3.7.2)
a. No.
b. Flight may continue towards the destination aerodrome if it is possible to reach at least two aerodromes at which a landing is assured with at least Final reserve fuel remaining at touchdown. Two separate and independent runways at a single aerodrome within two hours of flying time may be considered to be equivalent to two aerodromes, provided that account is taken of fuel burn due to any likely ATC delays

A

b. Flight may continue towards the destination aerodrome if it is possible to reach at least two aerodromes at which a landing is assured with at least Final reserve fuel remaining at touchdown. Two separate and independent runways at a single aerodrome within two hours of flying time may be considered to be equivalent to two aerodromes, provided that account is taken of fuel burn due to any likely ATC delays

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15
Q

1 How many mm of frost is allowed under the wing? (OMA 8.2.4)
a. 3
b. 2
c. None
d. 1

A

a. 3

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16
Q

2 With regards to frost? (OMA 8.2.4)
a. Regulations allow a small layer of frost on top of the fuselage.
b. Regulations allow a small layer of frost on top of the wing
c. Any ice/frost less than 3mm does not need to be taken in to account
d. ?

A

a. Regulations allow a small layer of frost on top of the fuselage.

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17
Q

3 When does Holdover Protection Expire? (GOM Chap20; 9.6.3)

a. At the commencement of take-off roll (due to aerodynamic shedding of fluid)
b. When frozen deposits starts to form or accumulate on treated aircraft surfaces, thereby indicating the loss of effectiveness of the fluid (fluid failure)
c. Both A & B

A

c. Both A & B

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18
Q

4 When is a PCI mandatory? (OMC 10.2.3.6)

a. When precipitation has started since application of final layer and the shortest time of the HOT is exceeded.

b. When there is heavy snow and a take-off is contemplated. Or Heavy snow conditions exist or has been encountered since the start of anti-icing fluid application.
c. When a passengers report suggest that the anti-icing fluid has failed.
d. All of the above.

A

d. All of the above.

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19
Q

5 When is a PCI mandatory? (OMC 10.2.3.6)

a. When precipitation has started since application of final layer and the shortest time of the HOT is exceeded.

b. If Ice pellets are encountered and take off is contemplated
c. When severe icing conditions are encountered and take off is contemplated
d. All of the above.

A

a. When precipitation has started since application of final layer and the shortest time of the HOT is exceeded.

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20
Q

6 When will you turn on ENGINE ANTI ICE? (FCOM>PRO>SUPP>ICE & RAIN> OP IN ICING)

a. Engine anti-ice must be ON during all ground and flight operations, when icing conditions exist, or are anticipated, except during climb and cruise when the SAT is below –40 °C. Engine anti-ice must be ON before and during a descent in icing conditions, even if the SAT is below –40 °C.

b. Engine anti-ice must be on during all ground and flight operations when icing conditions exist.
c. Engine anti-ice must be on during all ground and flight operations when icing conditions exist,

A

a. Engine anti-ice must be ON during all ground and flight operations, when icing conditions exist, or are anticipated, except during climb and cruise when the SAT is below –40 °C. Engine anti-ice must be ON before and during a descent in icing conditions, even if the SAT is below –40 °C.

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21
Q

9 What is a Representative Surface? (OMC 10.2.3.6 / GOM 9.3.2.1)

a. The inner portion of the wing from the root outward to the innermost pylon. It includes the entire chord length.

A

a. The inner portion of the wing from the root outward to the innermost pylon. It includes the entire chord length.

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22
Q

10 What is the definition of a contaminated runway? (OMA 8.1.2.6.1.4)

a. 25% covered
b. 50% covered
c. 75% covered
d. 100% covered

A

a. 25% covered

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23
Q

11 When flying to an airport on altimeter setting and the OAT is -30c at the airfield. Which altitudes need to be corrected for temperature? (OMC 10.2.4.1.1)

a. MEA/MH/MGA? Minimum obstacle
b. Missed approach altitude and engine acceleration altitude
c. Approach minimum, initial fix, intermediate fix and final fix
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

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24
Q

12 What do you apply temp correction to if the airfield (or ISA) temp is -30 degrees? (OMC 10.2.4.1.1)

a. Min en-route alt MEA / Min Holding Alt MH / Min Grid Alt MGA / Min Obstacle / Obstruction Alt MOCA.

A

Min en-route alt MEA / Min Holding Alt MH / Min Grid Alt MGA / Min Obstacle / Obstruction Alt MOCA
NOTE: Not ATC Cleared ALT: ( In the EXAM I think the correct answer is ALL OF THE ABOVE

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25
Q

1 How long do the crew need to be onboard prior to departure? (OMC 1.1.5 & GOM Annexes>Annex B>1.2.5.TA now says STD-60 min)

a. Early enough
b. Cabin Crew 1 hour, Flight Deck 40 mins
c. STD-55 (this was the correct answer in the old exam)
d. STD-60 (the new correct answer)

A

a. STD-55 (this was the correct answer in the old exam)
Note recent feedback says STD-60 was NOT an option. Suggest you go with old answer for now

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26
Q

2 When do the crew need to be on board the aircraft? (OMA 8.2.1.3)

a. 60 mins for Cabin Crew and 40 mins for Flight Crew
b. As early as they can manage to be on board
c. At least one Flight Crew member and cabin crew shall be on board whenever the passengers are embarking or disembarking or are on board.

A

c. At least one Flight Crew member and cabin crew shall be on board whenever the passengers are embarking or disembarking or are on board.

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27
Q

3 When does the FDP start and end? (OMA 7.6.1)

a. Dubai 1h25min to chocks on / Outstation 1h to chocks on

A

a. Dubai 1h25min to chocks on / Outstation 1h to chocks on

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28
Q

4 When can FDP’s be legally extended? (OMA 7.7.1 / 7.7.2 / 7.15)

a. Inflight relief
b. Split duty
c. Commander’s discretion
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

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29
Q

5 What FDP should be recorded in your personal logbook? (OMA 7.7.1.3)
a. A nominated Captain and FO 100%
b. ?
c. Augmenting crew their actual operating times on the VR.
d. Both A and C

A

d. Both A and C

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30
Q

6 When is a crew member said to be acclimatised for work? (OMA 7.5)

a. When they have 3 local nights on ground within 2 hour time band (Local night is 8hrs within 2200-0800 local time)

b. When they have 2 local nights on ground within 3 hour time band (Local night is 8hrs within 2200-0800 local time)
c. When they have 3 local nights on ground within 2 hour time band (Local night is 8hrs within 2200-0800 UTC)

d. Three days off

A

a. When they have 3 local nights on ground within 2 hour time band (Local night is 8hrs within 2200-0800 local time)

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31
Q

7 Who is responsible for making sure the FTL scheme is monitored? (OMA 7.2 / 7.3)

a. Crew Member
b. Emirates Airline
c. GCAA
d. Answer A & B from above

A

d. Answer A & B from above

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32
Q

5 What are the required conditions to perform an Orbit? (OMA 8.3.20.2.26)

a. In Day VMC, whilst maintaining constant visual contact with terrain, & above 1500ft agl with the autopilot engaged.,

A

. In Day VMC, whilst maintaining constant visual contact with terrain, & above 1500ft agl with the autopilot engaged.,

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33
Q

6 When would you assume Pilot incapacitation? (OMA 8.3.14)

a. Two verbal communications when above 1000ft AGL
b. One verbal communication when below 1000ft AGL
c. Any verbal communication associated with significant deviation from the intended flight path
d. All the above.

A

d. All the above.

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34
Q

8 For a Non-standard Engine Out turning procedure when do you initiate the acceleration? (OMA 8.3.20.3.6.2)

a. The aeroplane is established on the final heading, track or course of the Non-Standard engine out procedure and at or about the minimum acceleration height.
b. At or above the applicable MSA
c. The aeroplane meets the specific requirements described in the applicable Non-standard engine out procedure.

d. All of the above.

A

d. All of the above.

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35
Q

9 What are the initial actions when you receive a RED BOMB alert whilst flying? (OMA 10.5.4.3.3)

a. Contact SMNC
b. Follow the procedure contained in the FCOM/QRH
c. Make a PA: “This is the captain Purser to the Flight Deck”
d. Make a PA to the Passengers and give the Purser a NIT’s briefing.

A

b. Follow the procedure contained in the FCOM/QRH

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36
Q

1 When are 2 Destination Alternates required? (OMA 8.1.3.1.6 & 8.1.6.1)

a. No meteorological information available
b. Weather below minimum at destination +-1hr of ETA
c. Aerodrome not suitable for A/C type.
d. A and B correct

A

d. A and B correct

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37
Q

2 When do you need 2 Alternates? (OMA 8.1.3.1.6 & 8.1.6.1)

a. No meteorological information available
b. Tempo TS and weather below planned minima +/- 1hr of ETA
c. Tempo Fog and weather below planned minima +/- 1hr of ETA
d. A and C correct

A

d. A and C correct

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38
Q

3 What are the applicable planning minima for Takeoff alternates? (OMA 8.1.3.1.1)

a. A take off alternate is required if the weather minimums at the departure airport are not equal or better than are required to return. The weather must be above the applicable landing minima +/- 1 hour ETA. (Using reports / forecasts or combination of. (OMA 8.1.2.1.4.1)

b. Within two hours of flight time (equal to 950 nm for a A380) at a one engine inoperative speed in still air conditions based on the actual take off weight.

c. All above are correct.

A

c. All above are correct.

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39
Q

4 What are the applicable planning minima for Takeoff alternates? (OMA 8.1.3.1.1)

a. At least CAT 1 WX conditions
b. At least CAT 1 WX conditions plus 200m Visibility/RVR
c. Same as the planning minimum for Destination Alternate airports
d. Applicable Landing Minima

A

d. Applicable Landing Minima

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40
Q

1 What weather must you use within 2hrs of your destination?

A

a. Actual weather and trend information may be used

41
Q

2 What is the required visibility for circling minima? (OMA 8.3.20.2.22.4 & OMC 6.2)

a. Visibility is the HIGHER OF 5,000m OR THE PUBLISHED MINIMA. (Ceiling is The higher of 1,200 ft AAL or the charted Cat D minima rounded up by 200ft)

b. Visibility is Published minima
c. Visibility is 8km
d. Visibility is 2km

A

b. Visibility is Published minima

42
Q

1 If company regulations violate national or international rules or regulations which, should you follow? (OMA 1.1.1)

a. Company policies
b. International laws
c. National laws
d. B and C

A

d. B and C

43
Q

2 Which law must be applied onboard an EK aircraft outside UAE airspace? (OMA 1.1.1)

a. You must comply with the law of the state you are operating in.
b. National Rule
c. International Rule
d. UAE CAR Rule

A

a. You must comply with the law of the state you are operating in.

44
Q

1 Where will you find the list of Airport Categories? (OMA 8.1.2.1 / OMC 12.1)

a. OMC
b. OMA
c. OMD
d. OME

A

a. OMC

45
Q

2 What makes a suitable aerodrome? (OMA 8.5.1.6)

a. Enroute wx planning min ceiling + visibility are met
b. Forecast crosswind within limits including gusts
c. Runway conditions suitable for a safe landing
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

46
Q

1 Which cargo has HIGHEST priority (gets offloaded last if weight restricted)? (GOM Chap13; 27.1)

a. Animals
b. International mail
c. Food or perishables
d. SkyCargo cargo

A

a. International mail

NOTE: International mail has loading priority over all other cargo, and will be offloaded only after all other cargo, in the event of a flight being weight restricted. Also due to GOM update “International mail” has now changed to “EMIRATES COMPANY MAIL”. However not sure if the question in the exam has been updated

47
Q

1 Where can the provisions for DG (Dangerous Goods) carried by passengers and crew be found?

a. IATA Dangerous Goods Regulations Section 2 – Limitations.

A

a. IATA Dangerous Goods Regulations Section 2 – Limitations.

48
Q

2 Which aircraft hold(s) can be used for transportation of DG? (OMA 9.10 / 9.10.2)

a. Only the aft hold.
b. In all the cargo holds, but the bulk has restrictions.
c. Only the forward hold.
d. Any hold.

A

b. In all the cargo holds, but the bulk has restrictions.

49
Q

1 When is a CRS (Certificate of Release to Service) NOT required? (OMA 8.1.11.2)

a. A CRS is NOT required in a case of NIL DEFECTS in the TECH LOG
b. Never
c. Always
d. On Captains discretion

A

a. A CRS is NOT required in a case of NIL DEFECTS in the TECH LOG

50
Q

2 When is a CRS required? (OMA 8.1.11.2)

a. When a defect is entered into the Tech Log a CRS is required to revalidate the CofA. If a defect is entered into a Tech Log and the defect has been actioned a CRS MUST be issued

A

a. When a defect is entered into the Tech Log a CRS is required to revalidate the CofA. If a defect is entered into a Tech Log and the defect has been actioned a CRS MUST be issued

51
Q

1 Which one below is the stabilization criteria for visual circuit? (OMA 8.3.20.2.27)

a. Wings level by 300ft AAL
b. Wings level by 400ft AAL
c. Same as other approaches with cut off platform lowered to 500ft AAL

A

a. Wings level by 300ft AAL

NOTE: This question has come up several times and looks like it’s a throwback to the old OMA, in which case the answer would be ‘a’. However, more feedback is required to confirm this so I’ve not BOLD any answer.

52
Q

2 Which of the following is NOT a stabilisations criteria? (OMA 8.3.20.2.27)

a. Speed between Vref +20/-5
b. Landing gear down and locked at 1,000ft.
c. Thrust setting appropriate for the aeroplane configuration
d. Speedbrakes not deployed below 1,000ft AAL.

A

a. Speed between Vref +20/-5

NOTE: Based on the updated OMA Passing 300ft AAL the airplane shall be established on the lateral path

53
Q

1 What are the RVSM applicable levels? (LIDO P541: 1.4.5.11.9.1)

a. FL290 – FL410 inclusive
b. FL290 – FL410 exclusive

A

a. FL290 – FL410 inclusive

54
Q

1 If RWY length is reduced what do you check and from where? (Could not find the new reference.)

a. Check Performance software distances against those published in the NOTAM or AIP Supplement.

A

a. Check Performance software distances against those published in the NOTAM or AIP Supplement.

55
Q

1 What is the restriction on two inexperienced crew members flying together? (OMA 4.1.4)

a. 28 flights
b. 35 days
c. 45 flights
d. 3 months

A

d. 3 months

56
Q

1 When can a Captain allow the FO to taxi the aircraft? (OMA 8.3.20.1.7)

a. Anytime except where the parking guidance system is aligned with the view from the left-hand seat or a 180 degree turn is required.

A

a. Anytime except where the parking guidance system is aligned with the view from the left-hand seat or a 180 degree turn is required.

57
Q

1 Who can the captain call If there is a medical issue with PAX during check in / boarding? (OMA 8.2.3.2.1)

a. Ground Medical Support
b. Aerodrome Medical Clinic
c. An Emirates doctor, contactable through the Network Operations.
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

58
Q

1 What do you check after there is a change to the LMC? (OMA 8.1.8.6.1)
a. ZFW / TOW / LW limits are not exceeded (Structural and Perf).
b. Check MAC within 2.4%
c. Inform load control
d. A & B

A

ZFW / TOW / LW limits are not exceeded (Structural and Perf).

NOTE: You must also check T/O Perf is validated with new wts and loading limits are not exceeded.

59
Q

1 Deep diving without decompression stops require you to wait 12hr before flying. If decompression stops were required how much time would you need to wait before flying? (OMA 6.1.14)

a. 8 hours
b. 12 hours
c. 18 hours
d. 24 hours

A

d. 24 hours

NOTE: If NO decompression stops, then only 12 hours

60
Q

1 What is the alcohol consumption limits prior to a duty? (ERM 1.10.4)

a. 12hrs prior to commencing a duty until after the end of the assigned duty

A

a. 12hrs prior to commencing a duty until after the end of the assigned duty

61
Q

1 How long must you wait after giving blood before you can go flying? (OMA 6.1.15)

a. 48hrs

A

a. 48hrs

62
Q

1 What is the max fuel discrepancy after refueling is complete? (OMA 8.2.1.6)

a. ACTUAL (Supplier) > CALCULATED (AC FOB - START) > Max 5% of CALCULATED uplift up to 2000kg

b. ACTUAL (Supplier) < CALCULATED (AC FOB - START) > Max 5% of CALCULATED uplift up to 1000kg

c. A380 FCOM max discrepancy = 1270kg + 0.5% FOB

A

a. ACTUAL (Supplier) > CALCULATED (AC FOB - START) > Max 5% of CALCULATED uplift up to 2000kg

b. ACTUAL (Supplier) < CALCULATED (AC FOB - START) > Max 5% of CALCULATED uplift up to 1000kg

c. A380 FCOM max discrepancy = 1270kg + 0.5% FOB

63
Q

5 Fuel policy from the company is based on minimum total cost and maximum payload. It takes into account? (OMA 8.1.7.1.1)

a. Met conditions
b. Expected routing and flight levels
c. Realistic A/C consumption data based on manufacturer data and performance degradation for specific aircraft.

d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

64
Q

11 Which answer is correct? Contingency fuel is a quantity of fuel carried to compensate for items such as: (OMA 8.1.7.1.3)

a. Deviations of an individual aircraft for the expected fuel consumption data (over and above the tail number corrects allowed for in the trip fuel:

b. Deviations for forecast meteorological conditions
c. Deviations from planned routings and/or cruising levels/altitudes
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

65
Q

1 What is the Takeoff Operating minima for Category ‘C’ respective ‘D’ aircraft on a runway equipped with runway edge and centerline lights will never be less than? (OMA 8.1.5.3.2)

a. 250/300m
b. 200/250m
c. 150/200m

A

b. 200/250m

66
Q

2 Approach criteria classification a/c category based on? (OMA 19.7)

a. Based on NOMINAL THRESHOLD SPEED.

A

a. Based on NOMINAL THRESHOLD SPEED.

67
Q

1 MORA is displayed on the OFP and based on which parameters? (OMC 10.1.7.3.1)

a. For a 5nm corridor, based on terrain clearance with terrain elevation above 5000ft: 2000ft above the highest terrain and obstructions

b. Minimum Off Route Altitude at a corridor 10nm either side of the route centre line displayed in 2 digits expressed in thousands of feet. LIDO uses CAR OPS calculation method. For terrain lower that 600ft a buffer of 1000ft is added. For terrain higher thatn 6000ft a buffer of 2000ft is added.

c. For 5NM corridor, based on terrain clearance with terrain elevation up to 6000ft: 1000ft above the highest terrain and obstructions
d. For a 10NM corridor, based on terrain clearance with Terrain elevation up to 5000ft: 1000ft above the highest terrain and obstructions.

NOTE: In the exam it still says JAR-OPS and our manuals say CAR-OPS. The exams hasn’t been updated

A

b. Minimum Off Route Altitude at a corridor 10nm either side of the route centre line displayed in 2 digits expressed in thousands of feet. LIDO uses CAR OPS calculation method. For terrain lower that 600ft a buffer of 1000ft is added. For terrain higher thatn 6000ft a buffer of 2000ft is added

68
Q

2 Which altitude does the OFP show in two digits? (OMC 10.1.7.2)

a. MORA

A

a. MORA

69
Q

4 What is the definition of MORA in the OFP? (OMC 10.1.7.3.1)

a. Is a corridor 10NM either side of the Route centerline in 2 digits expressed in thousand

A

a. Is a corridor 10NM either side of the Route centerline in 2 digits expressed in thousand

70
Q

1 Vaccinations must be administered at least how many hours prior to a flight? (OMA 6.1.20)
a. 36
b. 48
c. 24
d. 12

A

d. 12

71
Q

ADEQUATE ALTERNATE REQUIRMENTS:

1 An Adequate should fulfil which criteria? (OMA 8.5.5.2)
a. Has a runway that is long enough to safely bring an aircraft to a stop within the landing distance available clearing all obstacles in the approach path by a safe margin.
b. Is expected to be available if required.
c. Is equipped with the necessary auxiliary services such as ATC, lighting, communications, meteorological services, navigation and approach aids and rescue and fire fighting services.

d. All of the above.

A

d. All of the above.

72
Q

1 What is the definition of WCHS? (OMA 8.2.2.1.2.3)

a. Passengers who cannot ascend/descent steps but can make their own way slowly to/from their seats. (No restrictions on the number per flight)

A

a. Passengers who cannot ascend/descent steps but can make their own way slowly to/from their seats. (No restrictions on the number per flight)

73
Q

CATEGORY A AERODROME CATEGORY:

1 Which of the following criteria is NOT a requirement for a CAT A airport? (OMA 8.1.2.1)
a. At least one runway with no performance limited procedure for take off and/or landing
b. Night operations capability
c. Published circling minima not higher than 1000 feet AAL
d. Availability of non-standard approach aids and/or approach patterns

A

d. Availability of non-standard approach aids and/or approach patterns

74
Q

FLIGHT OPERATION MISSION

1 What is the Flight Operations Mission? (OMA 1.1)
a. To operate Emirates A/C in the most flexible and cost efficient way
b. To operate Emirates A/C in the safest and most efficient manner
c. To operate Emirates A/C in the safest and most cost effective way
d. To operate Emirates A/C in the most economical and efficient manner

A

b. To operate Emirates A/C in the safest and most efficient manner

75
Q

1 Must a passenger who’s baggage has been offloaded as he is missing, be accepted after he is located (Cannot find a reference)
a. SMNC’s discretion
b. Yes
c. Captains discretion
d. No

A

d. No

NOTE: Baggage offload shall commence at -15 STD. If PAX found before baggage is offloaded they MAY be accepted at the discretion of the Captain

76
Q

2 Whenever the commander suspects that the weight or balance of an aircraft is grossly in error, he should take which of the following actions? (RAIG F2.1)
a. Press the EICAS Event Record Switch
b. Maintaining the aircraft well within the safe operating envelope and buffet margin for the remainder of the flight

c. Divert to the Nearest Suitable Airport?

A

b. Maintaining the aircraft well within the safe operating envelope and buffet margin for the remainder of the flight

77
Q

2 What should the cabin crew do when they hear “Purser to the flight deck”? (OMA 5.5.6)

a. The remaining cabin crew will clear the cabin of all trolleys, return to their allocated cabin station, review the OM-E, and await a briefing call from either the Purser or the Commander

A

a. The remaining cabin crew will clear the cabin of all trolleys, return to their allocated cabin station, review the OM-E, and await a briefing call from either the Purser or the Commander

78
Q

1 What are the age and weight definitions for an adult passenger? (OMA 8.1.8.5)

a. Above 16 years. 80kg male. 72kg female
b. above 15 years. 82kg male. 77kg female
c. Above 12 years. 88kg male. 70kg female
d. Above 14years. 87kg male. 75kg female

A

c. Above 12 years. 88kg male. 70kg female

79
Q

2 What is the recommended lateral avoidance distance for thunderstorms with Strong Weather Radar echoes? (OMA 8.3.8.2)

a. 5nm at 20,000ft, 10NM at 25,000ft, 15NM at 30,000ft
b. At least 10NM at or below FL200, and by at least 20NM above FL200
c. 20 NM on all flight levels
d. 10 NM on all flight levels

A

a. At least 10NM at or below FL200, and by at least 20NM above FL200

NOTE: Strong Weather Radar echoes shall be avoided by at least 10 nm at or below FL200, and by at least 20 nm above FL200

80
Q

1 What is the Planning Minima for a Destination Alternate, if the only type of approach available is a non-precision approach? (OMA 8.1.3.3)

a. Circling Minima plus 200 ft / 1,000 m
b. Non-Precision Approach Minima plus 200 ft / 1,000 m
c. Non-Precision Approach Minima
d. Circling Minima

A

b. Non-Precision Approach Minima plus 200 ft / 1,000 m

81
Q

1 On a standard SID what is the minimum turn height unless procedurally required? (OMA 8.3.20.2.13)

a. 200ft AGL
b. 300ft AGL
c. 400ft AGL
d. 500ft AGL

A

c. 400ft AGL

82
Q

1 Which of the following requirements has NOT to be met, to allow qualified crews reducing their takeoff minima to 150 or 125 m respectively? (OMA 8.1.5.3.2)

a. High Intensity edge lights are spaced 60 m or less and are in operation.
b. Low Visibility Procedures are in force.
c. High intensity runway centerline lights are spaced 15 m or less and are in operation.
d. The REIL must be in operation

A

d. The REIL must be in operation

83
Q

1 Which answer is NOT a First Officer restriction for takeoff or Landing? (OMA 5.2.16.2)

a. Wet runway
b. Crosswind component exceeding 20kts
c. Visibility less than 2 nm for takeoff
d. Answer A and C

A

d. Answer A and C.

84
Q

2 When may an FO NOT conduct a take-off? (OMA 5.2.16.2)

a. The runway is contaminated, the crosswind component exceeds 20kts, the visibility is 500m or less, the departure is from a CAT C aerodrome.
b. The runway is contaminated, the crosswind component exceeds 20kts, the visibility is 500m or if aerodrome categorization requires the captain to be PF.

c. The runway is contaminated, the crosswind component exceeds 20kts, the visibility is 500m or less,
d. The runway is contaminated, the crosswind component exceeds 15kts, the visibility is 150m or less, the

departure is from a CAT B or CAT C aerodrome.

A

b. The runway is contaminated, the crosswind component exceeds 20kts, the visibility is 500m or if aerodrome categorization requires the captain to be PF.

85
Q

1 What is the minimum visibility for take-off when the RVR are reported in all the relevant points and with Edge lights + runway CCL? (OMA 8.1.5.3.2)

a. 125m
b. 150m
c. 200m
d. 300m

A

b. 150m

86
Q

2 Is take off permitted if no RVR is provided? (OMA 8.1.5.3.2)

a. Takeoff is not permitted if RVR is not reported
b. Only if LVO’s not in force
c. When no reported meteorological visibility or RVR is available, a takeoff may only be commenced if the commander can determine that the RVR/visibility along the take-off runway is equal to or better than the required minimum

d. When no reported meteorological visibility or RVR is available, a takeoff may only be commenced if the commander can determine that the RVR/visibility along the take-off runway is equal to or better than 200m

A

c. When no reported meteorological visibility or RVR is available, a takeoff may only be commenced if the commander can determine that the RVR/visibility along the take-off runway is equal to or better than the required minimum

87
Q

1 Who must the Captain inform in case of a major infectious disease on board? (OMA 6.5)

a. Medical and Health authorities at destination on arrival.

A

a. Medical and Health authorities at destination on arrival.

88
Q

1 In a SNOWTAM decode, what does (P)YES60 mean? (OMC 10.3.1 SNOWTAMS “YES” followed by lateral distance apart (meters) : 60 m) (LIDO GEN-MET-1.3.10 SNOWTAM) (Note: there is now the new GRF Format)

a. Taxiway Snowbanks higher than 60cm and 60m apart
b. Taxiway Snowbanks higher than 600cm and 60m apart
c. Taxiway Snowbanks higher than 60m and 60cm apart
d. Taxiway Snowbanks higher than 6cm and 6m apart

A

a. Taxiway Snowbanks higher than 60cm and 60m apart

89
Q

2 In a GRF snowtam what does M) RWY 14L SNOWBANK R30 FM CL mean? (OMC 10.3.1 SNOWTAMS “YES” followed by lateral distance apart (meters) : 60 m) (LIDO GEN-MET-1.3.10 SNOWTAM) (Note: there is now the new GRF Format)

a. Snowbanks on the runway 300m from the centreline to the right
b. Snowbanks on the runway 300m from the centreline to the left
c. Snowbanks on the runway 30m from the centreline to the right
d. Snowbanks on the runway 30m from the centreline to the left

A

c. Snowbanks on the runway 30m from the centreline to the right

90
Q

1 Max rates of descent referenced to AGL? (OMA 8.32.20.2.21):
a. 4000ft/min to 4000ft
b. 3000ft/min to 3000ft
c. 2000ft/min to 2000ft
d. 1000ft/min to 1000ft

A

b. 3000ft/min to 3000ft

91
Q

1 What is the definition of a DEPO? (OME 10.5.18.2))

a. A deportee (DEPO) is a person who has been formally ordered by the authorities to be removed from that country.
b. A person charged with a criminal offence and is wanted by the authorities.
c. A person who is refused entry by the Immigration Authorities.

A

a. A deportee (DEPO) is a person who has been formally ordered by the authorities to be removed from that country.

92
Q

1 For holdover times, how should Snow Grains and Snow pellets be treated? (OMC 10.2.3.8.9) (Maybe an Open Book question; More feedback required)

a. As rain on a cold soaked wing
b. As snow
c. As ice pellets
d. AS freezing fog

A

b. As snow

93
Q

1 What is the definition of LOUT (Lowest Operation Use Temperature) definition? (OMC 10.2.3.9.7 & GOM Chap20 5.3)

a. The Lowest Operational Use Temperature (LOUT) is the higher (warmer) of the lowest temperature at which the fluid meets the aerodynamic acceptance test (according to AS5900) for a given type (high speed or low speed) of airplane; or the freezing point of the fluid plus the freezing point buffer of 10°C (18°F) for Type I fluid and 7°C (13°F) for Type II, III, or IV fluids.

A

a. The Lowest Operational Use Temperature (LOUT) is the higher (warmer) of the lowest temperature at which the fluid meets the aerodynamic acceptance test (according to AS5900) for a given type (high speed or low speed) of airplane; or the freezing point of the fluid plus the freezing point buffer of 10°C (18°F) for Type I fluid and 7°C (13°F) for Type II, III, or IV fluids.

94
Q

1 What FL can a non-commander relieve/change seats with a commander during augmented operations? ((OMA 5.2.14.2)

a. Operations above FL200

A

a. Operations above FL200

95
Q

1 The VPNC in coordination with relevant stakeholder representatives in NCC, shall ensure that? (OMA 2.4.1)

a. A Commander has been designated, the required crew complement has been allocated and that they meet all required competency and recency requirements;

b. The aircraft is properly prepared for the flight and that all maintenance requirements have been met, and will continue to be met, for the duration of the flight;

c. An Operational Flight Plan has been prepared and all dispatch requirements have been met.
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

96
Q

1 Which Flight document(s) are NOT required to be retained on ground at the aerodrome of departure until the aircraft returns to Dubai? (OMA 2.1.3.1)

a. Route specific NOTAM documentation it edited by Emirates.
b. A copy of the Master Operational Flight plan (OFP)
c. Mass and balance documentation (Load Sheet)
d. Significant Weather Documentation

A

d. Significant Weather Documentation

97
Q

1 Following an Overweight landing what items should be reported in the techlog? (OMA 8.3.20.3.12)

a. The ACTUAL Landing weights

A

a. The ACTUAL Landing weights

98
Q

2 Who is responsible to ensure the aircraft is loaded correctly? (OMA 1.6.4.3.3)

a. Aircraft shall be loaded in accordance with the respective Weight and Balance Manual to obtain the best Centre of gravity that the load permits. This responsibility lies with the Handling Agent/Loadmaster who should ensure that the Centre of gravity limits are not exceeded.

A

a. Aircraft shall be loaded in accordance with the respective Weight and Balance Manual to obtain the best Centre of gravity that the load permits. This responsibility lies with the Handling Agent/Loadmaster who should ensure that the Centre of gravity limits are not exceeded.

Ek Teck Quiz (5 decks)

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